Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 23 & 24 September, 2026 1. A comprehensive checklist documented how many flowering plant species in the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? A. 1,868B. 2,104C. 3,261D. 3,500E. 4,012 View Answer Answer: C. 3,261 Explanation: Read the options carefully — 1,868 is the height in metres of Agasthyarkoodam, the reserve’s highest point, and 3,500 is its area in square kilometres. The reserve spans the southern extremity of the Western Ghats across Kerala and Tamil Nadu, was notified in 2001 and entered the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves under the Man and the Biosphere Programme in 2016. 2. Which plant family was found to be the most species-rich in the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? A. RubiaceaeB. PoaceaeC. OrchidaceaeD. FabaceaeE. Asteraceae View Answer Answer: D. Fabaceae Explanation: Fabaceae recorded 349 taxa, ahead of Rubiaceae (194), Poaceae (193) and Orchidaceae (168). Fabaceae is the legume or pea family — beans, peas, lentils, chickpea; Rubiaceae is the coffee family, which also gives quinine; Poaceae is the grass family, covering rice, wheat, maize, sugarcane and bamboo; Orchidaceae is the orchid family. 3. Which was India’s first biosphere reserve? A. AgasthyamalaB. NilgiriC. Gulf of MannarD. Seshachalam HillsE. Nanda Devi View Answer Answer: B. Nilgiri Explanation: Notified in 1986. South India’s four biosphere reserves are Nilgiri, Agasthyamala, Gulf of Mannar and Seshachalam Hills. A biosphere reserve conserves biodiversity while permitting sustainable use, which distinguishes it from a national park. Also linked to Agasthyamala is the Kani tribe and the Arogyapacha plant — the basis of India’s first access and benefit-sharing model under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. 4. The 9th India International Water Week was convened on which theme? A. “Water Vision @ 2047”B. “Climate Resilient Water Management”C. “Water for All, Water Forever”D. “Catch the Rain, Where it Falls”E. “One Water, One Nation” View Answer Answer: B. “Climate Resilient Water Management” Explanation: Held in New Delhi. Keep the constitutional position ready: water is a State subject under Entry 17 of List II, inter-state rivers fall under Entry 56 of the Union List, and Article 262 governs disputes. The mission list to revise alongside: Namami Gange, Jal Jeevan Mission, PMKSY (Per Drop More Crop), Swachh Bharat Mission, Atal Bhujal Yojana, Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain and Mission Amrit Sarovar. 5. Which two veterinary NSAIDs were banned in India in 2023 to protect vultures? A. Diclofenac and meloxicamB. Aceclofenac and ketoprofenC. Nimesulide and paracetamolD. Flunixin and carprofenE. Meloxicam and tolfenamic acid View Answer Answer: B. Aceclofenac and ketoprofen Explanation: Diclofenac was banned for veterinary use back in 2006, and meloxicam is the safe alternative — both appear in the options as traps. India’s vulture population fell over 95 per cent in three decades. The news peg is Hazaribagh in Jharkhand, on the Chota Nagpur Plateau, where a 100-km radius now supports an estimated 400 to 450 vultures, the State’s sole surviving wild stronghold. 6. India’s Vulture Conservation Breeding Centres are located at: A. Pinjore, Rajabhatkhawa and RaniB. Pinjore, Bharatpur and RanthamboreC. Hazaribagh, Rajabhatkhawa and RaniD. Pinjore, Rani and GirE. Bharatpur, Rajabhatkhawa and Mudumalai View Answer Answer: A. Pinjore, Rajabhatkhawa and Rani Explanation: Pinjore is in Haryana, Rajabhatkhawa in West Bengal and Rani in Assam. Four Indian species are Critically Endangered — White-rumped, Indian (long-billed), Slender-billed and Red-headed. A Vulture Safe Zone is an area of roughly 100 km radius verified free of toxic NSAIDs, and the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation ran 2020-25. 7. Under Uttar Pradesh’s Mukhyamantri Krishak Samriddhi Yojana, the interest rate on farm loans has been reduced to: A. 4 per centB. 5 per centC. 6 per centD. 7 per centE. 9 per cent View Answer Answer: C. 6 per cent Explanation: Down from 11 per cent, on loans through the Uttar Pradesh Cooperative Gramya Vikas Bank. The aim is to cut the interest burden and pull farmers towards institutional credit and away from informal lenders. It was launched alongside the Bharat Taxi service in the State. 8. Under Swachh Seva Aankalan, launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, who validates the Gram Panchayat’s self-assessment? A. The District CollectorB. The Gram SabhaC. The Block Development OfficerD. A third-party audit agencyE. The State Sanitation Mission View Answer Answer: B. The Gram Sabha Explanation: Launched under Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen 2.0, SSA is an annual digital self-assessment framework in which Gram Panchayats rate ODF sustainability, cleanliness, Solid and Liquid Waste Management and sanitation infrastructure. Validation by the Gram Sabha is the design choice being tested — it puts verification with the village assembly rather than an outside inspector. 9. India’s maiden blue bond is being raised by which entity? A. Shipping Corporation of IndiaB. Sagarmala Finance CorporationC. Cochin ShipyardD. IREDAE. National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development View Answer Answer: B. Sagarmala Finance Corporation Explanation: India’s first maritime lender, planning the issue on 28 September. A blue bond finances sustainable water and marine projects — clean water, recycling, shipping, sustainable fishing, ocean energy and mapping — making it the marine equivalent of a green bond. Two terms that travel with it: the greenshoe option, which lets an issuer retain oversubscription beyond the base size, and “greenium”, the yield discount a thematic bond earns over a conventional one. 10. Which country issued the world’s first sovereign blue bond? A. FijiB. MaldivesC. SeychellesD. IndonesiaE. Belize View Answer Answer: C. Seychelles Explanation: In 2018, with World Bank support. For comparison, India issued its first Sovereign Green Bonds in January 2023 under the Sovereign Green Bond Framework. SEBI has issued a framework for green debt securities and proposed norms to curb greenwashing. The wider family is green, social, sustainability and sustainability-linked bonds. 11. Which agency now has the highest FY27 GDP growth projection for India? A. ADB — 7.0 per centB.

