April 2026 Current Affairs Quiz PDF with Answers
220 MCQs from 22 daily quizzes · NABARD Grade A, RBI Grade B, SEBI Grade A
Attempt each question before you open the answer. The Exam Ready PDF is the month’s must-know questions, grouped by topic — the one to take the week before the exam.
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1 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. What was the primary objective of the IONS IMEX TTX 2026 exercise conducted by the Indian Navy?
- A. Conduct real-time naval warfare drills
- B. Test nuclear submarine capabilities
- C. Simulate maritime scenarios in a discussion-based environment
- D. Train only Indian Navy personnel
- E. Conduct live missile testing
View answer
Answer: C) Simulate maritime scenarios in a discussion-based environment
IMEX TTX 2026 was a Table-Top Exercise (TTX), which focuses on simulated, discussion-based scenarios to test coordination and decision-making without deploying actual naval assets.
2. The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) was launched in which year?
- A. 2005
- B. 2008
- C. 2010
- D. 2012
- E. 2015
View answer
Answer: B) 2008
IONS was launched by India in 2008 to enhance maritime cooperation among countries in the Indian Ocean Region.
3. Why is the Baltic Sea unsuitable for humpback whales?
- A. High temperature and pollution
- B. Lack of oxygen in water
- C. Low salinity and absence of prey like krill
- D. Presence of predators
- E. High tidal waves
View answer
Answer: C) Low salinity and absence of prey like krill
Humpback whales require saline ocean water and feed on krill. The Baltic Sea lacks both suitable salinity and prey, making survival difficult.
4. What makes the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) strategically significant for Exercise Dweep Shakti?
- A. It hosts only naval forces
- B. It is India’s nuclear command center
- C. It is India’s only tri-service unified theater command
- D. It is used only for training foreign troops
- E. It is located on mainland India
View answer
Answer: C) It is India’s only tri-service unified theater command
ANC integrates Army, Navy, and Air Force under one command, making it ideal for joint exercises like Dweep Shakti focused on island defense.
5. What is the key objective of NASA’s Artemis II mission?
- A. Establish a permanent Mars colony
- B. Conduct robotic exploration of Moon
- C. Test systems for sustained human presence beyond Earth orbit
- D. Deploy satellites in low-Earth orbit
- E. Land humans directly on Moon
View answer
Answer: C) Test systems for sustained human presence beyond Earth orbit
Artemis II is a crewed mission designed to test deep-space systems and pave the way for long-term lunar exploration, not immediate landing.
6. What is the maximum export credit tenure allowed by RBI under the latest relief measures?
- A. 270 days
- B. 300 days
- C. 365 days
- D. 450 days
- E. 540 days
View answer
Answer: D) 450 days
RBI extended export credit tenure up to 450 days to ease liquidity pressure due to global trade disruptions.
7. What is the extended time limit for repatriation of export proceeds under RBI relief?
- A. 9 months
- B. 12 months
- C. 15 months
- D. 18 months
- E. 24 months
View answer
Answer: C) 15 months
RBI increased the repatriation period from 9 months to 15 months to support exporters facing delays due to geopolitical issues.
8. What is the system-wide cap on loans for purchase of shares as per RBI’s revised norms?
- A. ₹10 lakh
- B. ₹25 lakh
- C. ₹50 lakh
- D. ₹1 crore
- E. ₹5 crore
View answer
Answer: D) ₹1 crore
RBI introduced a system-wide cap of ₹1 crore per borrower to prevent excessive leverage across multiple banks.
9. Which of the following is NOT a pillar of the Supervisory Data Quality Index (sDQI)?
- A. Accuracy
- B. Timeliness
- C. Profitability
- D. Consistency
- E. Completeness
View answer
Answer: C) Profitability
sDQI evaluates data quality based on Accuracy, Timeliness, Completeness, and Consistency—not profitability.
10. Under the revised RBI norms, what is the deadline for AD Category-I banks to submit ECB returns?
- A. 3 days
- B. 5 days
- C. 7 days
- D. 10 days
- E. 15 days
View answer
Answer: C) 7 days
RBI mandated that ECB returns must be submitted within 7 calendar days to improve reporting efficiency and compliance.
2 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026 provides “statutory backing” to Amaravati. What does this imply?
- A. Amaravati becomes a Union Territory
- B. The decision is legally backed by Parliament and difficult to reverse
- C. Andhra Pradesh gets Special Category Status
- D. Hyderabad becomes part of Andhra Pradesh again
- E. Capital decision shifts to Supreme Court
View answer
Answer: B) The decision is legally backed by Parliament and difficult to reverse
Statutory backing means the decision is supported by an Act of Parliament, making it legally binding and hard to change through executive actions.
2. In the Three-Capital Model proposed earlier for Andhra Pradesh, which city was designated as the Administrative Capital?
- A. Amaravati
- B. Kurnool
- C. Visakhapatnam
- D. Vijayawada
- E. Tirupati
View answer
Answer: C) Visakhapatnam
The proposed model had Visakhapatnam as Administrative capital, Amaravati as Legislative, and Kurnool as Judicial capital.
3. The Nagoya Protocol primarily deals with which aspect of biodiversity governance?
- A. Climate change mitigation
- B. Wildlife protection laws
- C. Fair sharing of benefits from genetic resources
- D. Ocean pollution control
- E. Forest fire management
View answer
Answer: C) Fair sharing of benefits from genetic resources
The Nagoya Protocol ensures equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources, preventing biopiracy.
4. What is the main objective of the Nyaya Setu AI Chatbot?
- A. Replace judges with AI
- B. Increase court fees collection
- C. Provide easy and multilingual access to legal information
- D. Monitor criminal activities
- E. Digitize police records only
View answer
Answer: C) Provide easy and multilingual access to legal information
Nyaya Setu aims to democratize access to justice by removing language and literacy barriers using AI and voice-first technology.
5. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 focuses on:
- A. Increasing criminal penalties
- B. Decriminalising minor offences and reducing compliance burden
- C. Expanding GST scope
- D. Nationalizing MSMEs
- E. Abolishing civil courts
View answer
Answer: B) Decriminalising minor offences and reducing compliance burden
The Bill shifts minor offences from criminal penalties (jail) to civil penalties (fines), promoting ease of doing business.
6. The natural gas derivatives launched by NSE and IGX are primarily useful for:
- A. Export promotion
- B. Hedging against price volatility
- C. Increasing tax revenue
- D. Reducing imports
- E. Currency stabilization
View answer
Answer: B) Hedging against price volatility
Industries can use derivatives to lock in prices and protect themselves from fluctuations in natural gas prices.
7. The benchmark index for the new natural gas derivative contracts is:
- A. Brent Index
- B. Henry Hub
- C. GIXI
- D. Nifty Energy
- E. MCX Gas Index
View answer
Answer: C) GIXI
GIXI is the benchmark price index developed by the Indian Gas Exchange reflecting domestic gas prices.
8. The RBI’s PaSS framework aims to introduce:
- A. Unified lending platform
- B. Digital currency
- C. Bank account portability
- D. Cryptocurrency regulation
- E. Loan waiver scheme
View answer
Answer: C) Bank account portability
PaSS allows customers to switch banks without changing their account number, similar to mobile number portability.
9. Why did the RBI ban Non-Deliverable Forward (NDF) contracts on the rupee?
- A. To increase exports
- B. To reduce speculation on currency without real transactions
- C. To promote foreign investment
- D. To stabilize stock markets
- E. To increase remittances
View answer
Answer: B) To reduce speculation on currency without real transactions
NDFs allow speculative betting without actual currency exchange, which can destabilize the rupee during crises.
10. What is the primary purpose of Regulatory Impact Assessment (RIA)?
- A. Increase number of laws
- B. Reduce tax rates
- C. Evaluate economic and social impact of regulations
- D. Replace Parliament
- E. Promote exports
View answer
Answer: C) Evaluate economic and social impact of regulations
RIA assesses the costs, benefits, and consequences of regulations before and after implementation to ensure effectiveness.
3 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Why is the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) ideal for missions like Aditya-L1?
- A. It is closest to Mars
- B. It allows continuous solar observation without obstruction
- C. It has zero gravity
- D. It is inside the Sun’s atmosphere
- E. It is used for satellite launching
View answer
Answer: B) It allows continuous solar observation without obstruction
L1 is a stable point between Earth and the Sun where satellites can continuously observe the Sun without eclipses from Earth or Moon, making it ideal for solar missions.
2. What is the primary role of Survey Vessel ‘Sanshodhak’?
- A. Missile launching
- B. Combat operations
- C. Hydrographic and oceanographic surveys
- D. Space research
- E. Oil drilling
View answer
Answer: C) Hydrographic and oceanographic surveys
Sanshodhak is a survey vessel used for mapping the seabed, studying ocean data, and supporting navigation and maritime development.
3. What is the main objective of IOS SAGAR initiative?
- A. Space exploration
- B. Agricultural exports
- C. Maritime security cooperation in Indian Ocean Region
- D. Tourism promotion
- E. Banking integration
View answer
Answer: C) Maritime security cooperation in Indian Ocean Region
IOS SAGAR focuses on enhancing maritime cooperation, tackling piracy, and ensuring regional security in the Indian Ocean.
4. What is the main purpose of IRDAI’s action against dark patterns?
- A. Increase insurance prices
- B. Improve company profits
- C. Protect consumers from misleading digital practices
- D. Reduce policy issuance
- E. Promote offline insurance
View answer
Answer: C) Protect consumers from misleading digital practices
IRDAI aims to eliminate deceptive UI/UX practices that manipulate users into buying unwanted insurance products.
5. What is a key feature of a Wholly Owned Subsidiary (WOS) model in banking?
- A. No RBI regulation
- B. Operates only internationally
- C. Locally incorporated and regulated entity in India
- D. No capital requirement
- E. Only digital operations
View answer
Answer: C) Locally incorporated and regulated entity in India
Under WOS, foreign banks operate as Indian entities with local capital and governance, making regulation easier for RBI.
