January 2026 Current Affairs Quiz PDF with Answers
210 MCQs from 21 daily quizzes · NABARD Grade A, RBI Grade B, SEBI Grade A
Attempt each question before you open the answer. The Exam Ready PDF is the month’s must-know questions, grouped by topic — the one to take the week before the exam.
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1 & 2 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. According to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report, 2024, what is India’s national stage of groundwater extraction?
- A. 45.30%
- B. 52.18%
- C. 60.47%
- D. 68.25%
- E. 72.90%
View answer
Answer: C. 60.47%
The report states that annual groundwater extraction is 245.64 BCM with a national stage of extraction at 60.47%, indicating relative sustainability at the national level.
2. Which of the following regions shows persistent groundwater stress despite national-level improvement?
- A. Eastern India
- B. North-East India
- C. Coastal Andhra Pradesh
- D. North-West India
- E. Himalayan region
View answer
Answer: D. North-West India
Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Delhi in North-West India continue to face groundwater stress due to water-intensive agriculture and arid conditions.
3. BSNL’s Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) service primarily operates using which technological framework?
- A. LTE Core
- B. GSM Network
- C. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
- D. Satellite Communication
- E. VoIP Gateways
View answer
Answer: C. IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
VoWiFi operates on the IMS framework, enabling calls and SMS over Wi-Fi without using cellular towers.
4. The Central Excise (Amendment) Act, 2025 mainly aims to achieve which of the following objectives?
- A. Increase GST collections
- B. Subsidise tobacco farmers
- C. Reduce tobacco affordability
- D. Promote exports of tobacco
- E. Harmonise excise with petroleum taxes
View answer
Answer: C. Reduce tobacco affordability
The Act significantly raises excise duties on tobacco products to align with public health objectives and discourage consumption.
5. The Financial Stability Report (FSR) is released by which institution?
- A. Ministry of Finance
- B. SEBI
- C. RBI
- D. NITI Aayog
- E. IMF
View answer
Answer: C. RBI
The Financial Stability Report is a half-yearly publication of the Reserve Bank of India assessing risks to the financial system.
6. Recently, banks have been allowed to sponsor pension funds under which scheme?
- A. Atal Pension Yojana
- B. EPFO
- C. National Pension System
- D. PM-SYM
- E. National Social Security Scheme
View answer
Answer: C. National Pension System
PFRDA has allowed banks to independently sponsor pension funds under the National Pension System (NPS).
7. Which regulatory authority permitted 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the insurance sector through notified rules?
- A. RBI
- B. SEBI
- C. IRDAI
- D. Ministry of Finance
- E. Department of Economic Affairs
View answer
Answer: D. Ministry of Finance
The Ministry of Finance notified final rules enabling 100% FDI in insurance after legislative approval.
8. Climate-Resilient Agriculture (CRA) primarily focuses on which of the following?
- A. Increasing chemical fertiliser use
- B. Expanding monoculture farming
- C. Adapting agriculture to climate shocks
- D. Export-oriented farming only
- E. Large-scale irrigation dams
View answer
Answer: C. Adapting agriculture to climate shocks
CRA integrates biotechnology, AI, and sustainable practices to help farming systems adapt to climate variability.
9. Under the government’s new seed push announced in January 2026, cotton seeds released continue to belong to which category?
- A. Bt-I hybrids
- B. Non-GM varieties
- C. Genome-edited varieties
- D. Bt-II hybrids
- E. Organic open-pollinated seeds
View answer
Answer: D. Bt-II hybrids
All newly released cotton seeds remain Bt-II hybrids, indicating continuity in pest-resistant technology.
10. The integrated e-Bill System for fertiliser subsidies primarily aims to achieve which of the following?
- A. Increase fertiliser prices
- B. Replace nutrient-based subsidy
- C. Digitise subsidy processing
- D. Promote organic farming
- E. Reduce fertiliser production
View answer
Answer: C. Digitise subsidy processing
The e-Bill System enables end-to-end digital submission, processing, tracking, and payment of fertiliser subsidy bills.
3 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. With reference to Venezuela, consider the following statements:
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
- E. 2 only
View answer
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Venezuela lies in Northern South America and borders Colombia, Brazil, and Guyana. Its political system is a presidential republic, not a parliamentary democracy.