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 22 September, 2026 1. As per the WMO State of Global Water Resources 2025, what share of monitored groundwater stations recorded below or much-below-normal levels in 2025? A. 18 per centB. 25 per centC. 34 per centD. 36 per centE. 42 per cent View Answer Answer: C. 34 per cent Explanation: Up from 25 per cent in 2024 — both years are in the options. The 36 per cent figure is a different finding: about 36 per cent of global catchment area was drier than normal, making 2025 one of the driest years for river discharge in 35 years. The report has expanded over five years from 3 to 15 hydrological variables. WMO is a UN specialised agency, founded 1950, headquartered at Geneva. 2. Glaciers lost how much mass globally in 2025, according to the report? A. 148 ±60 GtB. 274 ±90 GtC. 408 ±132 GtD. 612 ±150 GtE. 805 ±210 Gt View Answer Answer: C. 408 ±132 Gt Explanation: Equivalent to about 1.1 ±0.4 mm of sea-level rise, and the fourth consecutive year in which every major glaciated region recorded net ice loss. Global terrestrial water storage — all water on and below the land surface, measured by satellite gravimetry such as GRACE — has been declining persistently since 2014-16, with below-normal storage in northern India in 2025. 3. Groundwater supports roughly what share of irrigation and rural drinking water in India? A. 40 per cent of irrigation and 60 per cent of rural drinking waterB. 50 per cent of irrigation and 70 per cent of rural drinking waterC. 60 per cent of irrigation and 85 per cent of rural drinking waterD. 75 per cent of irrigation and 90 per cent of rural drinking waterE. 85 per cent of irrigation and 60 per cent of rural drinking water View Answer Answer: C. 60 per cent of irrigation and 85 per cent of rural drinking water Explanation: India is the world’s largest user of groundwater — more than the United States and China combined. The Central Ground Water Board assesses it and classifies blocks as Safe, Semi-critical, Critical and Over-exploited; Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Delhi hold the most over-exploited blocks. Parts of India ran persistent groundwater deficits through 2022-2025, with over-abstraction an important driver. 4. APEDA signed an MoU with InD Events Dubai, the organiser of which trade fair? A. SIAL ParisB. GulfoodC. AnugaD. Fruit LogisticaE. Foodex Japan View Answer Answer: B. Gulfood Explanation: India will be the Official Partner Country at Gulfood 2027 for the second consecutive year. The partnership is aimed at MSMEs, FPOs, startups and women- and SC/ST-led exporters, through buyer linkages and market access. APEDA was established in 1986 under the APEDA Act, 1985 and works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry — note the gap between the Act and the body. 5. Madhya Pradesh’s Swamitva Adhikar Abhilekh Nispadan Evam Panjiyan Yojana 2026 provides free registration of about how many rural properties? A. 10 lakhB. 25 lakhC. 50 lakhD. 75 lakhE. 1 crore View Answer Answer: C. 50 lakh Explanation: The scheme covers all 55 districts and works through door-to-door visits, village camps and panchayat-level camps, with no stamp duty or registration charges. The purpose is to put a legal ownership document in rural hands — which is what converts an occupied house into collateral a bank will lend against. 6. Under the proposed FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026, an appeal against the vesting of assets lies before a District Judge within: A. 30 daysB. 45 daysC. 60 daysD. 90 daysE. 180 days View Answer Answer: D. 90 days Explanation: If an NGO’s registration is cancelled, surrendered or lapses, unutilised foreign contributions and assets created from foreign funds provisionally vest in a government-appointed Designated Authority; if registration is not restored within the prescribed window they vest permanently, and may be transferred to public departments or auctioned with proceeds credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. The Bill also cuts the maximum prison term for specified compliance violations from five years to one. FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. 7. Which FCRA amendment introduced the 20 per cent ceiling on administrative expenses and the designated SBI account? A. 1976B. 2010C. 2011D. 2020E. 2022 View Answer Answer: D. 2020 Explanation: The timeline to memorise: FCRA first enacted 1976; FCRA 2010 replaced it; Rules notified 2011; major amendments in 2020 bringing the 20 per cent administrative-expense cap and the designated SBI New Delhi Main Branch account; in 2022 the limit on foreign contributions from relatives abroad rose from ₹1 lakh to ₹10 lakh a year; and in 2026 the Amendment Bill was introduced with new Rules notified. 8. novio, which launched a co-branded RuPay credit card with Indian Overseas Bank, is operated by: A. Credilio Financial TechnologiesB. Zeta ServicesC. M2P FintechD. Juspay TechnologiesE. Perfios Software View Answer Answer: A. Credilio Financial Technologies Explanation: The card comes in RuPay Select and RuPay Platinum variants and can be linked to UPI for credit-based payments. The design point worth remembering is the FD-backed credit facility — a fixed deposit standing as security lets someone with no formal credit history get a card and start building a credit profile, which is a standard financial-inclusion route. 9. SLINEX-26, the bilateral naval exercise under way at Visakhapatnam, is held between India and: A. SingaporeB. Sri LankaC. SeychellesD. MaldivesE. Indonesia View Answer Answer: B. Sri Lanka Explanation: This is the 13th edition, first held in 2005, conducted under the Eastern Naval Command. It tests coordinated manoeuvres, tactical communications and maritime interdiction. Other India-Sri Lanka exercises are Mitra Shakti (army) and the trilateral Dosti with the Maldives (coast guards). The policy frame is SAGAR, announced in 2015 in Mauritius, extended

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 20 & 21 September, 2026 1. The SPROUT facility inaugurated at BRIC-NIPGR, New Delhi, stands for: A. Sustainable Production and Rural Outreach for Unified TechnologyB. SpeedSeed Phenotyping and Resource Optimization for Unified Trait AnalysisC. Seed Propagation and Resilient Output Upgradation TechnologyD. Strategic Plant Research on Utilisation of TraitsE. Soil Productivity and Regenerative Output Under Trials View Answer Answer: B. SpeedSeed Phenotyping and Resource Optimization for Unified Trait Analysis Explanation: Inaugurated by Dr Jitendra Singh to develop climate-resilient crops, with chickpea as the first crop taken up. Phenotyping means measuring a plant’s observable traits — height, yield, stress response — and high-throughput means doing it automatically at scale. NIPGR was established in 1998 and its Director is Prof. Manoj Prasad. 2. Speed breeding, as used at the SPROUT facility, shortens a crop cycle to roughly: A. 20 daysB. 40 daysC. 60 daysD. 90 daysE. 120 days View Answer Answer: B. 40 days Explanation: That allows several generations a year instead of one or two, which is the whole point — a breeder testing for drought or heat tolerance no longer waits a full season per attempt. Remember the pair: genotype is the genetic makeup, phenotype is what is actually expressed, shaped by both genes and environment. 3. BRIC, the parent body of NIPGR, was formed in 2023 by merging how many DBT institutes? A. 8B. 10C. 12D. 14E. 16 View Answer Answer: D. 14 Explanation: BRIC is the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council, an autonomous body under the Department of Biotechnology. Related facts worth carrying: the BioE3 Policy approved in 2024 for biomanufacturing; India’s first genome-edited rice varieties DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala) and Pusa DST Rice 1 released in 2025; and SDN-1 and SDN-2 genome editing, which introduces no foreign DNA and is exempt from GM regulation in India. 