6. Why did SEBI reconsider the open market buyback route?
- A. Stock market crash
- B. Political pressure
- C. Removal of tax arbitrage differences
- D. Lack of investors
- E. High inflation
View answer
Answer: C) Removal of tax arbitrage differences
After tax reforms, buyback proceeds are taxed as capital gains, removing earlier inequities and making open market buybacks fair.
7. What is the impact of buyback on company shares?
- A. Increases total shares
- B. Decreases share value
- C. Reduces outstanding shares
- D. Stops trading
- E. Converts shares into bonds
View answer
Answer: C) Reduces outstanding shares
Buybacks reduce the number of shares in circulation, which generally increases Earnings Per Share (EPS).
8. What is the main aim of the ‘Tea Mark’ scheme?
- A. Increase exports only
- B. Promote tea tourism
- C. Ensure traceability and quality of tea
- D. Reduce tea production
- E. Replace coffee industry
View answer
Answer: C) Ensure traceability and quality of tea
Tea Mark certifies that tea meets quality standards and ensures transparency in the supply chain.
9. Which of the following best describes digital traceability in agriculture?
- A. Manual record keeping
- B. Satellite farming
- C. Tracking product journey using digital tools
- D. Social media marketing
- E. Weather forecasting
View answer
Answer: C) Tracking product journey using digital tools
Digital traceability ensures that agricultural products can be tracked from origin to final consumer, improving transparency and quality assurance.
10. What is a major reason for failure of agri-tech startups in Southeast Asia?
- A. Lack of farmers
- B. Government bans
- C. Premature expansion across multiple markets
- D. High rainfall
- E. Excess funding
View answer
Answer: C) Premature expansion across multiple markets
Many startups failed due to expanding too quickly into diverse markets without strong local execution strategies.
4 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. INS Taragiri is part of which naval project?
- A. Project 15B
- B. Project 75
- C. Project 17A
- D. Project Varsha
- E. Project Arihant
View answer
Answer: C) Project 17A
INS Taragiri is a stealth frigate under Project 17A (Nilgiri-class), aimed at building advanced guided-missile frigates for the Indian Navy.
2. Which propulsion system is used in INS Taragiri?
- A. Nuclear propulsion
- B. Diesel-electric propulsion
- C. Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG)
- D. Steam turbine propulsion
- E. Solar-electric propulsion
View answer
Answer: C) Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG)
CODOG allows ships to operate efficiently at low speeds using diesel engines and switch to gas turbines for high-speed combat operations.
3. What is the main role of an SSBN like INS Aridhaman?
- A. Coastal surveillance
- B. Anti-piracy operations
- C. Strategic nuclear deterrence
- D. Cargo transport
- E. Amphibious warfare
View answer
Answer: C) Strategic nuclear deterrence
SSBNs carry nuclear ballistic missiles and ensure second-strike capability, forming a key part of the nuclear triad.
4. What is the primary function of the ‘Kar Saathi’ platform?
- A. Managing stock market investments
- B. Providing AI-based tax assistance
- C. Monitoring banking frauds
- D. Collecting GST manually
- E. Issuing PAN cards
View answer
Answer: B) Providing AI-based tax assistance
Kar Saathi is an AI-powered platform designed to assist taxpayers with filing, compliance, and queries under the Income Tax Act, 2025.
5. What does SAMPANN primarily deal with?
- A. Banking transactions
- B. Pension management
- C. Agricultural subsidies
- D. Insurance claims
- E. Tax refunds
View answer
Answer: B) Pension management
SAMPANN (System for Accounting and Management of Pension) is a cloud-based platform that handles end-to-end pension processing and disbursement.
6. What is the main objective of RBI’s Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS)?
- A. Increase inflation
- B. Reduce market fragmentation in SDLs
- C. Eliminate state borrowing
- D. Promote foreign investment only
- E. Replace G-Secs
View answer
Answer: B) Reduce market fragmentation in SDLs
BIS standardizes bond issuance to improve liquidity and price discovery in State Development Loans (SDLs).
7. What does ‘Yield’ represent in the bond market?
- A. Tax collected on bonds
- B. Price of the bond
- C. Interest earned by investors
- D. Government subsidy
- E. Credit rating
View answer
Answer: C) Interest earned by investors
Yield refers to the effective return an investor earns on a bond investment.
8. According to the study, what percentage of microfinance loans are used for business purposes?
- A. 25%
- B. 40%
- C. 50%
- D. 75%
- E. 90%
View answer
Answer: D) 75%
The study shows that 75% of microfinance loans are used for productive activities like business and livelihood generation.
9. What is the maximum permissible FOIR threshold set by RBI?
- A. 25%
- B. 40%
- C. 50%
- D. 60%
- E. 75%
View answer
Answer: C) 50%
RBI allows a maximum FOIR of 50%, while the study reported a healthier level of 18.7%, indicating low borrower stress.
10. Which of the following entities is classified as a Domestic Systemically Important Insurer (D-SII)?
- A. HDFC Life
- B. SBI Life
- C. LIC
- D. ICICI Lombard
- E. Bajaj Allianz
View answer
Answer: C) LIC
LIC, along with GIC Re and NIACL, has been designated as a D-SII due to its systemic importance to the Indian financial system.
5 & 6 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Hindu Kush mountain range is geologically formed due to the collision of which tectonic plates?
- A. African and Eurasian Plates
- B. Indian and Eurasian Plates
- C. Pacific and North American Plates
- D. Arabian and African Plates
- E. Nazca and Antarctic Plates
View answer
Answer: B) Indian and Eurasian Plates
The Hindu Kush is formed due to the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, similar to the Himalayas, causing intense tectonic activity.
2. What is the primary reason behind the occurrence of deep earthquakes in the Hindu Kush region?
- A. Volcanic eruptions
- B. Glacier movements
- C. Subduction of tectonic plates into the mantle
- D. Oceanic trench formation
- E. Atmospheric pressure changes
View answer
Answer: C) Subduction of tectonic plates into the mantle
Deep earthquakes occur due to a tectonic slab sinking into the Earth’s mantle, creating intermediate-depth seismic activity.
3. The recent discovery of freshwater fish fossils in the Shivalik foothills was primarily based on which structure?
- A. Vertebrae
- B. Fins
- C. Otoliths
- D. Scales
- E. Skull fragments
View answer
Answer: C) Otoliths
Otoliths are durable ear bones of fish that help identify species and environmental conditions in fossil studies.
4. Which fish species discovered in the Shivalik fossils is recorded for the first time in India?
- A. Snakehead
- B. Goby
- C. Tuna
- D. Gourami
- E. Catfish
View answer
Answer: D) Gourami
Gourami fossils are extremely rare and this is the first discovery in India and second globally.
5. What is the main objective of ISRO’s Mission MITRA?
- A. Launching satellites into orbit
- B. Studying asteroid composition
- C. Assessing human response in extreme environments
- D. Developing missile systems
- E. Monitoring climate change
View answer
Answer: C) Assessing human response in extreme environments
Mission MITRA studies physiological and psychological responses under extreme conditions like hypoxia to support space missions.
6. INS Aridhaman (S4) belongs to which class of submarines?
- A. Kalvari Class
- B. Shishumar Class
- C. Arihant Class
- D. Sindhughosh Class
- E. Chakra Class
View answer
Answer: C) Arihant Class
INS Aridhaman is part of the Arihant-class nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines under the ATV project.
7. What is the main cause of financial mis-selling in banks according to RBI and IRDAI observations?
- A. Lack of financial literacy
- B. Low interest rates
- C. High upfront commissions
- D. Digital banking growth
- E. Government subsidies
View answer
Answer: C) High upfront commissions
High commissions encourage aggressive selling of financial products without considering customer suitability.
8. Which organization regulates the Expense of Management (EOM) in the insurance sector?
- A. RBI
- B. SEBI
- C. IRDAI
- D. PFRDA
- E. NABARD
View answer
Answer: C) IRDAI
IRDAI regulates insurers and controls operational expenses including commissions through EOM limits.
9. According to PLFS 2025, which category dominates India’s workforce?
- A. Government employees
- B. Private salaried employees
- C. Casual labourers
- D. Self-employed
- E. Unemployed
View answer
Answer: D) Self-employed
More than 56% of India’s workforce is self-employed, often reflecting low productivity and disguised unemployment.
10. Why did Moody’s reduce India’s GDP growth forecast for FY27 to 6%?
- A. Decline in exports
- B. Weak monsoon
- C. West Asia conflict affecting supply chains
- D. Rise in unemployment
- E. Banking crisis
View answer
Answer: C) West Asia conflict affecting supply chains
Disruptions in energy and fertilizer imports due to geopolitical tensions are expected to increase inflation and slow growth.
7 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Project Chetak of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is primarily associated with which terrain?
- A. High-altitude Himalayan regions
- B. Coastal areas
- C. Desert and plains regions of western India
- D. Island territories
- E. Forest regions of Central India
View answer
Answer: C) Desert and plains regions of western India
Project Chetak operates in Rajasthan, Punjab, and northern Gujarat, focusing on desert and plains terrain to support military logistics.
2. What is the main function of a Ditch Cum Bund (DCB) maintained along India’s borders?
- A. Water conservation
- B. Road construction
- C. Anti-tank defense and flood control
- D. Communication network
- E. Border fencing
View answer
Answer: C) Anti-tank defense and flood control
DCB consists of a trench and embankment that prevents enemy tank movement and also helps in flood control in plains.
3. What is the primary cause of stagflation in an economy?
- A. Excess demand
- B. Supply shock
- C. High exports
- D. Fiscal surplus
- E. Increased savings
View answer
Answer: B) Supply shock
Stagflation is triggered by a negative supply shock, such as rising oil prices, which reduces output while increasing inflation.
4. Tar balls found along India’s western coast are primarily composed of which substance?
- A. Plastic polymers
- B. Coal residues
- C. Weathered crude oil
- D. Marine algae
- E. Sand sediments
View answer
Answer: C) Weathered crude oil
Tar balls are hardened remnants of crude oil that have undergone weathering processes like evaporation and emulsification.