2. The discovery of sugars, amino acids, and nucleobases on asteroid Bennu supports which of the following theories?
- A. Spontaneous generation of life on Earth
- B. Hydrothermal vent origin of life
- C. Extraterrestrial contribution to the origin of life
- D. Creationism
- E. RNA world theory without external inputs
View answer
Answer: C. Extraterrestrial contribution to the origin of life
OSIRIS-REx samples from Bennu confirm the presence of all molecular components required for life, supporting the theory that life’s building blocks arrived from space.
3. Suryastra, recently procured by the Indian Army, is best described as:
- A. A short-range surface-to-air missile
- B. India’s first universal multi-calibre rocket launcher
- C. A naval cruise missile system
- D. A drone-based artillery platform
- E. An anti-tank guided missile
View answer
Answer: B. India’s first universal multi-calibre rocket launcher
Suryastra is a Made-in-India long-range rocket launcher capable of firing multiple rocket types from a single platform.
4. What is the primary objective of the publication “Know Your Survey: A User Guide to ASUSE”?
- A. Increase tax compliance
- B. Simplify statistical communication for citizens
- C. Replace existing economic surveys
- D. Train enumerators only
- E. Promote private data agencies
View answer
Answer: B. Simplify statistical communication for citizens
The guide uses non-technical language to improve public trust and understanding of ASUSE data.
5. Savitribai Phule is correctly associated with which of the following?
- A. First woman governor of India
- B. Founder of Arya Samaj
- C. Establishment of India’s first girls’ school
- D. Leader of the Swadeshi Movement
- E. Founder of Aligarh Movement
View answer
Answer: C. Establishment of India’s first girls’ school
In 1848, Savitribai Phule co-founded India’s first girls’ school at Bhidewada, Pune.
6. PRAGATI platform is primarily aimed at:
- A. Electoral reforms
- B. Real-time monitoring and resolution of project delays
- C. Agricultural price support
- D. Defence procurement
- E. Judicial case management
View answer
Answer: B. Real-time monitoring and resolution of project delays
PRAGATI is an ICT-enabled governance platform focused on resolving infrastructure and development project bottlenecks.
7. Under the export credit collateral support scheme, what is the maximum guarantee coverage for micro and small MSME exporters?
- A. 50%
- B. 60%
- C. 70%
- D. 85%
- E. 100%
View answer
Answer: D. 85%
The scheme provides up to 85% credit-guarantee coverage for micro and small exporters to boost bank lending.
8. Which of the following is NOT a permitted mode for foreign banks to operate in India?
- A. Branch Mode
- B. Wholly Owned Subsidiary
- C. Representative (Liaison) Office
- D. Cooperative Bank Model
- E. RBI-regulated entry framework
View answer
Answer: D. Cooperative Bank Model
Foreign banks can operate through branches, WOS, or liaison offices, but not as cooperative banks.
9. SEBI’s proposed technology road map for MIIs mainly focuses on:
- A. Increasing number of listed companies
- B. Cyber resilience and AI-based supervision
- C. Reducing trading hours
- D. Removing clearing corporations
- E. Limiting foreign investment
View answer
Answer: B. Cyber resilience and AI-based supervision
SEBI emphasises AI-driven surveillance, risk management, and cyber security for future-ready markets.
10. India’s position as the world’s largest rice producer is primarily supported by:
- A. Desert agriculture expansion
- B. River floodplains, deltas, and irrigation infrastructure
- C. Mechanised farming only
- D. Genetically modified rice adoption
- E. Decline in global rice demand
View answer
Answer: B. River floodplains, deltas, and irrigation infrastructure
India’s rice dominance is driven by favourable climate, river systems, fertile alluvial soils, and irrigation-led productivity.
4 & 5 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) primarily aims to achieve which of the following?
- A. Universal health insurance for women
- B. Conditional cash transfer for first living child
- C. Free institutional delivery for all women
- D. Nutrition support for all children below 5 years
- E. Wage compensation for all informal workers
View answer
Answer: B. Conditional cash transfer for first living child
PMMVY provides conditional cash assistance to pregnant and lactating women for their first living child to improve maternal health and nutrition.
2. Under PMMVY, what is the total maternity benefit a woman effectively receives, including Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)?