4. Under the new GOBARdhan operational guidelines, the Compressed Biogas purchase obligation for City Gas Distribution companies is fixed at: A. 1% in FY27, 2% in FY28, 3% from FY29B. 2% in FY27, 3% in FY28, 4% from FY29C. 3% in FY27, 4% in FY28, 5% from FY29D. 5% in FY27, 6% in FY28, 7% from FY29E. A flat 5% from FY27 View Answer Answer: C. 3% in FY27, 4% in FY28, 5% from FY29 Explanation: Issued by MoPNG, with the government assuring full offtake of CBG available for sale, subject to technical and operational feasibility. The initial Administered CBG Price is ₹2,110 per MMBTU — roughly ₹98 a kg — guaranteed for at least 10 years, up to 31 March 2036. A guaranteed price plus a rising purchase obligation is how a market is created where none existed. 5. What is the theme of the Swachhata Hi Seva 2026 campaign? A. “Sampoorna Swachhata”B. “Swachhata Mein Sahbhag; Swachh Bharat, Viksit Bharat”C. “Ek Tareekh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath”D. “Swachh Bharat, Swasth Bharat”E. “Garbage Free India” View Answer Answer: B. “Swachhata Mein Sahbhag; Swachh Bharat, Viksit Bharat” Explanation: Launched on 17 September 2026 by MoHUA and DDWS, the campaign runs to 2 October 2026, culminating on Gandhi Jayanti. Its five pillars are Clean Public Places, Swachh Paathshala, SafaiMitra Suraksha Evam Samman, Jan Bhagidari and Swachhata Se Samriddhi. 6. NSTFDC signed an MoU with which company to set up smart classrooms and computer labs in 29 Eklavya Model Residential Schools in Rajasthan? A. IOCLB. HPCLC. BPCLD. GAILE. ONGC View Answer Answer: B. HPCL Explanation: The ₹16.01 crore project covers 11 districts and will benefit more than 10,000 Scheduled Tribe students a year. Each school gets four smart classrooms, a computer lab and 10 tablets loaded with competitive-exam content, with completion expected within six months. 7. The 9th edition of NITI Aayog’s Trade Watch Quarterly focused on which sector? A. Textiles and apparelB. Metals and oresC. Electronics and semiconductorsD. PharmaceuticalsE. Marine products View Answer Answer: B. Metals and ores Explanation: The edition covers Q1 FY27. Global goods trade reached USD 13.7 trillion in H1 2026, up 12.5 per cent. India’s merchandise and services trade was USD 506.9 billion in Q1 FY27, up 15.5 per cent, with merchandise exports up 16 per cent to USD 129.5 billion and imports up 19.8 per cent to USD 216.1 billion — a merchandise trade deficit of USD 86.6 billion. 8. Under NPCI’s revised MDR framework effective 15 October 2026, UPI P2M transactions remain free up to what value? A. ₹500B. ₹1,000C. ₹2,000D. ₹5,000E. All P2M transactions remain free View Answer Answer: C. ₹2,000 Explanation: P2P transactions stay free at any amount. Above ₹2,000, specified categories such as railways, telecom, insurance and fuel attract a flat ₹5 MDR, while capital-market transactions attract 0.02 per cent capped at ₹300. Note that a flat fee and a percentage fee behave very differently as ticket size grows — that is the reasoning an interview panel looks for. 9. India’s first tokenised corporate bond issuances, enabled by NSE, were carried out under which framework? A. RBI Regulatory SandboxB. SEBI Regulatory Sandbox Framework, 2020C. IFSCA Innovation SandboxD. SEBI LODR Regulations, 2015E. RBI Account Aggregator Framework View Answer Answer: B. SEBI Regulatory Sandbox Framework, 2020 Explanation: The issuances were worth ₹1,000 crore in all, with REC and L&T raising ₹500 crore each. They use Distributed Ledger Technology to digitally represent and manage the securities, aimed at better transparency, operational efficiency and settlement. Corporate bonds sit with SEBI, not the RBI — which is what decides the answer here. 10. Kamlesh Chandra Varshney, reappointed as a Whole-Time Member of SEBI, belongs to which service? A. Indian Administrative ServiceB. Indian Revenue ServiceC. Indian Economic ServiceD. Indian Audit and Accounts ServiceE. Indian Corporate Law Service View Answer Answer: B. Indian Revenue Service Explanation: A 1990-batch IRS officer, he joined SEBI as a Whole-Time Member in September

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 19 September, 2026 1. The report “Forests for Food: Nourishing People, Sustaining the Planet” was published by the FAO together with: A. UNEPB. CIFOR-ICRAFC. IUCND. WRIE. CGIAR Secretariat View Answer Answer: B. CIFOR-ICRAF Explanation: CIFOR-ICRAF is the Center for International Forestry Research and World Agroforestry, working here through the Landscape Alliance. The report came out under the Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF) Joint Initiative. FAO was founded in 1945, is headquartered at Rome, and also publishes SOFA, SOFI and the Global Forest Resources Assessment. 2. According to the report, forest-hosted pollinators support what share of global crop production? A. 15 per centB. 23 per centC. 35 per centD. 50 per centE. 85 per cent View Answer Answer: C. 35 per cent Explanation: The 85 per cent figure in the options is the other headline number — forested watersheds supply freshwater to over 85 per cent of the world’s major cities. Examiners routinely swap these two. The report also finds agricultural zones across 155 countries depend on forests in other countries for up to 40 per cent of annual rainfall, through atmospheric moisture recycling. 3. How many people relied primarily on woodfuel for cooking in 2022, as per the report? A. 410 millionB. 1 billionC. 1.8 billionD. 3.2 billionE. 5 billion View Answer Answer: C. 1.8 billion Explanation: That is 23 per cent of the global population. A separate 410 million depended on wood energy simply to boil and sterilise drinking water, and more than 1 billion rely on forest-derived medicinal plants for primary healthcare. Over 5 billion depend on forests to some extent for livelihoods. 4. Average annual deforestation between 2015 and 2025 stood at: A. 4.12 million hectaresB. 6.5 million hectaresC. 10.7 million hectaresD. 10.9 million hectaresE. 14.2 million hectares View Answer Answer: D. 10.9 million hectares Explanation: Deforestation and net forest loss are different measures, and both appear in the options. Net loss fell from 10.7 to 4.12 million hectares a year, because losses are partly offset by forest expansion, while gross deforestation stayed at 10.9 million hectares annually. 5. India’s first farm-level soil carbon payments were delivered through which entity’s ‘Aadi’ programme? A. Grow IndigoB. DeHaatC. NAFEDD. NinjacartE. Bharat Krishi Carbon View Answer Answer: A. Grow Indigo Explanation: Grow Indigo is an agri-tech joint venture between Mahyco and the US-based Indigo Ag. More than 2,550 small farmers in Punjab and Haryana received over ₹2.9 crore through DBT for verified regenerative practices. The initiative began in 2019 to curb paddy stubble burning and groundwater depletion in the Indo-Gangetic plains. 6. Under the soil carbon payment mechanism, farmers receive upfront payments or what share of the net proceeds from carbon-credit sales? A. 50 per centB. 60 per centC. 70 per centD. 75 per centE. 90 per cent View Answer Answer: D. 75 per cent Explanation: The chain runs: adoption of Direct Seeded Rice, minimum tillage, cover crops and in-situ residue retention → measurement, reporting and verification using satellite data, digital crop models and soil sampling → credit issuance in the voluntary carbon market → payment to the farmer. The first cycle covered 2019 to 2022, roughly 30,000 acres and over 50,000 certified credits. 7. The ‘Bharat Vann’ green initiative inaugurated at Lodhi Colony Park uses which afforestation method? A. TaungyaB. MiyawakiC. Agroforestry block plantingD. Assisted natural regenerationE. Aerial seeding View Answer Answer: B. Miyawaki Explanation: Miyawaki uses high-density planting of multi-layered indigenous vegetation to create self-sustaining micro-forests quickly. The project is implemented by the New Delhi Municipal Council with funding under the CSR initiative of IIFCL and execution by the Enviro Creators Foundation. Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman inaugurated it. The aim is to cut particulate pollution and lower the urban heat island effect. 8. The Union Cabinet approved raising the mandatory wage ceiling under the EPFO to: A. ₹18,000 per monthB. ₹20,000 per monthC. ₹21,000 per monthD. ₹25,000 per monthE. ₹30,000 per month View Answer Answer: D. ₹25,000 per month Explanation: The ceiling rises from ₹15,000. It is the statutory threshold of basic pay plus dearness allowance that decides mandatory coverage under the EPF and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 — any worker joining an establishment with 20 or more employees at or below that wage must be enrolled. The Expenditure Finance Committee cleared the hike in June 2026. 9. What was the EPFO wage ceiling immediately before the 2014 revision? A. ₹3,500B. ₹5,000C. ₹6,500D. ₹7,500E. ₹10,000 View Answer Answer: C. ₹6,500 Explanation: ₹6,500 applied from 2004 until 1 September 2014, when it was raised to ₹15,000. Over the next twelve years rising state minimum wages pushed baseline earnings to or above ₹15,000, which quietly left new workers outside automatic coverage — the reason the ceiling had to move again. 10. Moody’s Ratings raised its FY27 real GDP growth forecast for India to: A. 6.4 per centB. 6.6 per centC. 6.7 per centD. 7.0 per centE. 7.8 per cent View Answer Answer: D. 7.0 per cent Explanation: Up from 6 per cent, and the highest among major agencies: RBI 6.7, ADB 6.6, S&P 6.6, Goldman Sachs 6.5, Fitch 6.4. The 7.8 per cent in the options is Q1 FY27 actual GDP growth. Moody’s also put FY27 inflation at 4.8 per cent against 2.4 per cent in FY26. 11. India’s sovereign rating from Moody’s currently stands at: A. Baa1, stableB. Baa2, stableC. Baa3, stableD. Ba1, positiveE. A3, stable View Answer Answer: C. Baa3, stable Explanation: Baa3 is Moody’s lowest investment grade. The equivalents are Fitch BBB− and Morningstar DBRS BBB, all stable, while S&P upgraded India to BBB last year — one notch above Fitch and Moody’s. The constraints cited are high general government debt, weak debt affordability (the share of revenue eaten by interest payments)

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 18 September, 2026 1. The four-year status review of Project Cheetah released by Kuno National Park puts India’s cheetah population at: A. 39B. 44C. 52D. 58E. 64 View Answer Answer: C. 52 Explanation: Of the 52, 49 are at Kuno and 3 at Gandhi Sagar, and 32 cubs have been born on Indian soil. Seventeen are free-ranging at Kuno. The programme has moved into its consolidation phase, four years after being launched on 17 September 2022. 2. The cheetah was declared extinct in India in which year? A. 1947B. 1952C. 1962D. 1972E. 1980 View Answer Answer: B. 1952 Explanation: The last cheetahs were reportedly shot in Koriya, in present-day Chhattisgarh. The cheetah is the only large carnivore to have gone extinct in independent India, which is why Project Cheetah — the world’s first intercontinental large carnivore translocation — carries the weight it does. IUCN lists the species as Vulnerable, with the Asiatic subspecies Critically Endangered, and CITES places it in Appendix I. 3. Gegeneophis chandgadi, newly described from the Western Ghats, belongs to which order of amphibians? A. AnuraB. CaudataC. GymnophionaD. UrodelaE. Squamata View Answer Answer: C. Gymnophiona Explanation: Caecilians form Gymnophiona, the third order of amphibians alongside Anura (frogs and toads) and Caudata/Urodela (salamanders and newts). They are limbless, fossorial animals with vestigial eyes and chemosensory tentacles. Squamata is an order of reptiles, not amphibians. 4. Gegeneophis chandgadi was discovered in backyard leaf litter in which district? A. Satara, MaharashtraB. Kolhapur, MaharashtraC. Uttara Kannada, KarnatakaD. Idukki, KeralaE. Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu View Answer Answer: B. Kolhapur, Maharashtra Explanation: The species was described by the Zoological Survey of India and Savitribai Phule Pune University from Buzawade village, Chandgad taluka, in the northern Western Ghats. The exam point is where it was found — a human-modified rural backyard free of synthetic pesticides, not pristine forest, showing that agroecosystems can still hold undescribed biodiversity. ZSI was established in 1916, is headquartered at Kolkata and works under the MoEFCC. 5. What is the total outlay of the PM Vishwakarma Scheme for FY2023-24 to FY2027-28? A. ₹8,000 croreB. ₹10,000 croreC. ₹13,000 croreD. ₹15,000 croreE. ₹20,000 crore View Answer Answer: C. ₹13,000 crore Explanation: PM Vishwakarma is a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the Centre and jointly implemented by MoMSME, MSDE and DFS. Launched on 17 September 2023 on Vishwakarma Jayanti, it completed three years with 30 lakh registrations, and covers 18 traditional trades. 6. Under PM Vishwakarma, collateral-free credit of ₹1 lakh followed by ₹2 lakh is offered to the artisan at what rate of interest? A. 4 per centB. 5 per centC. 6 per centD. 7 per centE. 8 per cent View Answer Answer: B. 5 per cent Explanation: The artisan pays 5 per cent, with an 8 per cent interest subvention borne by the government — the two numbers are easy to swap in an exam. The first tranche of ₹1 lakh runs 18 months and the second of ₹2 lakh runs 30 months. The scheme also gives a training stipend of ₹500 a day, a ₹15,000 toolkit e-voucher and ₹1 per digital transaction up to 100 a month. 7. The Kishau Multipurpose Project, agreed to by six states, involves a 232.6-metre concrete gravity dam on which river? A. YamunaB. TonsC. GiriD. SutlejE. Ramganga View Answer Answer: B. Tons Explanation: The Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna, which is why the 422 MW project is tied to Yamuna rejuvenation along with storage and irrigation. Storage capacity is 1,562 MCM. The six signatories are Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and Rajasthan. As a National Project it carries 90 per cent central funding and 10 per cent from the participating state. 8. NIELIT and Infineon Technologies inaugurated a Centre of Excellence for semiconductor manufacturing in which city? A. BhubaneswarB. AhmedabadC. HyderabadD. PuneE. Mohali View Answer Answer: B. Ahmedabad Explanation: The centre trains in ATMP, OSAT and semiconductor backend manufacturing, with 8 equipment units supplied by Infineon. Bhubaneswar is the distractor for a reason — on the same day MeitY gave in-principle approval for an AI Centre of Excellence there under the IndiaAI Mission. 9. The RBI’s ₹50,000 crore Open Market Operation in mid-September 2026 was conducted to: A. Inject durable liquidity into the banking systemB. Absorb durable liquidity from the banking systemC. Defend the rupee in the forward marketD. Sterilise foreign exchange inflows under the MSSE. Roll over maturing state development loans View Answer Answer: B. Absorb durable liquidity from the banking system Explanation: An OMO sale takes securities out of the RBI’s book and rupees out of the system. This was the first tranche of a ₹1 trillion programme, with ₹25,000 crore each scheduled for 21 and 28 September 2026. Net liquidity surplus was ₹7.37 trillion and durable liquidity around ₹14 trillion, and the WACR had slipped to 5.05 per cent against a 5.25 per cent repo rate — a call rate below the repo is the classic signal of surplus liquidity. 10. Under which two articles must central laws on land and customary practice receive the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly? A. 371A and 371GB. 371D and 371EC. 371F and 371HD. 371B and 371CE. 371I and 371J View Answer Answer: A. 371A and 371G Explanation: 371A covers Nagaland and came from the 16-Point Agreement of 1960; 371G covers Mizoram and came from the Mizo Peace Accord of 1986. These are the strongest asymmetric provisions in Part XXI (Articles 369 to 392). The news peg is a proposed Article 371K, agreed in principle with the Apex Body Leh and the Kargil Democratic Alliance, which would give Ladakh a directly elected UT-level legislative body without statehood or Sixth Schedule status. 11. Which State will become