5. Why is the Indian Crested Porcupine considered harmful to saffron cultivation?
- A. It eats saffron flowers
- B. It damages irrigation systems
- C. It destroys underground corms
- D. It spreads fungal infections
- E. It reduces soil fertility
View answer
Answer: C) It destroys underground corms
Porcupines dig and consume saffron corms (bulbs), preventing regrowth and causing long-term damage to crops.
6. Under RBI’s new framework, which entity is officially treated as a “Banking Outlet”?
- A. ATM
- B. BC-Banking Touchpoint (BC-BT)
- C. BC-Banking Outlet (BC-BO)
- D. Mobile Banking App
- E. Payment Wallet
View answer
Answer: C) BC-Banking Outlet (BC-BO)
BC-BOs are treated as formal banking outlets and help expand banking access in rural areas.
7. What is the new ECB borrowing limit under RBI’s revised framework?
- A. $500 million fixed
- B. $750 million fixed
- C. $1 billion or 300% of net worth
- D. Unlimited borrowing
- E. Based only on RBI approval
View answer
Answer: C) $1 billion or 300% of net worth
RBI replaced fixed limits with dynamic limits linked to company financial strength.
8. What is the main role of an Independent Director in a company?
- A. Managing daily operations
- B. Promoting company products
- C. Protecting minority shareholders’ interests
- D. Handling HR functions
- E. Managing government relations
View answer
Answer: C) Protecting minority shareholders’ interests
Independent Directors act as watchdogs to ensure transparency and protect shareholders from management misuse.
9. What is the maximum deposit insurance amount provided by DICGC?
- A. ₹1 lakh
- B. ₹2 lakh
- C. ₹3 lakh
- D. ₹5 lakh
- E. ₹10 lakh
View answer
Answer: D) ₹5 lakh
DICGC insures deposits up to ₹5 lakh per depositor (including principal and interest).
10. What is the primary risk that “hedging” helps mitigate in External Commercial Borrowings (ECB)?
- A. Credit risk
- B. Liquidity risk
- C. Exchange rate risk
- D. Operational risk
- E. Legal risk
View answer
Answer: C) Exchange rate risk
Hedging protects companies from losses due to fluctuations in currency exchange rates, especially when the rupee depreciates.
8 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. ASISSE survey launched by the NSO primarily focuses on which sector?
- A. Agriculture sector
- B. Informal sector
- C. Formal incorporated services sector
- D. Manufacturing sector
- E. Mining sector
View answer
Answer: C) Formal incorporated services sector
ASISSE aims to collect annual data on incorporated service enterprises like IT firms, hospitals, and hotels to improve GDP estimation and measure formalization.
2. What is the primary source used by NSO to identify enterprises under ASISSE?
- A. Census 2011
- B. Voter ID database
- C. GSTN database
- D. Aadhaar database
- E. EPFO records
View answer
Answer: C) GSTN database
GSTN provides a reliable and updated list of tax-paying businesses, making it ideal for sampling formal enterprises.
3. India currently pays approximately how much annually to foreign shipping companies as freight charges?
- A. $10 billion
- B. $25 billion
- C. $50 billion
- D. $75 billion
- E. $100 billion
View answer
Answer: D) $75 billion
India faces a major forex drain as most EXIM cargo is handled by foreign vessels, leading to high freight payments.
4. The Directorate General of Shipping is proposed to be renamed as:
- A. Maritime Safety Authority
- B. National Port Authority
- C. Directorate General of Maritime Administration
- D. Indian Maritime Council
- E. Shipping Regulation Board
View answer
Answer: C) Directorate General of Maritime Administration
The renaming reflects a shift toward a comprehensive regulatory body with expanded powers over maritime affairs.
5. What is the main objective of the IRDAI sub-committee on health insurance?
- A. Increase insurance taxes
- B. Merge private insurers
- C. Improve product design and claim experience
- D. Ban digital insurance
- E. Reduce hospitals
View answer
Answer: C) Improve product design and claim experience
The panel focuses on enhancing customer experience, reducing claim rejections, and improving grievance redressal.
6. Which platform is referred to as the “UPI of Insurance”?
- A. Policy Bazaar
- B. Insurance Pay
- C. Bima Sugam
- D. NHCX
- E. Bharat Cover
View answer
Answer: C) Bima Sugam
Bima Sugam is a digital marketplace aiming to offer zero-commission policies and improve insurance accessibility.
7. What is the minimum public shareholding (MPS) requirement for listed companies in India?
- A. 10%
- B. 15%
- C. 20%
- D. 25%
- E. 30%
View answer
Answer: D) 25%
SEBI mandates at least 25% public shareholding to ensure liquidity and prevent promoter manipulation.
8. What does “Net Open Position (NOP)” refer to in banking?
- A. Total deposits of a bank
- B. Total loans issued
- C. Unhedged foreign currency exposure
- D. Net profit margin
- E. Cash reserve ratio
View answer
Answer: C) Unhedged foreign currency exposure
NOP represents the amount of foreign currency a bank holds without hedging, exposing it to exchange rate risks.
9. What is the standard validity period of a SEBI Observation Letter for IPOs?
- A. 3 months
- B. 6 months
- C. 12 months
- D. 24 months
- E. No limit
View answer
Answer: C) 12 months
Companies must launch IPOs within 12 months of SEBI approval unless extensions are granted.
10. Which fisheries technology converts waste into feed within the pond?
- A. RAS
- B. Bio-floc Technology
- C. Deep-sea fishing
- D. Cage farming
- E. Trawling
View answer
Answer: B) Bio-floc Technology
Bio-floc technology uses microbes to recycle organic waste into protein-rich feed, increasing productivity and sustainability.
9 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The designation of National Biodiversity Repositories in India is done under which Act?
- A. Environment Protection Act, 1986
- B. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
- C. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- D. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
- E. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
View answer
Answer: C) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
National Repositories are notified under Section 39 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to preserve voucher specimens and ensure scientific validation of biodiversity.
2. In the Gaganyaan mission, the primary role of the Service Module (SM) is to:
- A. Carry astronauts
- B. Provide propulsion and power support
- C. Act as landing gear
- D. Enable spacewalks
- E. Store research samples
View answer
Answer: B) Provide propulsion and power support
The Service Module acts as the “engine room” of the spacecraft, supplying propulsion, power, and thermal management during orbital operations.
3. What is the purpose of placing defunct satellites into a “Graveyard Orbit”?
- A. To recycle them
- B. To repair them later
- C. To avoid collision with operational satellites
- D. To study them
- E. To bring them back to Earth
View answer
Answer: C) To avoid collision with operational satellites
Graveyard Orbit is used to move non-functional satellites away from active zones like GEO to reduce space debris collision risks.
4. The International Election Visitors’ Programme (IEVP) primarily promotes:
- A. Trade agreements
- B. Military cooperation
- C. Election management diplomacy
- D. Tourism
- E. Cultural exchange
View answer
Answer: C) Election management diplomacy
IEVP enables global election bodies to observe India’s election process, promoting knowledge exchange and South-South cooperation.
5. What was the Repo Rate decided by RBI in the latest monetary policy?
- A. 4.5%
- B. 5.0%
- C. 5.25%
- D. 6.0%
- E. 6.5%
View answer
Answer: C) 5.25%
RBI kept the Repo Rate unchanged at 5.25% due to global uncertainties and inflation risks.
6. Under IRDAI’s cybersecurity guidelines, what does “Zero Trust Architecture” imply?
- A. Trust all internal users
- B. No verification required
- C. No entity is trusted by default
- D. Only external threats are considered
- E. Data sharing is unrestricted
View answer
Answer: C) No entity is trusted by default
Zero Trust requires continuous verification of users and devices regardless of their location to prevent cyber threats.
7. The RBI proposal to scrap IFR will primarily:
- A. Increase inflation
- B. Reduce NPAs
- C. Free up bank capital
- D. Stop lending
- E. Increase interest rates
View answer
Answer: C) Free up bank capital
Removing IFR will release ₹35,000–40,000 crore, enabling banks to improve capital adequacy and lending capacity.
8. In RBI’s Scale-Based Regulation (SBR), which layer includes top NBFCs required to list?
- A. Base Layer
- B. Middle Layer
- C. Upper Layer
- D. Top Layer
- E. Core Layer
View answer
Answer: C) Upper Layer
The Upper Layer consists of systemically important NBFCs that must comply with stricter regulations including mandatory listing.
9. The reduction in CO₂e emissions in the ‘Soil Sakhi’ initiative is mainly due to:
- A. Increased irrigation
- B. Reduced fertilizer use
- C. Mechanization
- D. Crop diversification
- E. Organic exports
View answer
Answer: B) Reduced fertilizer use
Soil testing helps farmers apply precise nutrients, reducing excessive fertilizer use and lowering greenhouse gas emissions.
10. ‘Soil Sakhis’ are best described as:
- A. Government officers
- B. Agricultural scientists
- C. Community agronomists
- D. NGO volunteers
- E. Bank representatives
View answer
Answer: C) Community agronomists
Soil Sakhis are trained rural women who provide soil testing and scientific farming guidance to farmers at the grassroots level.
10 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. According to the NITI Aayog report “From Borrowers to Builders”, what is the share of women in India’s total system credit as of 2025?
- A. 16%
- B. 19%
- C. 26%
- D. 36%
- E. 42%
View answer
Answer: C) 26%
Women hold around ₹76 lakh crore, which constitutes 26% of the total system credit, showing a major rise in financial inclusion and entrepreneurship.
2. Which state recorded the highest CAGR (59%) in women business borrowers as per the report?
- A. Uttar Pradesh
- B. Rajasthan
- C. Bihar
- D. Madhya Pradesh
- E. Haryana
View answer
Answer: C) Bihar
Bihar emerged as the fastest-growing state in women-led borrowing with a CAGR of 59%, highlighting strong regional growth in financial inclusion.
3. India’s first Quantum Reference Facility is being established at which institution?
- A. IIT Delhi
- B. IISc Bengaluru
- C. SRM University-AP
- D. TIFR Mumbai
- E. ISRO Bengaluru
View answer
Answer: C) SRM University-AP
The facility is part of the Amaravati Quantum Valley initiative and will act as a standardized testing bed for quantum technologies.