- A. ₹5,000
- B. ₹5,500
- C. ₹6,000
- D. ₹6,500
- E. ₹7,000
View answer
Answer: C. ₹6,000
PMMVY provides ₹5,000 and an additional ₹1,000 is provided under JSY, fulfilling the NFSA mandate of ₹6,000.
3. The ‘first-to-finish incentive model’ is a key feature of which scheme?
- A. Production Linked Incentive Scheme
- B. Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme
- C. Startup India Scheme
- D. National Manufacturing Mission
- E. Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme
View answer
Answer: B. Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme
ECMS rewards companies that complete production milestones early, encouraging speed and efficiency.
4. Rah-Veer (Good Samaritan) Scheme is notified under which legal provision?
- A. Section 135 of CrPC
- B. Section 124A of IPC
- C. Section 134A of Motor Vehicles Act
- D. Section 45 of Evidence Act
- E. Section 12 of Disaster Management Act
View answer
Answer: C. Section 134A of Motor Vehicles Act
Rah-Veer is notified under Section 134A of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.
5. Olive Ridley sea turtles are globally known for which unique nesting phenomenon?
- A. Solo nesting
- B. Cliff nesting
- C. Nocturnal nesting
- D. Arribada
- E. Seasonal hibernation
View answer
Answer: D. Arribada
Arribada refers to mass nesting where thousands of Olive Ridley turtles nest simultaneously on selected beaches.
6. Insurance misselling has been flagged as a major concern by which regulator?
- A. RBI
- B. SEBI
- C. IRDAI
- D. PFRDA
- E. IBBI
View answer
Answer: C. IRDAI
IRDAI has highlighted misselling as a serious issue and advised insurers to undertake root-cause analysis.
7. RBI has allowed existing non-compliant related-party loans to continue till when?
- A. One year from notification
- B. Five years from sanction
- C. Till regulatory approval
- D. Till contractual maturity
- E. Till asset classification review
View answer
Answer: D. Till contractual maturity
RBI permitted run-off of existing exposures till maturity without renewal or enhancement.
8. Reduced risk weights for NBFC infrastructure lending are linked to which key factor?
- A. Credit rating only
- B. Project size
- C. Repayment of original project debt
- D. Government guarantee
- E. Promoter equity contribution
View answer
Answer: C. Repayment of original project debt
RBI retained repayment-based criteria, lowering repayment thresholds to qualify for reduced risk weights.
9. The dramatic rise in farmers’ income in Beed district was primarily driven by which factor?
- A. MSP increase
- B. Loan waivers
- C. Crop diversification with water security
- D. Free electricity
- E. Mechanisation subsidies
View answer
Answer: C. Crop diversification with water security
Shift to high-value horticulture combined with groundwater recharge transformed farm incomes.
10. Which organisation released 184 new crop varieties with improved climate resilience and nutrition?
- A. NABARD
- B. ICAR
- C. NITI Aayog
- D. FAO
- E. Ministry of Environment
View answer
Answer: B. ICAR
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research developed and released 184 new varieties across 25 crops.
6 & 7 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), courts deny bail primarily on the basis of which provision?
- A. Section 14
- B. Section 19
- C. Section 43D(5)
- D. Section 39
- E. Section 10
View answer
Answer: C. Section 43D(5)
Section 43D(5) of UAPA states that bail can be denied if the court finds accusations to be prima facie true, even without examining detailed evidence. Considerations like long incarceration carry limited weight.
2. ICGS Samudra Pratap, recently commissioned, is significant because it is:
- A. India’s first nuclear-powered Coast Guard ship
- B. India’s first indigenously designed Pollution Control Vessel
- C. India’s largest naval destroyer
- D. India’s first LNG-powered patrol vessel
- E. India’s first underwater surveillance ship
View answer
Answer: B. India’s first indigenously designed Pollution Control Vessel
ICGS Samudra Pratap is India’s first indigenously designed Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) and also the largest ship in the Indian Coast Guard fleet.
3. India’s newly introduced e-Production Investment Business Visa (e-B-4) is primarily meant for:
- A. Tourism by foreign nationals
- B. Employment-based migration
- C. Research and academic exchange
- D. Manufacturing and production-related business activities
- E. Cultural exchange programmes
View answer
Answer: D. Manufacturing and production-related business activities
The e-B-4 visa allows Chinese nationals to visit India for installation, commissioning, and production-linked investment activities, not tourism or employment.