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 16 & 17 September, 2026 1. India’s first Badri calf produced through OPU-IVF technology at Pantnagar was born from a surrogate of which breed? A. GirB. SahiwalC. TharparkarD. HarianaE. Red Sindhi View Answer Answer: B. Sahiwal Explanation: The calf was born on 11 September 2026 through a collaboration between ICAR-NDRI Karnal and GBPUAT Pantnagar, funded by the Uttarakhand Biotechnology Council, Haldi. Using a surrogate of a different breed lets a scarce indigenous breed be multiplied without depending on its own small female population. 2. Badri cattle, locally called Pahadi, hold which distinction? A. The first cattle breed from Uttarakhand registered by ICAR’s NBAGRB. The only Bos taurus breed native to the Indian HimalayaC. The highest milk-yielding indigenous breed of IndiaD. The first Indian breed to receive a Geographical Indication tagE. The state animal of Himachal Pradesh View Answer Answer: A. The first cattle breed from Uttarakhand registered by ICAR’s NBAGR Explanation: Badri is a dual-purpose Bos indicus breed named after the Badrinath shrine and is the state animal of Uttarakhand. It is found in Garhwal and Kumaon districts such as Almora, Pauri Garhwal, Chamoli and Champawat, thriving on steep slopes and cold climates where exotic cattle fail. NBAGR at Karnal is the nodal body for breed registration. 3. Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana, which completed seven years on 12 September 2026, what is the assured monthly pension on attaining 60 years of age? A. Rs 1,000B. Rs 2,000C. Rs 3,000D. Rs 5,000E. Rs 6,000 View Answer Answer: C. Rs 3,000 Explanation: PM-KMY is a voluntary contributory scheme launched in 2019 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare with LIC as pension fund manager. The farmer contributes Rs 55 to Rs 200 a month depending on entry age, and the Centre makes an equal matching contribution to the pension fund. 4. Which of the following is the correct eligibility condition for enrolment under PM-KMY? A. Any farmer aged 18 to 50 with landholding up to 5 hectaresB. Small and marginal farmers with cultivable landholding up to 2 hectares, aged 18 to 40C. Landless agricultural labourers aged 21 to 45D. All PM-KISAN beneficiaries irrespective of ageE. Farmers aged above 40 with landholding up to 1 hectare View Answer Answer: B. Small and marginal farmers with cultivable landholding up to 2 hectares, aged 18 to 40 Explanation: The name must appear in State or UT land records as on 1 August 2019. On the pensioner’s death the spouse receives 50 per cent as family pension. Farmers may also opt to have contributions deducted directly from their PM-KISAN benefits, which removes the friction of separate monthly payments. 5. Operational guidelines were recently notified for the GOBARdhan scheme with an outlay of how much? A. Rs 10,000 croreB. Rs 15,731 croreC. Rs 23,731 croreD. Rs 32,731 croreE. Rs 45,000 crore View Answer Answer: C. Rs 23,731 crore Explanation: GOBARdhan, or Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan, was launched in 2018 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti with the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation as nodal department, initially within Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen. The new guidelines assure full offtake of compressed biogas and introduce a pricing mechanism, addressing the investor risk that had held the sector back. 6. According to the 9th ASEAN-India Ministerial Meeting on Agriculture and Forestry, India-ASEAN trade in goods reached what level in FY2025-26? A. USD 78 billionB. USD 98 billionC. USD 112 billionD. USD 128 billionE. USD 160 billion View Answer Answer: D. USD 128 billion Explanation: AIMMAF was held in New Delhi on 9 September 2026. The two sides reaffirmed cooperation on climate-resilient agriculture, low-emission rice, water productivity, AI-enabled digital agriculture, soil health and agroforestry, areas where ASEAN’s monsoon rice systems and India’s face similar climate stress. 7. Dryland Congress 2026, which concluded with the Delhi Declaration on Drylands, was organised by ICAR along with which institution? A. IRRIB. CIMMYTC. ICRISATD. ICARDAE. FAO View Answer Answer: C. ICRISAT Explanation: The theme was “Transforming Dryland Agriculture with South-South Cooperation” and the event marked 50 years of the ICAR-ICRISAT partnership. Drylands matter disproportionately for India because rainfed areas account for a large share of cultivated land and carry most of the country’s pulse and coarse cereal production. 8. Gujarat, where the Mangrove GIS Portal was launched, has restored how much mangrove area under MISHTI against its 2023-27 target of 29,250 hectares? A. 12,450 hectaresB. 19,300 hectaresC. 24,100 hectaresD. 27,652 hectaresE. 31,500 hectares View Answer Answer: D. 27,652 hectares Explanation: Union Minister Bhupender Yadav launched the portal at Bhuj to support habitat monitoring, conservation planning and technology-based restoration. The Guneri Inland Mangrove ecosystem was highlighted as a community-led initiative. MISHTI stands for Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes. 9. The Pension Sakhi initiative to expand rural pension coverage involves an MoU between the Department of Rural Development and which body? A. RBIB. PFRDAC. IRDAID. NABARDE. LIC View Answer Answer: B. PFRDA Explanation: The initiative rides on the women-led DAY-NRLM network, including BC Sakhis and community resource persons, to reach SHG members, Lakhpati Didis and other underserved groups. Digital dashboards and the LoKoS system will monitor outreach and enrolment, using an existing last-mile cadre rather than building a new one. 10. Under the Uttar Pradesh Mukhyamantri Krishak Samriddhi Yojana, concessional long-term loans to small and marginal farmers will be available up to what amount and at what interest rate? A. Rs 3 lakh at 4 per centB. Rs 5 lakh at 7 per centC. Rs 6 lakh at 6 per centD. Rs 10 lakh at 8 per centE. Rs 2 lakh at 5 per cent View Answer Answer: C. Rs 6 lakh at 6 per cent Explanation: The loans will be routed through the Uttar Pradesh

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 15 September, 2026 1. Agri-tech startup Grow Indigo recently paid around 2,500 farmers for more than 57,000 agricultural carbon credits. What was notable about this payment? A. It was routed entirely through the Compliance Carbon MarketB. It was made from the company’s own funds even though the credits were not yet fully soldC. It was funded by a World Bank concessional line of creditD. It was paid in the form of subsidised farm inputs rather than cashE. It was restricted to farmers holding more than ten hectares View Answer Answer: B. It was made from the company’s own funds even though the credits were not yet fully sold Explanation: Farmers received Rs 3,000 to Rs 15,000 each. Paying before the credits find buyers shifts the market risk from the farmer to the aggregator, which matters because uncertain and delayed payouts have been the main reason smallholders hesitate to adopt carbon-farming practices. 2. According to the study by CSK Himachal Pradesh Krishi Vishvavidyalaya and Savannah Seeds, direct-seeded rice using SAVA-134 FullPage reduced methane emissions by nearly how much? A. 30 per centB. 50 per centC. 65 per centD. 90 per centE. 100 per cent View Answer Answer: D. 90 per cent Explanation: Flooded paddy fields create anaerobic conditions in which methane-producing bacteria thrive, so avoiding continuous standing water sharply cuts emissions. The study also reported better water productivity and soil health, which is why DSR has become the main source of agricultural carbon credits in India. 3. One carbon credit generally represents the reduction or removal of how much greenhouse gas? A. 100 kg of carbon dioxide equivalentB. 