4. The primary purpose of a Quantum Reference Facility (QRF) is to:
- A. Train students in classical computing
- B. Manufacture semiconductors
- C. Provide standardized testing for quantum components
- D. Store scientific data
- E. Develop mobile applications
View answer
Answer: C) Provide standardized testing for quantum components
QRF acts as a “gold standard” testing platform where quantum hardware components can be verified and calibrated.
5. Under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, what is the maximum loan limit under the “Tarun Plus” category?
- A. ₹5 Lakh
- B. ₹10 Lakh
- C. ₹15 Lakh
- D. ₹20 Lakh
- E. ₹25 Lakh
View answer
Answer: D) ₹20 Lakh
Tarun Plus (introduced in 2024) provides loans from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh for businesses that have successfully repaid earlier loans.
6. What is the target distance for India’s quantum communication network under the National Quantum Mission?
- A. 500 km
- B. 1,000 km
- C. 1,500 km
- D. 2,000 km
- E. 5,000 km
View answer
Answer: D) 2,000 km
India has already achieved 1,000 km secure communication and aims to reach 2,000 km under the National Quantum Mission.
7. According to the Reserve Bank of India proposal, a 1-hour delay will apply to digital transactions above:
- A. ₹5,000
- B. ₹10,000
- C. ₹25,000
- D. ₹50,000
- E. ₹1,00,000
View answer
Answer: B) ₹10,000
The RBI proposed a 1-hour delay for transactions above ₹10,000 to prevent Authorised Push Payment (APP) fraud.
8. The “Kill Switch” in RBI’s fraud prevention proposal allows users to:
- A. Increase transaction limits
- B. Close bank accounts
- C. Disable digital payments instantly
- D. Change PIN automatically
- E. Block ATM cards permanently
View answer
Answer: C) Disable digital payments instantly
The Kill Switch acts as a safety feature allowing users to immediately stop digital transactions in case of suspected fraud.
9. As per RBI’s new remittance rules, what is the maximum time gap allowed for Nostro account reconciliation?
- A. 15 minutes
- B. 30 minutes
- C. 1 hour
- D. 4 hours
- E. End-of-day
View answer
Answer: C) 1 hour
RBI mandates that banks reconcile Nostro accounts within 1 hour to ensure faster inward remittance credit.
10. What does a “Net Liquidity Surplus” in the banking system indicate?
- A. Banks lack funds
- B. Banks have excess funds for lending
- C. RBI has increased CRR
- D. Public is withdrawing cash heavily
- E. Forex reserves are falling
View answer
Answer: B) Banks have excess funds for lending
A liquidity surplus means banks have more funds than required and may park excess money with the RBI instead of borrowing.
11 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-02) conducted by Indian Space Research Organisation is primarily associated with which mission?
- A. Chandrayaan-3
- B. Aditya-L1
- C. Gaganyaan
- D. Mangalyaan
- E. RISAT
View answer
Answer: C) Gaganyaan
IADT-02 is a crucial test under the Gaganyaan mission to validate safe crew module recovery systems.
2. What was the main objective of the Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT-02)?
- A. Testing rocket propulsion
- B. Testing astronaut training systems
- C. Validating parachute-based deceleration system
- D. Launching satellites
- E. Testing communication systems
View answer
Answer: C) Validating parachute-based deceleration system
The test ensured that the parachute system can safely slow down the crew module during re-entry.
3. The National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation operates under which ministry?
- A. Ministry of Finance
- B. Ministry of Rural Development
- C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- D. Ministry of MSME
- E. Ministry of Social Justice
View answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
NSTFDC is a PSU functioning under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to support tribal entrepreneurship.
4. What is the primary function of NSTFDC?
- A. Provide free subsidies
- B. Offer concessional loans for income-generating activities
- C. Provide government jobs
- D. Invest in large industries
- E. Manage tribal land records
View answer
Answer: B) Offer concessional loans for income-generating activities
NSTFDC provides low-interest loans to Scheduled Tribes to promote sustainable livelihoods and entrepreneurship.
5. The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act, 2026 initially applies to how many forces?
- A. Three
- B. Four
- C. Five
- D. Seven
- E. All police forces
View answer
Answer: C) Five
The Act applies to CRPF, BSF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB—collectively known as the “Big Five” CAPFs.
6. Under the CAPF Act 2026, what percentage of Director General (DG) posts are reserved for IPS officers?
- A. 50%
- B. 67%
- C. 75%
- D. 100%
- E. 25%
View answer
Answer: D) 100%
The Act mandates that all DG and Special DG posts in CAPFs will be filled by IPS officers on deputation.
7. According to the Reserve Bank of India draft norms, what is the asset threshold for NBFCs to be classified under the Upper Layer?
- A. ₹50,000 Crore
- B. ₹75,000 Crore
- C. ₹1 Trillion
- D. ₹5 Trillion
- E. ₹10 Trillion
View answer
Answer: C) ₹1 Trillion
RBI has set ₹1 trillion as the threshold, beyond which NBFCs will be subject to stricter “bank-like” regulations.
8. For how many consecutive years must an NBFC remain below the threshold to exit the Upper Layer classification?
- A. 1 year
- B. 2 years
- C. 3 years
- D. 5 years
- E. 10 years
View answer
Answer: D) 5 years
RBI introduced a 5-year persistence rule to prevent frequent movement between regulatory layers.
9. In the context of RBI’s recent warning, what does “arbitrage” mean?
- A. Fixing exchange rates
- B. Profit from price differences in different markets
- C. Government subsidy
- D. Currency printing
- E. Tax collection
View answer
Answer: B) Profit from price differences in different markets
Arbitrage involves exploiting price differences of the same asset (like currency) across markets to earn profit.
10. What was the effect of banks buying dollars locally and selling them offshore?
- A. Strengthened the Rupee
- B. Increased RBI reserves
- C. Weakened the Rupee further
- D. Reduced inflation
- E. Had no impact
View answer
Answer: C) Weakened the Rupee further
Excess demand for dollars in the domestic market increased pressure on the Rupee, leading to depreciation.
12 & 13 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The “Womaniya” initiative is associated with which platform?
- A. e-NAM
- B. Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
- C. BharatNet
- D. Digital India Portal
- E. Startup India Hub
View answer
Answer: B) Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
Womaniya is a special initiative on the GeM platform to promote women-led micro and small enterprises by connecting them directly with government buyers.
2. The Womaniya initiative was launched under which ministry?
- A. Ministry of Women & Child Development
- B. Ministry of MSME
- C. Ministry of Commerce & Industry
- D. Ministry of Finance
- E. Ministry of Rural Development
View answer
Answer: C) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
The initiative was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to empower women entrepreneurs.
3. The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill, 2025 aims to replace which of the following bodies?
- A. RBI, SEBI, IRDAI
- B. UGC, AICTE, NCTE
- C. UPSC, SSC, NTA
- D. ICAR, ICMR, CSIR
- E. NITI Aayog, Finance Commission
View answer
Answer: B) UGC, AICTE, NCTE
The VBSA Bill consolidates multiple higher education regulators into a single unified body.
4. Which sectors are excluded from the purview of the VBSA Bill, 2025?
- A. Engineering & Management
- B. Agriculture & Research
- C. Legal & Medical Education
- D. Vocational Training
- E. School Education
View answer
Answer: C) Legal & Medical Education
These sectors remain regulated by specialized bodies like the Bar Council of India and National Medical Commission.
5. India became the world’s 3rd largest renewable energy producer by surpassing which country?
- A. Germany
- B. Japan
- C. Brazil
- D. France
- E. Canada
View answer
Answer: C) Brazil
India surpassed Brazil to achieve the 3rd position globally in installed renewable energy capacity.
6. The National Human Rights Commission is which type of body?
- A. Constitutional Body
- B. Statutory Body
- C. Private Organization
- D. Judicial Body
- E. Advisory NGO
View answer
Answer: B) Statutory Body
NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, making it a statutory body.
7. The new QR-code security standards for digital payments are issued by which organization?
- A. RBI
- B. NPCI
- C. Bureau of Indian Standards
- D. SEBI
- E. Ministry of Finance
View answer
Answer: C) Bureau of Indian Standards
BIS sets the technical standards for digital payments, including QR code security, biometrics, and CBDC safeguards.
8. In digital payment fraud, “QR code redirection” refers to:
- A. Payment routing through banks
- B. International transaction processing
- C. Diverting payments to fraudulent accounts via fake QR codes
- D. Linking bank accounts with UPI
- E. Increasing transaction speed
View answer
Answer: C) Diverting payments to fraudulent accounts via fake QR codes
Fraudsters replace legitimate QR codes with malicious ones to redirect payments to unauthorized accounts.
9. Under Blue Revolution 2.0, India currently holds which global rank in fish production?
- A. 1st
- B. 2nd
- C. 3rd
- D. 4th
- E. 5th
View answer
Answer: B) 2nd
India is the world’s second-largest producer of fish and aquaculture products.
10. Under the National Mission on Natural Farming, how many Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) are targeted?
- A. 5,000
- B. 8,000
- C. 10,000
- D. 15,000
- E. 20,000
View answer
Answer: C) 10,000
The mission aims to establish 10,000 BRCs to support farmers with natural inputs like Jeevamrut and Beejamrut.
14 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Ganges River Dolphin is considered an “indicator species” because:
- A. It migrates across multiple countries
- B. Its presence reflects the health of the river ecosystem
- C. It is highly adaptable to pollution
- D. It controls fish population directly
- E. It is used in religious rituals
View answer
Answer: B) Its presence reflects the health of the river ecosystem
Indicator species like the Ganges River Dolphin signal the ecological health of rivers. A thriving dolphin population indicates clean water and a balanced ecosystem.
2. What is the primary ecological risk associated with river fragmentation due to dams?
- A. Increased fish population
- B. Higher water temperature
- C. Reduced gene pool due to isolated populations
- D. Improved biodiversity
- E. Increased rainfall
View answer
Answer: C) Reduced gene pool due to isolated populations
Dams fragment habitats, isolating dolphin populations. This leads to inbreeding and reduced genetic diversity, making species more vulnerable.
3. Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged state of India in:
- A. 1972
- B. 1980
- C. 1987
- D. 1991
- E. 2000
View answer
Answer: C) 1987
Arunachal Pradesh was first made a Union Territory in 1972 and later granted full statehood in 1987.
4. The McMahon Line was proposed during which event?
- A. Treaty of Versailles
- B. Shimla Agreement 1972
- C. Simla Convention 1914
- D. Panchsheel Agreement
- E. Tashkent Agreement
View answer
Answer: C) Simla Convention 1914
The McMahon Line was proposed during the Simla Convention (1914) between British India and Tibet, forming the basis of India’s eastern boundary.
5. Which of the following best describes “Lawfare” in geopolitics?
- A. Use of military force for territorial gain
- B. Economic sanctions to weaken a country
- C. Use of legal tools/maps to justify territorial claims
- D. Cyber warfare using digital tools
- E. Cultural diplomacy
View answer
Answer: C) Use of legal tools/maps to justify territorial claims
Lawfare refers to the strategic use of legal systems, naming, and maps to strengthen territorial claims, as seen in China's renaming strategy.
6. What is the primary function of a Virtual Payment Address (VPA) in UPI?
- A. Store money digitally
- B. Replace Aadhaar authentication
- C. Enable transactions without sharing bank details
- D. Provide loan facilities
- E. Act as a credit card
View answer
Answer: C) Enable transactions without sharing bank details
VPA allows users to send/receive money without revealing sensitive information like account number or IFSC code.
7. Which organization developed the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
- A. RBI
- B. SEBI
- C. NPCI
- D. Ministry of Finance
- E. NABARD
View answer
Answer: C) NPCI
UPI was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), while RBI acts as the regulator.
8. Why did RBI reject Ujjivan and Jana SFBs’ applications for universal bank licenses?
- A. Low capital adequacy
- B. High inflation exposure
- C. Lack of loan portfolio diversification
- D. Low profitability
- E. Foreign ownership issues
View answer
Answer: C) Lack of loan portfolio diversification
RBI emphasized the need for diversified loan books. Heavy dependence on microfinance made these banks unsuitable for universal banking status.
9. What is the main drawback of granular urea usage in India?
- A. High cost
- B. Limited availability
- C. Low Nutrient Use Efficiency (NUE)
- D. Difficult storage
- E. Requires special machinery
View answer
Answer: C) Low Nutrient Use Efficiency (NUE)
Only 35–40% of nitrogen in granular urea is utilized; the rest is lost due to leaching and volatilization, causing pollution.
10. Why is Triple Super Phosphate (TSP) preferred over DAP in fertilizer reforms?
- A. It contains more nitrogen
- B. It reduces unnecessary nitrogen application
- C. It is fully organic
- D. It is cheaper than urea
- E. It improves irrigation efficiency
View answer
Answer: B) It reduces unnecessary nitrogen application
TSP does not contain nitrogen, unlike DAP. This helps correct the nutrient imbalance and reduces excess nitrogen usage.
15 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. According to the UNDP report, what is the projected poverty rate in India under the severe conflict scenario?
- A. 22.5%
- B. 23.0%
- C. 23.9%
- D. 24.2%
- E. 25.5%
View answer
Answer: D) 24.2%
The UNDP report estimates that under a severe 28-day conflict scenario, India’s poverty rate could rise from 23.9% to 24.2%.
2. Which critical maritime chokepoint disruption is expected to impact India’s trade and energy supply according to the report?
- A. Strait of Malacca
- B. Panama Canal
- C. Suez Canal
- D. Strait of Hormuz
- E. Bosphorus Strait
View answer
Answer: D) Strait of Hormuz
The Strait of Hormuz is a key route for global oil supply, and disruptions here significantly impact India’s energy imports and trade logistics.
3. The Amaravati Quantum Reference Facilities (AQRF) aim to promote which strategic capability in India?
- A. Software outsourcing
- B. Agricultural mechanization
- C. Sovereign hardware development
- D. Tourism infrastructure
- E. Textile exports
View answer
Answer: C) Sovereign hardware development
AQRF focuses on making India self-reliant in quantum hardware by developing domestic supply chains and providing open access to critical components.
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described which Article as the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution?
- A. Article 14
- B. Article 17
- C. Article 19
- D. Article 21
- E. Article 32
View answer
Answer: E) Article 32
Article 32 ensures the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through judicial remedies, making it central to constitutional protection.
5. Under Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0, the government invests primarily in:
- A. Individual startups directly
- B. Public sector enterprises
- C. SEBI-registered AIFs
- D. Foreign venture capital firms
- E. State governments
View answer
Answer: C) SEBI-registered AIFs
The FoF model channels funds through Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which then invest in startups, leveraging additional private capital.
6. What was the key reason for IMF upgrading India’s FY27 growth forecast?
- A. Increase in oil production
- B. Reduction in US tariffs on Indian goods
- C. Rise in population
- D. Decrease in imports
- E. Increase in subsidies
View answer
Answer: B) Reduction in US tariffs on Indian goods
The IMF upgrade was driven by a sharp reduction in US tariffs (from 50% to 10%), boosting India’s export competitiveness.
7. The upgrade of Shriram Finance to ‘BBB-’ by Fitch signifies:
- A. High risk investment
- B. Default status
- C. Investment grade rating
- D. Government ownership
- E. Loss-making entity
View answer
Answer: C) Investment grade rating
Moving from BB+ to BBB- shifts the company from speculative (junk) grade to investment grade, improving borrowing capacity.
8. Under RBI’s Utkarsh 2029 strategy, the Unified Lending Interface (ULI) aims to:
- A. Replace UPI
- B. Improve stock trading
- C. Streamline digital credit access
- D. Control inflation
- E. Manage currency printing
View answer
Answer: C) Streamline digital credit access
ULI is designed to provide seamless data flow for faster credit appraisal, especially benefiting farmers and small borrowers.
9. The new digital fertilizer tracking system primarily aims to:
- A. Increase fertilizer prices
- B. Boost exports
- C. Prevent diversion and misuse of subsidized fertilizers
- D. Reduce crop production
- E. Promote organic farming only
View answer
Answer: C) Prevent diversion and misuse of subsidized fertilizers
The system uses digital tracking and authentication to ensure fertilizers reach genuine farmers and reduce subsidy leakage.
10. What is the primary method proposed for verifying farmers in the digital fertilizer system?
- A. PAN card
- B. Passport
- C. Aadhaar-based biometric or OTP
- D. Driving license
- E. Bank passbook
View answer
Answer: C) Aadhaar-based biometric or OTP
The system uses Aadhaar-based authentication to ensure only genuine farmers can purchase fertilizers, improving transparency.
16 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. What is the proposed maximum strength of the Lok Sabha under the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- A. 543
- B. 750
- C. 815
- D. 850
- E. 900
View answer
Answer: D) 850
The Bill proposes expanding the Lok Sabha to 850 members (815 from states and 35 from Union Territories) to better reflect current population realities.
2. Which Article allows immediate delimitation using existing census data under the new Bill?
- A. Article 81
- B. Article 82
- C. Article 324
- D. Article 110
- E. Article 356
View answer
Answer: B) Article 82
The amendment removes the earlier restriction linked to the post-2026 Census, allowing delimitation based on the latest available data (2011 Census).
3. How many key pillars are identified in the “Ease of Doing R&D in India” report?
- A. 3
- B. 4
- C. 5
- D. 6
- E. 7
View answer
Answer: B) 4
The report identifies four pillars: Funding, Governance, Regulatory Frameworks, and Research Translation.
4. Approximately what percentage of bat species in India are categorized as “Data Deficient”?
- A. 10%
- B. 20%
- C. 30%
- D. 40%
- E. 50%
View answer
Answer: D) 40%
Around 40% of bat species lack sufficient data for proper conservation assessment, making them “Data Deficient.”
5. What major change did the RBI introduce regarding NBFC branch expansion?
- A. Mandatory RBI approval for all branches
- B. Ban on new branches
- C. No prior approval required (unless restricted)
- D. Only digital branches allowed
- E. Expansion only in rural areas
View answer
Answer: C) No prior approval required (unless restricted)
RBI removed the requirement of prior approval to promote ease of doing business and faster expansion of NBFCs.
6. What is the minimum credit rating required for deposit-taking NBFCs to expand across India?
- A. BBB
- B. A
- C. A+
- D. AA
- E. AAA
View answer
Answer: D) AA
Only NBFCs with NOF above ₹50 crore and a credit rating of AA or higher can expand nationwide.
7. Under SEBI’s new rule, what is the maximum allowed change in IPO size without refiling DRHP?
- A. 20%
- B. 30%
- C. 40%
- D. 50%
- E. 60%
View answer
Answer: D) 50%
SEBI now allows companies to modify IPO size up to 50% without refiling draft documents to support market flexibility.
8. These relaxed IPO norms by SEBI are valid until which date?
- A. June 2026
- B. July 2026
- C. August 2026
- D. September 30, 2026
- E. December 2026
View answer
Answer: D) September 30, 2026
The relaxation is temporary and valid till September 30, 2026, to support companies during market volatility.
9. What is the main objective of the digital fertilizer tracking system?
- A. Increase fertilizer exports
- B. Promote organic farming
- C. Prevent diversion and misuse of subsidized fertilizers
- D. Reduce fertilizer production
- E. Eliminate subsidies
View answer
Answer: C) Prevent diversion and misuse of subsidized fertilizers
The system aims to stop misuse of subsidized fertilizers in non-agricultural sectors through digital tracking and authentication.
10. Which authentication method is proposed for farmers under the new fertilizer system?
- A. PAN Card
- B. Voter ID
- C. Aadhaar-based biometric/OTP
- D. Driving License
- E. Passport
View answer
Answer: C) Aadhaar-based biometric/OTP
The system will use Aadhaar-based verification to ensure that only genuine farmers can purchase fertilizers.