4. Aditya-L1 mission is positioned at the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point-1 mainly to:
- A. Reduce launch fuel requirements
- B. Avoid atmospheric drag
- C. Enable uninterrupted solar observation
- D. Study lunar eclipses
- E. Monitor Earth’s climate systems
View answer
Answer: C. Enable uninterrupted solar observation
L1 provides a stable gravitational location allowing continuous, eclipse-free observation of the Sun, essential for studying solar flares, CMEs, and space weather.
5. The Somnath Temple is historically significant because:
- A. It was never destroyed
- B. It is the oldest Buddhist shrine
- C. It represents repeated destruction and reconstruction
- D. It was built during the Mughal period
- E. It was constructed entirely during British rule
View answer
Answer: C. It represents repeated destruction and reconstruction
Somnath Temple was destroyed and rebuilt multiple times over centuries, making it a symbol of cultural resilience and civilisational continuity.
6. The National Environmental Standard Laboratory (NESL) inaugurated in India focuses on:
- A. Climate modelling
- B. Forest biodiversity mapping
- C. Calibration of air pollution monitoring instruments
- D. Wastewater recycling research
- E. Carbon trading certification
View answer
Answer: C. Calibration of air pollution monitoring instruments
NESL is an apex facility for testing, calibration, and certification of air pollution monitoring instruments under Indian environmental conditions.
7. India’s Loan-to-Deposit Ratio (LDR) touching 81% indicates:
- A. Excess liquidity in banks
- B. Weak credit demand
- C. Aggressive lending relative to deposits
- D. Decline in MSME lending
- E. Falling interest rates
View answer
Answer: C. Aggressive lending relative to deposits
An 81% LDR means banks have lent ₹81 for every ₹100 of deposits, signalling tight liquidity and faster credit growth than deposit mobilisation.
8. The Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) derives its statutory authority from:
- A. RBI Act, 1934
- B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- C. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
- D. Companies Act, 2013
- E. Finance Act, 2024
View answer
Answer: C. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
PRB is established under Section 3 of the PSS Act, 2007, replacing the earlier BPSS to regulate payment systems.
9. Under RBI’s proposed dividend framework, banks with CET1 capital below 8%:
- A. Can pay up to 25% dividend
- B. Can pay dividend with RBI approval
- C. Can pay dividend only once in two years
- D. Are not allowed to pay any dividend
- E. Can pay dividend after provisioning
View answer
Answer: D. Are not allowed to pay any dividend
RBI’s graded framework prohibits dividend payouts if CET1 capital falls below 8%, ensuring capital protection.
10. Which of the following best explains India’s distorted fertiliser use pattern?
- A. Excess use of potassium
- B. High subsidy on phosphatic fertilisers
- C. Heavy subsidisation of urea
- D. Lack of irrigation facilities
- E. Declining soil fertility alone
View answer
Answer: C. Heavy subsidisation of urea
Cheap urea has led to excessive nitrogen use, causing NPK imbalance (10.9:4.4:4 instead of ideal 4:2:1), environmental damage, and declining productivity.
8 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. EOS-N1 (Anvesha), launched by ISRO in January 2026, is primarily designed for which purpose?
- A. Deep space exploration
- B. Navigation services
- C. Earth observation and surveillance
- D. Communication broadcasting
- E. Weather forecasting
View answer
Answer: C. Earth observation and surveillance
EOS-N1 (Anvesha) is an advanced Earth Observation satellite designed for high-resolution imaging, surveillance, and reconnaissance for strategic and civilian use.
2. India’s climate target of reducing emissions intensity of GDP by 45% is measured with reference to which base year?
- A. 1990
- B. 2000
- C. 2005
- D. 2010
- E. 2015
View answer
Answer: C. 2005
Under its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC), India aims to reduce emissions intensity by 45% from the 2005 level by 2030.
3. Which of the following newly discovered species is noted for being strong enough for a human to sit on it?
- A. Dolomedes indicus
- B. Rhinophis siruvaniensis
- C. Bridgeoporus kanadii
- D. Neelus sikkimensis
- E. Ophiorrhiza mizoramensis
View answer
Answer: C. Bridgeoporus kanadii
Bridgeoporus kanadii is a colossal macro fungus discovered in Arunachal Pradesh with a thick, leathery fruiting body capable of supporting human weight.