500 kg of carbon dioxide equivalentC. 1 tonne of carbon dioxide equivalentD. 10 tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalentE. 100 tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent View Answer Answer: C. 1 tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent Explanation: The tonne of CO2-equivalent is the common unit that lets emissions of different gases be compared and traded. Agricultural carbon credits arise from practices that either cut emissions, as direct-seeded rice does with methane, or raise soil carbon storage, which is harder to measure and verify. 4. The Grass Mache technique developed by a Srinagar artisan uses which raw material? A. Rice straw left after harvest in the Kashmir ValleyB. Aquatic weeds and grasses removed from Dal LakeC. Willow twigs from Wular Lake wetlandsD. Waste wool from Pashmina processingE. Discarded walnut shells from Kashmir orchards View Answer Answer: B. Aquatic weeds and grasses removed from Dal Lake Explanation: The craft adapts Kashmir’s centuries-old papier-mache tradition. Dried weeds are turned into a fine fibrous pulp, mixed, moulded and dried into a natural, stone-like texture. It is a practical example of the circular economy, turning a waste stream from lake de-weeding into an input for livelihoods. 5. Dal Lake in Srinagar is managed by which authority? A. Jammu and Kashmir Pollution Control CommitteeB. National Mission for Clean GangaC. Lakes Conservation and Management AuthorityD. Wetlands International South AsiaE. Central Water Commission View Answer Answer: C. Lakes Conservation and Management Authority Explanation: The LCMA was formerly known as LAWDA. Dal Lake is an urban lake suffering from eutrophication, encroachment and weed infestation, with Azolla, Salvinia, water hyacinth and Ceratophyllum as the main invasive weeds. Unlike Wular, Dal is not a Ramsar Site, though Wular, Hokersar, Surinsar-Mansar and Tsomoriri are. 6. Ophiopogon japonicus, recorded for the first time in India, was reported from which State? A. SikkimB. Arunachal PradeshC. MeghalayaD. NagalandE. Manipur View Answer Answer: B. Arunachal Pradesh Explanation: The evergreen perennial herb of the family Asparagaceae, known as dwarf lilyturf or mondo grass, was recorded from West Kameng district. It is mainly found in China, Japan and Korea at 200 to 2,800 metres, and its roots, called Ophiopogonis Radix or Maidong, are used in traditional East Asian medicine. 7. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana, which completed six years on 10 September 2026, was launched with an outlay of how much? A. Rs 6,000 croreB. Rs 11,040 croreC. Rs 15,000 croreD. Rs 20,050 croreE. Rs 25,050 crore View Answer Answer: D. Rs 20,050 crore Explanation: PMMSY was launched in 2020 for FY2020-21 to FY2024-25 and later extended through FY2025-26. It is implemented by the Department of Fisheries under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, and has both Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Scheme components, a structure NABARD aspirants should note. 8. The CM Startup and NIPUN Mission approved by the Chhattisgarh Cabinet carries an outlay of how much, and over what period? A. Rs 200 crore over three yearsB. Rs 300 crore over five yearsC. Rs 500 crore over five yearsD. Rs 750 crore over seven yearsE. Rs 1,000 crore over ten years View Answer Answer: C. Rs 500 crore over five years Explanation: NIPUN stands for New-Age Industry Preparedness through Up-skilling of New Generation Youth. It will set up Entrepreneurship Development Centres in all 33 districts, five Centres of Excellence and 100 Emerging Technology Labs covering AI, Internet of Things, Big Data and Blockchain, with a NIPUN Job Engine linking trained youth to industry. 9. India’s foreign exchange reserves reached a record level in the week ended 4 September 2026. What was the total? A. $685.7 billionB. $704.9 billionC. $740.8 billionD. $785.7 billionE. $812.4 billion View Answer Answer: D. $785.7 billion Explanation: The weekly jump of $44.9 billion was itself a record, and reserves have risen by more than $100 billion since 5 June, when the concessional swap scheme was announced. FCNR(B) flows of about $127 billion exceeded expectations, taking India to the position of fourth-largest holder of reserves globally. 10. At the Global Fintech Fest 2026, which body was recognised by the RBI as the second Self-Regulatory Organisation for the fintech sector? A. Fintech

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 13 & 14 September, 2026 1. GANGA, India’s first cloned cattle produced in 2025 at ICAR-NDRI, belongs to which indigenous breed? A. SahiwalB. GirC. TharparkarD. Red SindhiE. Kankrej View Answer Answer: B. Gir Explanation: GANGA is a Gir female calf produced using Ovum Pick-Up for oocyte collection and Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer for embryo reconstruction. Cloning is being pursued mainly to multiply elite indigenous animals whose genetics would otherwise be lost, since conventional breeding takes several generations to spread superior traits. 2. In 2009, ICAR-NDRI, Karnal achieved which of the following world firsts in animal biotechnology? A. World’s first cloned goat using embryonic cellsB. World’s first buffalo calf cloned using the Hand-guided Cloning TechniqueC. World’s first sex-sorted semen production unitD. World’s first transgenic dairy cowE. World’s first camel produced through embryo transfer View Answer Answer: B. World’s first buffalo calf cloned using the Hand-guided Cloning Technique Explanation: The hand-guided method dispenses with expensive micromanipulators, making cloning cheaper and more field-adaptable. NDRI Karnal has since extended the work to cattle and to cloned Badri embryos, with elite high-producing Badri cows being explored for conservation of Himalayan bovine diversity. 3. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission, meant for development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds, was launched in which year? A. December 2012B. February 2014C. December 2014D. April 2016E. March 2021 View Answer Answer: C. December 2014 Explanation: RGM was realigned for 2021-22 to 2025-26 with Rs 2,400 crore, enhanced by Rs 1,000 crore in March 2025 to take the total to Rs 3,400 crore for the 15th Finance Commission cycle. Its interventions include the Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme, sex-sorted semen and IVF technology. Note that NPBBDD was the February 2014 scheme. 4. Badri cattle, whose elite high-producing animals are being explored for cloning, are indigenous to and recognised as the state animal of which State? A. Himachal PradeshB. UttarakhandC. SikkimD. Arunachal PradeshE. Jammu and Kashmir View Answer Answer: B. Uttarakhand Explanation: Badri is important for Himalayan bovine diversity and mountain agriculture, where hardy low-input animals matter more than high yield. India has over 50 officially recognised indigenous cattle breeds, valued for climate adaptability, disease resistance and A2 beta-casein milk. 5. ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar recently produced indigenous calves through OPU-IVF-ET for the first time at the institute. Which breed were these calves? A. GirB. MurrahC. SahiwalD. TharparkarE. Ongole View Answer Answer: C. Sahiwal Explanation: The programme began in 2022-23 to standardise OPU-IVF-ET protocols under both farm and field conditions, with Sahiwal cattle, Tharparkar cattle and Murrah buffalo as the target breeds. The chain runs elite female to ovum pick-up to in vitro fertilisation to embryo transfer in a synchronised recipient. 6. Moth bean, the drought-hardy pulse in the news, has which botanical name? A. Vigna radiataB. Vigna mungoC. Vigna unguiculataD. Vigna aconitifoliaE. Cajanus cajan View Answer Answer: D. Vigna aconitifolia Explanation: Also called mat bean, Turkish gram or dew bean, it is a short-day annual legume of the family Fabaceae. Vigna radiata is moong, Vigna mungo is urad and Vigna unguiculata is cowpea, so the genus is shared but the species differ. Rhizobium symbiosis in its root nodules fixes atmospheric nitrogen. 