17 & 18 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Which key feature makes the Self-Help Group (SHG) model under National Rural Livelihood Mission highly adaptable to African countries?
- A. Heavy reliance on foreign aid
- B. Capital-intensive infrastructure model
- C. Community-driven and low-cost structure
- D. Focus only on urban employment
- E. Mandatory government employment
View answer
Answer: C) Community-driven and low-cost structure
The SHG model is cost-effective, based on community participation, and does not require heavy capital investment, making it suitable for developing economies, especially in Africa.
2. What is the primary objective of the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
- A. Introduce GST reforms in UTs
- B. Establish new Union Territories
- C. Ensure uniform implementation of parliamentary reforms in UTs
- D. Abolish Legislative Assemblies in UTs
- E. Increase Governor’s powers
View answer
Answer: C) Ensure uniform implementation of parliamentary reforms in UTs
The Bill aligns UTs like Delhi, Puducherry, and J&K with national reforms such as women’s reservation and delimitation under the 131st Constitutional Amendment.
3. Under the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF), what is the main purpose of the Credit Repayment Guarantee Sub-Scheme (CRGSS)?
- A. Provide free housing to urban poor
- B. Fund metro rail projects
- C. Guarantee loans to reduce risk for lenders
- D. Directly finance private companies
- E. Subsidize fuel costs
View answer
Answer: C) Guarantee loans to reduce risk for lenders
CRGSS helps smaller cities access credit by providing guarantees to lenders, thereby reducing perceived financial risk.
4. Which of the following best describes the “Lakhpati Didi” initiative?
- A. Women receiving ₹1 lakh subsidy
- B. Women earning above ₹1 lakh annually
- C. Women owning land above ₹1 lakh value
- D. Women government officers
- E. Women entrepreneurs in metro cities
View answer
Answer: B) Women earning above ₹1 lakh annually
“Lakhpati Didi” refers to SHG women members earning more than ₹1 lakh annually, showcasing economic empowerment through NRLM.
5. Which institution is responsible for implementing and monitoring CAFE standards in India?
- A. NITI Aayog
- B. Central Pollution Control Board
- C. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
- D. Ministry of Transport
- E. Automotive Research Association of India
View answer
Answer: C) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power, sets and monitors CAFE norms related to fuel efficiency and CO₂ emissions.
6. Why did India slip to 6th position in global GDP rankings according to the IMF (2026)?
- A. Decline in real GDP growth
- B. High unemployment
- C. Rupee depreciation against the US Dollar
- D. Reduction in exports
- E. Increase in fiscal deficit
View answer
Answer: C) Rupee depreciation against the US Dollar
GDP rankings are measured in USD. Rupee depreciation reduced India’s dollar-denominated GDP, affecting its ranking despite strong growth in domestic terms.
7. What major change was introduced in SEBI’s “Fit and Proper Person” criteria in April 2026?
- A. Automatic disqualification on FIR
- B. Disqualification on media reports
- C. Disqualification only after conviction
- D. Removal of all eligibility norms
- E. Lifetime ban on intermediaries
View answer
Answer: C) Disqualification only after conviction
SEBI shifted to a conviction-based approach to prevent premature disqualification and ensure fairness.
8. What is the primary function of the “Super Sales Saathi” app launched by Life Insurance Corporation of India?
- A. Customer grievance redressal
- B. Stock market tracking
- C. Supporting LIC agents in sales
- D. Loan approval processing
- E. Government subsidy tracking
View answer
Answer: C) Supporting LIC agents in sales
The app provides AI-based tools, performance analytics, and customer insights to improve agent productivity and sales efficiency.
9. According to CRISIL, which segment is most vulnerable to stress due to the West Asia conflict?
- A. Corporate loans
- B. Retail housing loans
- C. MSME loans
- D. Agricultural loans
- E. Government borrowings
View answer
Answer: C) MSME loans
MSMEs are more vulnerable due to rising input costs, supply disruptions, and limited financial resilience.
10. What does “seasoning of a loan portfolio” mean in banking?
- A. Increasing loan interest rates
- B. Diversifying loan categories
- C. Aging of loans revealing risk profile
- D. Loan restructuring
- E. Government loan waiver
View answer
Answer: C) Aging of loans revealing risk profile
As loans age, their repayment behavior becomes clearer, helping assess the actual risk of default.
19 & 20 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Under the National Monetisation Pipeline, what happens to the ownership of assets leased to private players?
- A. Ownership is permanently transferred
- B. Ownership remains with the government
- C. Ownership is shared equally
- D. Ownership is transferred to investors
- E. Ownership is transferred to RBI
View answer
Answer: B) Ownership remains with the government
Asset monetisation only transfers operational rights for a fixed period, while ownership remains with the Government of India.
2. Which of the following is an example of a “Brownfield Asset” in infrastructure?
- A. A newly planned highway
- B. A forest land cleared for industry
- C. An operational railway station
- D. A proposed airport
- E. A river linking project
View answer
Answer: C) An operational railway station
Brownfield assets are already existing and operational assets that generate revenue and are safer for investment.
3. India’s first water-neutral railway depot is located at which place?
- A. Mumbai
- B. Chennai
- C. Ahmedabad
- D. Delhi
- E. Kolkata
View answer
Answer: C) Ahmedabad
The Kankaria Coaching Depot in Ahmedabad is India’s first water-neutral railway depot, achieving full recycling of water usage.
4. Which eco-friendly process is used to treat wastewater in the Kankaria railway depot?
- A. Reverse Osmosis
- B. Chlorination
- C. Phytoremediation
- D. Distillation
- E. Filtration only
View answer
Answer: C) Phytoremediation
Phytoremediation uses plants to absorb pollutants and naturally purify wastewater, making it sustainable.
5. The VAANI Scheme primarily aims to achieve which goal?
- A. Promote English-only education
- B. Provide scholarships abroad
- C. Enable technical education in Indian languages
- D. Build new IITs
- E. Promote sports education
View answer
Answer: C) Enable technical education in Indian languages
VAANI aims to democratize technical education by making it accessible in 22 Indian languages.
6. What is the main objective of the RELIEF (Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation) Scheme?
- A. Promote domestic tourism
- B. Support exporters against logistics disruptions
- C. Reduce import duties
- D. Increase GST collection
- E. Fund startups
View answer
Answer: B) Support exporters against logistics disruptions
RELIEF helps exporters manage rising logistics costs and risks due to geopolitical conflicts.
7. Which organization is responsible for implementing the RELIEF scheme?
- A. RBI
- B. SEBI
- C. ECGC Limited
- D. NABARD
- E. SIDBI
View answer
Answer: C) ECGC Limited
ECGC Limited acts as the implementing agency, providing risk coverage and financial support to exporters.
8. What is the primary purpose of a Maritime Insurance Pool?
- A. Provide loans to shipping companies
- B. Share high-risk insurance among insurers
- C. Regulate shipping routes
- D. Reduce port taxes
- E. Subsidize fuel
View answer
Answer: B) Share high-risk insurance among insurers
A maritime insurance pool allows multiple insurers to share risks, especially in high-risk geopolitical conditions.
9. The Association of Mutual Funds in India is primarily responsible for which of the following?
- A. Regulating banks
- B. Managing stock exchanges
- C. Representing mutual fund industry and investor awareness
- D. Issuing currency
- E. Setting repo rates
View answer
Answer: C) Representing mutual fund industry and investor awareness
AMFI is a self-regulatory body that promotes ethical practices and investor education in the mutual fund industry.
10. What does “Imported Inflation” refer to in the Indian economic context?
- A. Inflation caused by domestic demand
- B. Inflation due to tax increase
- C. Inflation due to rising global prices and currency depreciation
- D. Inflation due to subsidies
- E. Inflation due to population growth
View answer
Answer: C) Inflation due to rising global prices and currency depreciation
Imported inflation occurs when global price rises (like crude oil) and rupee depreciation increase domestic prices.
21 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. According to recent projections, which regions of India are expected to witness the highest relative increase in forest carbon storage by 2100?
- A. Western Ghats
- B. Himalayan region
- C. Rajasthan and Gujarat
- D. Sundarbans
- E. Northeast India
View answer
Answer: C) Rajasthan and Gujarat
Arid and semi-arid regions like Rajasthan and Gujarat have more scope for vegetation growth due to increased rainfall and CO₂ fertilization.
2. What is the primary concept behind “CO₂ fertilization” in forest ecosystems?
- A. CO₂ reduces plant growth
- B. CO₂ acts as a pesticide
- C. Higher CO₂ enhances photosynthesis and plant growth
- D. CO₂ destroys soil nutrients
- E. CO₂ increases forest fires
View answer
Answer: C) Higher CO₂ enhances photosynthesis and plant growth
Increased atmospheric CO₂ helps plants grow faster by boosting photosynthesis, provided water and nutrients are sufficient.
3. The proposed G20 Satellite by Indian Space Research Organisation will be placed in which type of orbit?
- A. Geostationary Orbit
- B. Elliptical Orbit
- C. Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbit
- D. Low Earth Orbit (random)
- E. Lunar Orbit
View answer
Answer: C) Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbit
This orbit allows the satellite to pass over the same location at the same local time, ensuring consistent environmental data collection.
4. Which instrument onboard the G20 Satellite is designed to measure greenhouse gases like CO₂ and methane?
- A. POLSAC
- B. HyMATHS
- C. EnSAC
- D. SACFF
- E. INSAT Sensor
View answer
Answer: C) EnSAC
EnSAC is specifically designed to measure atmospheric trace gases responsible for global warming.
5. The Vishwa Sutra initiative aims to achieve which objective?
- A. Promote only traditional clothing in India
- B. Replace handlooms with machines
- C. Globalize Indian handloom designs through fusion
- D. Increase cotton imports
- E. Ban synthetic fabrics
View answer
Answer: C) Globalize Indian handloom designs through fusion
Vishwa Sutra combines Indian weaves with global design sensibilities to make them appealing in international fashion markets.