4. The National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) primarily functions as which of the following?
- A. A central intelligence database
- B. A biometric identification authority
- C. A secure data storage platform
- D. A real-time intelligence data-sharing middleware
- E. A cyber-security command centre
View answer
Answer: D. A real-time intelligence data-sharing middleware
NATGRID does not store data; it connects multiple databases and allows authorised agencies to query information in real time.
5. India became the world’s first country to commercially produce bio-bitumen using which primary raw material?
- A. Sugarcane bagasse
- B. Bamboo fibre
- C. Rice straw
- D. Corn husk
- E. Coconut shell
View answer
Answer: C. Rice straw
Bio-bitumen developed by CSIR institutions is produced mainly from rice straw, helping reduce stubble burning and fossil fuel usage.
6. ‘The Fortuna Wave’, recently launched by Federal Bank, symbolises which set of values?
- A. Growth, Stability, Innovation
- B. Trust, Security, Growth
- C. Authenticity, Togetherness, Prosperity
- D. Transparency, Speed, Inclusion
- E. Digitalisation, Safety, Expansion
View answer
Answer: C. Authenticity, Togetherness, Prosperity
The three waves in Federal Bank’s refreshed brand identity represent authenticity, togetherness, and prosperity.
7. According to RBI’s proposal, after completing 10 continuous years on a co-operative bank board, a director must observe a cooling-off period of:
- A. 1 year
- B. 2 years
- C. 3 years
- D. 5 years
- E. 10 years
View answer
Answer: C. 3 years
RBI has proposed a mandatory 3-year cooling-off period after 10 years of continuous service on a co-operative bank board.
8. RBI is considering new relief measures for exporters mainly due to losses caused by:
- A. Currency depreciation
- B. EU sanctions
- C. Rising logistics costs
- D. High U.S. import tariffs
- E. Domestic tax reforms
View answer
Answer: D. High U.S. import tariffs
U.S. tariffs of up to 50% on certain Indian goods have severely impacted exporters, prompting RBI to explore additional relief measures.
9. Under SEBI’s extended incentive scheme, what is the maximum incentive a mutual fund distributor can earn per eligible investor?
- A. ₹1,000
- B. ₹1,500
- C. ₹2,000
- D. ₹2,500
- E. ₹3,000
View answer
Answer: C. ₹2,000
SEBI allows distributors to earn up to ₹2,000 per eligible investor, calculated as 1% of the first investment or first-year SIP.
10. The incentive for mutual fund distributors is paid from which existing provision?
- A. AMFI development fund
- B. Trail commission reserve
- C. Investor Protection Fund
- D. CSR allocation of AMCs
- E. 2 basis points earmarked for investor education
View answer
Answer: E. 2 basis points earmarked for investor education
SEBI clarified that the distributor incentive will be funded from the already earmarked 2 basis points meant for investor education.
9 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. According to UN DESA, what is India’s projected GDP growth rate for FY 2025–26?
- A. 6.5%
- B. 6.8%
- C. 7.0%
- D. 7.2%
- E. 7.8%
View answer
Answer: D. 7.2%
The UN DESA projected India’s GDP growth at 7.2% for FY 2025–26 in its World Economic Situation and Prospects 2026 report.
2. Which of the following factors has NOT been identified by UN DESA as a key driver of India’s growth?
- A. Resilient domestic consumption
- B. Robust public investment
- C. Supply-side expansion
- D. High export demand from the US
- E. Manufacturing and services growth
View answer
Answer: D. High export demand from the US
UN DESA highlighted domestic consumption, public investment, and supply-side expansion, but did not cite high US export demand as a key growth driver.
3. Under the proposed nationwide cashless treatment scheme for road accident victims, what is the maximum coverage amount per victim?
- A. ₹50,000
- B. ₹1 lakh
- C. ₹1.25 lakh
- D. ₹1.5 lakh
- E. ₹2 lakh
View answer
Answer: D. ₹1.5 lakh
The scheme provides cashless medical treatment of up to ₹1.5 lakh per road accident victim during the Golden Hour.