7. The moth bean varieties CAZRI Moth-4, 5, 6 and 7 demonstrated resilience in Kharif 2026 by surviving a dry spell of what duration? A. 15 daysB. 20 daysC. 25 daysD. 30 daysE. 35 days View Answer Answer: E. 35 days Explanation: The dry spell ran from 3 August to 7 September 2026 in an El Nino year, against normal dry spells of only 20 to 30 days in the region. The crop survives through developmental plasticity, flowering at about 30 days and adjusting its maturity to available moisture. The varieties come from ICAR-CAZRI, Jodhpur. 8. Moth bean is cultivated most extensively in which region of India? A. Thar Desert region of western RajasthanB. Vidarbha region of MaharashtraC. Telangana plateauD. Bundelkhand region of Uttar PradeshE. Terai belt of Bihar View Answer Answer: A. Thar Desert region of western Rajasthan Explanation: It is also grown in parts of Gujarat, Haryana and Punjab, on nearly 10 lakh hectares with a yield of about 350 kg per hectare. It thrives on poor sandy soils, rainfall of 150 to 250 mm and temperatures above 40 degrees Celsius. Its dry fodder, called Pala, is valued for desert livestock. 9. Schizopygopsis waddellii, recorded in India for the first time, was found in which water body? A. Tso Moriri in LadakhB. Yamdok Lake in TibetC. Pangkang Teng Tso Lake in Tawang districtD. Loktak Lake in ManipurE. Gurudongmar Lake in Sikkim View Answer Answer: C. Pangkang Teng Tso Lake in Tawang district Explanation: The lake lies at 12,800 feet in Arunachal Pradesh. The cold-adapted snowtrout of the family Cyprinidae was confirmed by ICAR-CIFRI-Coldwater with the State Fisheries Department using an integrative taxonomic approach combining morphology with mitochondrial DNA analysis. Yamdok Lake in Tibet is its type locality, not the Indian record. 10. The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026, notified to come into force from 1 October 2026, replaces a law enacted in which year? A. 1872B. 1881C. 1891D. 1934E. 1949 View Answer Answer: C. 1891 Explanation: The new Act received Presidential assent on 13 August 2026 and replaces a 135-year-old statute. It governs admissibility, certification and legal validity of bank records as prima facie evidence without producing original physical registers, creating a technology-neutral regime for digital, virtual and cloud-based financial data. 11. Which of the following is a feature of the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026? A. It applies only to public sector banks and excludes private banksB. It empowers the Central Government to extend the Act to NBFCs and fintechs by notificationC. It makes production of original physical ledgers compulsory in all civil suitsD. It removes Post

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 12 September, 2026 1. The Operational Guidelines for DILRMP 3.0, launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, provide for a Central Sector Scheme with an outlay of how much for the period 2026-2031? A. Rs 365.50 croreB. Rs 465.50 croreC. Rs 565.50 croreD. Rs 765.50 croreE. Rs 1,565.50 crore View Answer Answer: C. Rs 565.50 crore Explanation: DILRMP 3.0 was launched by Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan at Krishi Bhawan, New Delhi. Being a Central Sector Scheme, the entire outlay is borne by the Centre rather than shared with States. Its aim is an integrated GIS-based digital land records ecosystem that improves citizen access to land-related services. 2. Under DILRMP 3.0, the Bhu-Aadhaar or Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) assigned to every land parcel in the country consists of how many digits? A. 10 digitsB. 12 digitsC. 14 digitsD. 16 digitsE. 18 digits View Answer Answer: C. 14 digits Explanation: Bhu-Aadhaar works like a permanent address for land, so that a parcel can be tracked across sale, partition and mutation without ambiguity. A single identifier lets revenue records, registration data and survey maps be linked together, which is the core idea behind the digital land records ecosystem. 3. The Registration Seva Kendras (RSKs) component of DILRMP 3.0 involves upgrading 75 high-footfall Sub-Registrar Offices on the model of which existing citizen-service facility? A. Common Service CentresB. Passport Seva KendrasC. Aadhaar Seva KendrasD. Bank Mitra outletsE. Krishi Vigyan Kendras View Answer Answer: B. Passport Seva Kendras Explanation: Sub-Registrar Offices handle property registration and are among the most crowded revenue offices. Modelling them on Passport Seva Kendras brings appointment systems, queue management and a front-office/back-office split. The other two components are the Revenue Court Case Management System and NAKSHA for urban survey. 4. The NAKSHA component under DILRMP 3.0 relates to which of the following? A. GIS-based land survey of urban habitations and issue of Urban Property CardsB. Digitisation of forest boundary maps in tribal districtsC. Drone mapping of village abadi land under SVAMITVAD. Consolidation of agricultural landholdings in eastern StatesE. Mapping of coastal regulation zones along the Indian coastline View Answer Answer: A. GIS-based land survey of urban habitations and issue of Urban Property Cards Explanation: NAKSHA stands for National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations. Urban land records in India have historically been weaker than rural revenue records, so the pilot is being accelerated to create accurate urban maps and issue UrPro Cards to property holders. 5. The report “Unincorporated Sector at the District Level: Insights from ASUSE 2025” was released by which organisation? A. Reserve Bank of IndiaB. NITI AayogC. National Statistical Office under MoSPID. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium EnterprisesE. Central Statistics Office of the Ministry of Finance View Answer Answer: C. National Statistical Office under MoSPI Explanation: This is the first time India has received estimates of the unincorporated non-agricultural sector at the district level. ASUSE covers the survey period January to December 2025 and captures small shops, street vendors, repair units and household enterprises that are not registered as companies under the Companies Act. 6. As per the district-level ASUSE 2025 estimates, which district accounted for the highest share within Telangana? A. HyderabadB. RangareddyC. WarangalD. KarimnagarE. Nizamabad View Answer Answer: B. Rangareddy Explanation: Rangareddy topped Telangana with 23.53 per cent, the highest single-district share among the States listed. Other State toppers include Surat in Gujarat at 19.43 per cent, North 24 Parganas in West Bengal at 15.99 per cent and Ludhiana in Punjab at 14.74 per cent, showing how activity clusters around industrial and peri-urban districts. 7. Shalimar Sugandh, also called Kashur Basmat, is a newly developed variety of which crop? A. WheatB. MaizeC. RiceD. SaffronE. Mustard View Answer Answer: C. Rice Explanation: It is a fine grain aromatic rice variety developed at the Mountain Research Centre for Field Crops, Khudwani, under SKUAST-Kashmir. Development began in 2021 and certified seed reached farmers in 2024. An aromatic variety lets Valley farmers diversify from ordinary paddy into a higher-value crop. 8. The Geographical Indication tag for Basmati rice, registered in 2016, is held by which body? A. Indian Council of Agricultural ResearchB. APEDAC. Food Corporation of IndiaD. National Seeds CorporationE. Ministry of Commerce and Industry directly View Answer Answer: B. APEDA Explanation: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority regulates Basmati exports and holds the GI. The GI area covers Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Delhi, 30 districts of western Uttar Pradesh and Jammu, Kathua and Samba in J&K. Pakistan has contested India’s claim in the European Union. 