6. After SEBI’s 2026 amendment, what is the new minimum investment limit for Social Impact Funds (SIFs)?
- A. ₹2 lakh
- B. ₹50,000
- C. ₹10,000
- D. ₹1,000
- E. ₹5,000
View answer
Answer: D) ₹1,000
SEBI reduced the minimum investment from ₹2 lakh to ₹1,000 to encourage retail participation.
7. Social Impact Funds (SIFs) fall under which category of Alternative Investment Funds?
- A. Category I
- B. Category II
- C. Category III
- D. Category IV
- E. Hybrid Category
View answer
Answer: A) Category I
SIFs are classified under Category I AIFs, which include socially beneficial investments.
8. What is the primary objective behind RBI easing Non-Deliverable Forward (NDF) curbs in April 2026?
- A. Increase speculation in forex markets
- B. Stabilize rupee and manage risk
- C. Promote cryptocurrency trading
- D. Reduce bank profits
- E. Encourage retail trading
View answer
Answer: B) Stabilize rupee and manage risk
RBI eased restrictions after stability returned to forex markets, allowing risk management while limiting speculation.
9. What does “Net Open Position (NOP)” refer to in banking?
- A. Total number of bank branches
- B. Bank’s total deposits
- C. Unhedged foreign exchange exposure
- D. Total loans issued
- E. Government borrowing
View answer
Answer: C) Unhedged foreign exchange exposure
NOP represents the net risk a bank carries in foreign currencies without hedging.
10. What is the main purpose of a Social Impact Fund (SIF)?
- A. Maximize short-term profits
- B. Invest only in foreign stocks
- C. Generate social or environmental impact along with returns
- D. Provide loans to government
- E. Control inflation
View answer
Answer: C) Generate social or environmental impact along with returns
SIFs aim to fund social enterprises and NPOs while creating measurable social impact.
22 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Fourth India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) 2026 marks a strategic shift in India’s engagement with Africa. Which of the following best describes this shift?
- A. From military alliance to peacekeeping missions
- B. From development partnership to strategic investment
- C. From cultural exchange to tourism promotion
- D. From trade agreements to humanitarian aid only
- E. From education support to defense withdrawal
View answer
Answer: B) From development partnership to strategic investment
India is now focusing more on FDI, infrastructure, and long-term investments rather than just providing aid or concessional loans (LoCs).
2. The Samriddh Gram initiative integrates BharatNet infrastructure with service delivery. What is the core idea behind this integration?
- A. Expanding telecom towers in urban areas
- B. Providing satellite internet to villages
- C. Converting fiber infrastructure into usable citizen services
- D. Privatizing rural internet services
- E. Eliminating physical governance systems
View answer
Answer: C) Converting fiber infrastructure into usable citizen services
BharatNet provides connectivity, while Samriddh Gram ensures services like healthcare, education, and governance are actually delivered using that infrastructure.
3. In 3D Glass Semiconductor Packaging, what is the primary advantage of using glass substrates over traditional materials?
- A. Lower manufacturing cost
- B. Higher flexibility and bending capacity
- C. Better thermal stability and precision
- D. Increased transparency for monitoring
- E. Reduced need for electricity
View answer
Answer: C) Better thermal stability and precision
Glass substrates can handle high heat and allow denser connections, making them ideal for advanced chips like AI processors.
4. The concept of “Gene Drive” in GM mosquitoes ensures:
- A. Equal inheritance probability of genes
- B. Selective inheritance only in males
- C. Rapid spread of modified genes in population
- D. Elimination of all mosquito species
- E. Resistance to antibiotics
View answer
Answer: C) Rapid spread of modified genes in population
Gene drive increases inheritance probability to over 90%, allowing modified traits to spread quickly in wild populations.
5. India’s rise to the #2 position in wind energy installation is primarily driven by:
- A. Offshore wind farms in Kerala
- B. Increased imports of turbines
- C. Large-scale projects like Khavda Renewable Park
- D. Decrease in solar energy investment
- E. Privatization of electricity boards
View answer
Answer: C) Large-scale projects like Khavda Renewable Park
The Khavda Renewable Energy Park in Gujarat is a major contributor, with massive wind and hybrid energy capacity.
6. Which combination best explains the depreciation of the Indian Rupee to 93.44 against the US Dollar?
- A. High exports and low imports
- B. Falling gold prices and low inflation
- C. Oil price volatility, strong USD, and RBI policy easing
- D. Increase in FDI inflows
- E. Decline in stock market performance
View answer
Answer: C) Oil price volatility, strong USD, and RBI policy easing
Higher oil prices increase dollar demand, a strong USD attracts global capital, and RBI easing allows more market-driven depreciation.
7. The inclusion of Gold and Silver ETFs in equity schemes primarily helps in:
- A. Increasing tax liabilities
- B. Eliminating market risks
- C. Improving diversification and risk-adjusted returns
- D. Replacing equity investments
- E. Ensuring guaranteed returns
View answer
Answer: C) Improving diversification and risk-adjusted returns
Precious metals often move inversely to equities, helping reduce overall portfolio risk.
8. In the context of UCB licensing norms, increasing the limit on unsecured advances would primarily:
- A. Reduce bank profitability
- B. Restrict lending to small borrowers
- C. Increase lending flexibility to borrowers without collateral
- D. Eliminate risk in banking operations
- E. Replace secured loans entirely
View answer
Answer: C) Increase lending flexibility to borrowers without collateral
Higher limits allow banks to lend more to individuals who lack collateral, improving financial inclusion.
9. The RBI’s revised e-mandate framework mandates a 24-hour prior notification mainly to:
- A. Increase banking charges
- B. Delay transactions
- C. Provide customers an opportunity to opt out
- D. Reduce internet usage
- E. Eliminate recurring payments
View answer
Answer: C) Provide customers an opportunity to opt out
The rule enhances consumer protection by allowing users to cancel or modify payments before execution.
10. According to the UNESCAP report, India’s GDP growth slowdown in FY27 is primarily attributed to:
- A. Weak agricultural output
- B. Declining services sector
- C. Global geopolitical tensions and energy disruptions
- D. Reduced government spending
- E. Banking sector crisis
View answer
Answer: C) Global geopolitical tensions and energy disruptions
The West Asia conflict has impacted energy supply chains, increasing costs and slowing economic growth.
23 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. INS Nireekshak is equipped with which of the following for submarine rescue operations?
- A. Sonar Missiles
- B. Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicles (DSRV)
- C. Ballistic Radar System
- D. Nuclear Propulsion Unit
- E. Anti-Submarine Helicopters
View answer
Answer: B) Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicles (DSRV)
INS Nireekshak is a specialized Diving Support Vessel equipped with DSRVs used for rescuing sailors from disabled submarines deep underwater.
2. NARIT-AI primarily helps police in improving which aspect of NDPS cases?
- A. Surveillance operations
- B. Forensic testing speed
- C. Procedural compliance in investigation
- D. Arrest rate
- E. Intelligence gathering
View answer
Answer: C) Procedural compliance in investigation
NARIT-AI ensures strict adherence to legal procedures, reducing acquittals caused by procedural lapses in NDPS cases.
3. The Fourth India-Africa Forum Summit (2026) focuses on aligning with which African development blueprint?
- A. Vision 2050
- B. Agenda 2063
- C. Africa Growth Plan
- D. AU 2040 Strategy
- E. Green Africa Mission
View answer
Answer: B) Agenda 2063
The 2026 summit emphasizes aligning India’s development initiatives with Africa’s long-term strategic framework, Agenda 2063.
4. What is the maximum balance limit for Full-KYC PPIs as per RBI draft 2026 norms?
- A. ₹50,000
- B. ₹1,00,000
- C. ₹2,00,000
- D. ₹5,00,000
- E. ₹10,00,000
View answer
Answer: C) ₹2,00,000
Full-KYC PPIs allow a maximum outstanding balance of ₹2 lakh, enabling wider usage including transfers and payments.
5. Which system provides real-time high-value fund transfers in India?
- A. NEFT
- B. IMPS
- C. RTGS
- D. UPI
- E. BBPS
View answer
Answer: C) RTGS
RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) processes high-value transactions instantly and individually in real time.
6. Under RBI’s 2026 e-mandate framework, what is the general auto-debit limit without OTP?
- A. ₹5,000
- B. ₹10,000
- C. ₹15,000
- D. ₹50,000
- E. ₹1,00,000
View answer
Answer: C) ₹15,000
For general recurring payments like subscriptions, the OTP-free limit is ₹15,000.
7. What is the key advantage of Pay Point India getting direct access to RBI’s CPS?
- A. Ability to issue loans
- B. Ability to print currency
- C. Direct settlement with RBI without sponsor bank
- D. Exemption from regulation
- E. Permission for international transfers
View answer
Answer: C) Direct settlement with RBI without sponsor bank
Direct CPS access removes dependency on sponsor banks, improving efficiency and reducing systemic risk.
8. Under the revised Sugarcane Control Order, mills must pay farmers within how many days?
- A. 7 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 14 days
- D. 21 days
- E. 30 days
View answer
Answer: C) 14 days
The draft mandates payment within 14 days, failing which mills must pay 15% annual interest.
9. In the ethanol conversion formula, 600 litres of ethanol is equivalent to how much sugar?
- A. 500 kg
- B. 750 kg
- C. 1 tonne
- D. 2 tonnes
- E. 1.5 tonnes
View answer
Answer: C) 1 tonne
The government uses this conversion ratio to track sugar diversion towards ethanol production.
10. In IIT Ropar’s AI agriculture ecosystem, which layer handles data collection from sensors?
- A. Intelligence Layer
- B. Engagement Layer
- C. Infrastructure Layer
- D. Advisory Layer
- E. Processing Layer
View answer
Answer: C) Infrastructure Layer
The Infrastructure Layer consists of IoT devices and weather stations that collect raw farm-level data.
24 & 25 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Which of the following statements about CAFE-III norms is correct?
- A. It regulates emissions of individual vehicles only
- B. It applies only to electric vehicles
- C. It targets fleet-wide average emissions of manufacturers
- D. It is applicable only to commercial vehicles
- E. It is implemented by RBI
View answer
Answer: C) It targets fleet-wide average emissions of manufacturers
CAFE norms regulate the average fuel efficiency and CO₂ emissions of the entire vehicle fleet of a manufacturer, not individual vehicles.