9. In the Ladakh glacial water initiative at Chuchot and nearby villages, the nallah tapped for irrigation is fed by which glacier? A. Siachen GlacierB. Drang-Drung GlacierC. Stok Kangri GlacierD. Gangotri GlacierE. Pensilungpa Glacier View Answer Answer: C. Stok Kangri Glacier Explanation: The Stok village nallah carries nearly 90 million litres daily, which was flowing unused into the Indus while fields nearby went short of water. Instead of building costly new infrastructure, basic earthwork linked the stream to existing canals, now irrigating over 1,000 acres across 12 villages. 10. Project CHAYANKAN, taken up by NIT Rourkela with ISRO-NRSC and the Tea Board, uses AI and geospatial technology for which purpose? A. Monitoring of tea plantationsB. Forecasting of coffee berry borer outbreaksC. Mapping of rubber plantations in the North EastD. Estimating spice acreage in the Western GhatsE. Tracking cardamom exports from Kerala View Answer Answer: A. Monitoring of tea plantations Explanation: CHAYANKAN combines satellite imagery, UAV-based hyperspectral data and ground observations for plantation mapping, yield estimation, crop-health assessment and pest and disease forecasting. The three-year project runs from April 2026 to March 2029, an example of remote sensing being applied to plantation crop

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!💡 Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC💡 Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts. Daily Current Affairs 11 September, 2026 1. UNCCD COP17 concluded at which venue, and under what theme? A. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia; “Our Land, Our Future”B. Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia; “Restoring Land, Restoring Hope”C. Abidjan, Cote d’Ivoire; “Land, Life, Legacy”D. New Delhi, India; “Restoring Land, Restoring Hope”E. Nairobi, Kenya; “Land for Life” View Answer Answer: B. Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia; “Restoring Land, Restoring Hope” Explanation: The session focused on rangeland conservation, drought financing and community-led restoration, though it deadlocked over a binding global drought treaty. Holding it in Mongolia was symbolically apt — 77 per cent of Mongolian land is degraded, against 40 per cent globally. India hosted COP14 at New Delhi in 2019. 2. Which statement about the UNCCD is correct? A. It was adopted at Rio in 1992 and has 154 PartiesB. It was adopted at Paris on 17 June 1994, is one of the three Rio Conventions along with the UNFCCC and CBD, and is the only legally binding international agreement on land managementC. It is a non-binding declaration administered by UNEPD. It was adopted at Kyoto in 1997 and its finance arm is the Green Climate FundE. It is legally binding only on developed country Parties View Answer Answer: B. It was adopted at Paris on 17 June 1994, is one of the three Rio Conventions along with the UNFCCC and CBD, and is the only legally binding international agreement on land management Explanation: The Convention emerged from the 1992 Rio Earth Summit and now has 197 Parties. Its finance arm is the Global Mechanism. The central goal, Land Degradation Neutrality, corresponds directly to SDG target 15.3, which is how land restoration links to the wider development agenda. 3. Which of the following outcomes or facts associated with UNCCD COP17 is correct? A. Drought becomes a standalone agenda item from COP18, and the Drought Resilience Investment Facility was co-launched with LuxembourgB. A binding global drought treaty was adopted by consensusC. The Drought Resilience Index was abandoned in favour of a rainfall indexD. Drought was removed from the COP agenda entirelyE. The Drought Resilience Investment Facility was co-launched with Norway View Answer Answer: A. Drought becomes a standalone agenda item from COP18, and the Drought Resilience Investment Facility was co-launched with Luxembourg Explanation: Parties could not agree on a binding drought protocol, so elevating drought to a standalone agenda item is the compromise outcome. The Drought Resilience Index and the DRIF are the operational instruments. COP17 coincided with the International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists in 2026, and about 30 per cent of India’s land is degraded per the SAC-ISRO Atlas. 4. The 9th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2026 was launched at Varanasi. What are its observance period and central theme? A. 1 to 30 September 2026; “Sahi Poshan Desh Roshan”B. 9 September to 8 October 2026; “Hamari Anganwadi Hamari Jimmedari”C. 1 September to 30 September 2026; “Hamari Anganwadi Hamari Jimmedari”D. 9 September to 8 October 2026; “Poshan Bhi Padhai Bhi”E. 15 September to 14 October 2026; “Suposhit Bharat” View Answer Answer: B. 9 September to 8 October 2026; “Hamari Anganwadi Hamari Jimmedari” Explanation: Union Minister Annapurna Devi of the Ministry of Women and Child Development launched it at the Rudraksh International Cooperation and Convention Centre. The theme calls for shared community ownership of Anganwadi centres. Focus areas are dietary diversity and adequate protein, fresh hot cooked meals, community accountability, and linking nutrition with early childhood development. 5. The proposed Article 371(K) for Ladakh would be inserted as a chapter under which Part of the Constitution, and what would it create? A. Part IX; a three-tier panchayati raj structure for LadakhB. Part XXI — Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions; a directly elected Union Territory-level governing body with legislative authority over specified subjectsC. Part VI; a full-fledged State legislature for LadakhD. Part X; Sixth Schedule autonomous district councilsE. Part XI; an expanded role for the Lieutenant Governor View Answer Answer: B. Part XXI — Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions; a directly elected Union Territory-level governing body with legislative authority over specified subjects Explanation: Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, Ladakh became a Union Territory without a legislative assembly, leaving governance largely with the Lieutenant Governor and bureaucracy while the LAHDC councils of Leh and Kargil were sidelined. The Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance pressed for statehood and Sixth Schedule status; this proposal offers a sui generis middle path without granting either. 6. Project CHAYANKAN, for which an MoU was signed by NIT Rourkela, ISRO-NRSC and the Tea Board of India, relates to: A. Coffee plantation soil mapping in the Western GhatsB. AI-based geospatial data analytics for tea plantation monitoring, including yield estimation and pest and disease forecastingC. Satellite tracking of tea exports and shipping consignmentsD. Cloud seeding over tea-growing districts of AssamE. Genetic improvement of tea clones through tissue culture View Answer Answer: B. AI-based geospatial data analytics for tea plantation monitoring, including yield estimation and pest and disease forecasting Explanation: CHAYANKAN stands for Comprehensive AI-based Geospatial Data Analytics for Tea Plantation Monitoring, and runs from April 2026 to March 2029. It combines satellite imagery, UAV hyperspectral data, ground observations and AI. Early pest and disease forecasting matters commercially because tea quality and price collapse quickly once an outbreak spreads through a garden. 7. Bihar signed an MoU with which foreign entity to establish a dedicated food processing park? A. Singapore’s Temasek HoldingsB. UAE-based AIM Global FoundationC. Japan’s JICAD. Israel’s MASHAVE. Netherlands’ Wageningen Foundation View Answer Answer: B. UAE-based AIM Global Foundation Explanation: The aim is to draw UAE and Gulf investment into Bihar’s agro-food sector and promote value addition, processing, exports and employment. For a state with high agricultural output but thin processing capacity, the more significant gain may be