2. Which of the following is NOT a threat to the Gangetic River Dolphin?
- A. River pollution
- B. Fishing nets
- C. Dams and barrages
- D. Afforestation programs
- E. River traffic
View answer
Answer: D) Afforestation programs
Afforestation helps the environment, whereas pollution, dams, fishing nets, and traffic harm dolphin habitats.
3. Under the Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PMIS), the stipend is primarily paid through:
- A. Only companies
- B. Only NGOs
- C. Government DBT and company contribution
- D. State governments
- E. International agencies
View answer
Answer: C) Government DBT and company contribution
PMIS follows a hybrid model where the government provides ₹5000 via DBT and companies contribute ₹500 through CSR funds.
4. Which of the following best describes a “Sanipreneur” under the NAMASTE scheme?
- A. A sanitation inspector
- B. A manual scavenger
- C. A sanitation worker turned entrepreneur
- D. A municipal officer
- E. A waste recycler
View answer
Answer: C) A sanitation worker turned entrepreneur
Sanipreneurs are sanitation workers who transition into business owners using mechanized cleaning solutions under government support.
5. What does a “demand shock” imply in the RBI context?
- A. Increase in production
- B. Fall in inflation
- C. Reduction in consumer spending
- D. Increase in exports
- E. Rise in employment
View answer
Answer: C) Reduction in consumer spending
Persistent inflation reduces purchasing power, leading to decreased discretionary spending, causing a demand shock.
6. HSBC’s “Underweight” rating on India implies:
- A. Strong growth expected
- B. Equal performance with benchmark
- C. Underperformance expected
- D. No investment required
- E. Government ownership increase
View answer
Answer: C) Underperformance expected
Underweight means investors should hold less of that asset as it is expected to perform worse than peers or benchmarks.
7. Which of the following correctly explains “upstreaming of funds” in stock markets?
- A. Brokers invest funds in stocks
- B. Funds are transferred to RBI
- C. Client funds are moved to clearing corporations
- D. Funds are sent to SEBI
- E. Funds are invested in mutual funds
View answer
Answer: C) Client funds are moved to clearing corporations
Upstreaming ensures brokers do not hold client funds overnight, improving safety by transferring them to clearing corporations.
8. The Central Fraud Registry (CFR) currently includes fraud cases above:
- A. ₹10,000
- B. ₹50,000
- C. ₹1 lakh
- D. ₹5 lakh
- E. ₹10 lakh
View answer
Answer: C) ₹1 lakh
CFR records frauds involving ₹1 lakh and above to enable early detection and monitoring.
9. According to the CRIF-SIDBI report, rising loan count with slower value growth indicates:
- A. Larger loans are increasing
- B. Smaller loans are increasing
- C. Lending has stopped
- D. Interest rates are zero
- E. Banks are closing
View answer
Answer: B) Smaller loans are increasing
Higher loan count but slower total value growth indicates a shift toward smaller-sized loans.
10. Why did the government increase the wheat procurement target in 2026?
- A. Export demand increased
- B. MSP was lower than market price
- C. Market price was lower than MSP
- D. Crop failure occurred
- E. Imports increased
View answer
Answer: C) Market price was lower than MSP
Farmers preferred selling to the government as MSP (₹2585) was higher than mandi prices, leading to increased procurement.
26 & 27 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. In which year was Project DANTAK established by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO)?
- A. 1947
- B. 1955
- C. 1961
- D. 1971
- E. 1985
View answer
Answer: C. 1961
Project DANTAK was established in April 1961 as part of India-Bhutan cooperation for infrastructure development.
2. Which major airport in Bhutan was constructed with the assistance of Project DANTAK?
- A. Gelephu Airport
- B. Thimphu Airport
- C. Bagdogra Airport
- D. Paro International Airport
- E. Kathmandu Airport
View answer
Answer: D. Paro International Airport
Project DANTAK played a key role in building Paro International Airport, Bhutan’s main international gateway.
3. What type of vehicle is required to run on E100 (100% ethanol)?
- A. Electric Vehicle
- B. Diesel Vehicle
- C. Hybrid Vehicle
- D. Flex-Fuel Vehicle (FFV)
- E. Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle
View answer
Answer: D. Flex-Fuel Vehicle (FFV)
E100 requires Flex-Fuel Vehicles with special materials and sensors due to ethanol’s corrosive nature.
4. The ‘Soul Threads’ initiative was launched by which organization?
- A. KVIC
- B. NIFT
- C. CCIC
- D. Ministry of Culture
- E. TRIFED
View answer
Answer: C. CCIC
The Central Cottage Industries Corporation of India (CCIC) launched Soul Threads to promote traditional crafts through modern design.
5. Under the Anti-Defection Law, what minimum fraction of members is required for a valid merger without disqualification?
- A. One-third
- B. One-half
- C. Two-thirds
- D. Three-fourths
- E. One-fourth
View answer
Answer: C. Two-thirds
At least two-thirds of members must agree to a merger to avoid disqualification under the 10th Schedule.
6. The 2026 edition of Exercise Dustlik was held in which country?
- A. India
- B. Kazakhstan
- C. Uzbekistan
- D. Kyrgyzstan
- E. Tajikistan
View answer
Answer: C. Uzbekistan
The 7th edition of Exercise Dustlik (2026) was conducted in Uzbekistan at the Gurumsaray Field Training Area.
7. Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 can RBI cancel a bank’s licence?
- A. Section 5(b)
- B. Section 8
- C. Section 22
- D. Section 35A
- E. Section 44A
View answer
Answer: C. Section 22
Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act empowers RBI to grant and cancel banking licences.
8. Which section of the Banking Regulation Act prohibits banks from trading in goods?
- A. Section 5
- B. Section 8
- C. Section 10
- D. Section 22
- E. Section 35
View answer
Answer: B. Section 8
Section 8 prohibits banking companies from directly engaging in buying or selling goods.
9. Under the IBC (Amendment) Act, 2026, what is the minimum percentage of debt required by creditors to initiate out-of-court resolution?
- A. 25%
- B. 40%
- C. 51%
- D. 66%
- E. 75%
View answer
Answer: C. 51%
Financial creditors holding more than 51% of the debt can initiate the new hybrid resolution mechanism.
10. According to the NAAS policy paper, what is a major reason for the poor performance of FPOs in India?
- A. High export duties
- B. Lack of irrigation
- C. Low membership base
- D. Excess subsidies
- E. Lack of fertilizers
View answer
Answer: C. Low membership base
Many FPOs struggle due to insufficient membership, which prevents economies of scale and reduces bargaining power.
28 April 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. What is the minimum net worth required to be classified as an Ultra-High Net-Worth Individual (UHNWI) as per the Knight Frank Wealth Report 2026?
- A. $10 million
- B. $20 million
- C. $30 million
- D. $50 million
- E. $100 million
View answer
Answer: C. $30 million
The report defines UHNWIs as individuals having a net worth of $30 million (approximately ₹283 crore) or more.
2. Which country ranked 6th globally in terms of UHNWI population in 2026 according to the Knight Frank Wealth Report?
- A. France
- B. India
- C. United Kingdom
- D. Germany
- E. Japan
View answer
Answer: B. India
India ranked 6th with 19,877 UHNWIs in 2026, reflecting rapid wealth growth.
3. By 2031, India’s number of billionaires is projected to reach approximately:
- A. 250
- B. 275
- C. 300
- D. 313
- E. 350
View answer
Answer: D. 313
The report projects India’s billionaire count to increase from 207 in 2026 to 313 by 2031, indicating strong economic growth.
4. The NMBA 2.0 App has been launched under which national framework?
- A. National Health Mission
- B. Digital India Programme
- C. National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR)
- D. Ayushman Bharat
- E. Skill India Mission
View answer
Answer: C. National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR)
NMBA 2.0 App operates under NAPDDR, focusing on awareness, treatment, and rehabilitation to combat drug abuse.
5. Which of the following best describes NITI Aayog?
- A. Constitutional body
- B. Statutory body
- C. Non-constitutional, non-statutory body
- D. Judicial body
- E. Autonomous constitutional authority
View answer
Answer: C. Non-constitutional, non-statutory body
NITI Aayog was created by a Cabinet Resolution in 2015 and is neither constitutional nor statutory.
6. The proposed Index of Service Production (ISP) aims to track:
- A. Annual agricultural output
- B. Monthly performance of the services sector
- C. Industrial production only
- D. Export-import data
- E. Inflation trends
View answer
Answer: B. Monthly performance of the services sector
ISP is designed as a high-frequency indicator to monitor monthly output of the services sector.
7. Under RBI’s revised NPA norms, if a borrower defaults on one loan, what happens to other loans of the same borrower?
- A. Only defaulted loan becomes NPA
- B. Loans above ₹10 lakh become NPA
- C. All loans of the borrower become NPA
- D. Loans remain standard for 180 days
- E. Only secured loans become NPA
View answer
Answer: C. All loans of the borrower become NPA
RBI introduced a “borrower-wise” classification where default in one loan leads to all loans being classified as NPAs.
8. Under the Expected Credit Loss (ECL) framework, provisioning begins:
- A. After 90 days of default
- B. After 180 days
- C. Only after NPA classification
- D. From the day the loan is granted
- E. After restructuring
View answer
Answer: D. From the day the loan is granted
ECL is a forward-looking model where expected losses are estimated from the very beginning of the loan.
9. In the ECL framework, which parameter represents the probability that a borrower will default?
- A. LGD
- B. EAD
- C. PD
- D. SICR
- E. ROE
View answer
Answer: C. PD
PD (Probability of Default) measures the likelihood that a borrower will fail to repay a loan.
10. The “Orange Economy” primarily focuses on which of the following sectors?
- A. Heavy industries
- B. Agriculture
- C. Creative industries and intellectual property
- D. Mining sector
- E. Energy production
View answer
Answer: C. Creative industries and intellectual property
The Orange Economy emphasizes creativity, culture, and IP-driven sectors like media, gaming, design, and digital content.