4. ICJS 2.0 follows which guiding principle to improve transparency and reduce duplication?
- A. One Nation, One Law
- B. Digital First Governance
- C. One Data, One Entry
- D. Integrated Justice Model
- E. Single Window System
View answer
Answer: C. One Data, One Entry
ICJS 2.0 follows the “One Data, One Entry” principle to avoid duplication and enhance transparency in the criminal justice system.
5. Under which provision of the RBI Act, 1934 were 35 NBFC registrations cancelled?
- A. Section 21
- B. Section 35A
- C. Section 45-IB
- D. Section 45-IA(6)
- E. Section 58B
View answer
Answer: D. Section 45-IA(6)
RBI cancelled the registrations of 35 NBFCs under Section 45-IA(6) of the RBI Act, 1934 for regulatory non-compliance.
6. Which institution partnered with EPFO to enable instant PF advance withdrawal through the BHIM app?
- A. UIDAI
- B. NPCI
- C. NABARD
- D. IRDAI
- E. SEBI
View answer
Answer: B. NPCI
EPFO partnered with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate instant PF withdrawals via the BHIM app.
7. What was the GDP deflator in FY 2025–26, according to NSO estimates?
- A. 1.8%
- B. 1.2%
- C. 0.9%
- D. 0.5%
- E. 0.2%
View answer
Answer: D. 0.5%
The GDP deflator was estimated at 0.5%, the lowest in nearly 50 years, indicating extremely low inflation.
8. Specialised Investment Funds (SIFs) are positioned between which two investment categories in terms of risk and flexibility?
- A. Equity and Debt Funds
- B. Mutual Funds and Hedge Funds
- C. Banks and NBFCs
- D. Mutual Funds and AIFs
- E. Pension Funds and Insurance
View answer
Answer: D. Mutual Funds and AIFs
SIFs are designed to bridge the gap between traditional mutual funds and Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).
9. The proposed Pesticides Management Bill aims to replace which existing legislation?
- A. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
- B. Environment Protection Act, 1986
- C. Insecticides Act, 1968
- D. Fertilizer Control Order, 1985
- E. Seeds Act, 1966
View answer
Answer: C. Insecticides Act, 1968
The draft Pesticides Management Bill seeks to replace the outdated Insecticides Act of 1968.
10. Which body under the proposed Pesticides Management Bill will maintain a digital national register of pesticides?
- A. Central Pesticides Board
- B. Ministry of Agriculture
- C. State Agriculture Departments
- D. Registration Committee
- E. National Biodiversity Authority
View answer
Answer: D. Registration Committee
The Registration Committee will approve pesticides and maintain a digital national register under the new Bill.
10 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Greenland enjoys self-rule under which legal framework that also recognises its right to self-determination?
- A. Danish Constitutional Act, 1953
- B. Arctic Governance Treaty, 2001
- C. Self-Rule Act, 2009
- D. Nordic Cooperation Act, 1995
- E. UN Decolonisation Charter
View answer
Answer: C. Self-Rule Act, 2009
The Self-Rule Act, 2009 grants Greenland autonomy over domestic affairs and recognises the Greenlandic people’s right to self-determination, while Denmark retains control over defence and foreign affairs.
2. Which provision of international law prohibits acquisition of territory by force, relevant to the Greenland issue?
- A. UN Charter Article 1(2)
- B. UN Charter Article 51
- C. Geneva Convention Article 3
- D. UN Charter Article 2(4)
- E. Vienna Convention on Treaties
View answer
Answer: D. UN Charter Article 2(4)
Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state.
3. The proposed Sanctioning Russia Act, 2025 allows the US to impose tariffs up to what maximum level on Russian energy buyers?
- A. 100%
- B. 200%
- C. 300%
- D. 400%
- E. 500%
View answer
Answer: E. 500%
The proposed law empowers the US President to impose punitive tariffs of up to 500% on countries importing Russian-origin energy products.
4. The Aadhaar mascot ‘Udai’ was launched by which organisation?
- A. Ministry of Electronics and IT
- B. NITI Aayog
- C. Digital India Corporation
- D. UIDAI
- E. National Informatics Centre
View answer
Answer: D. UIDAI
The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) launched ‘Udai’ to make Aadhaar-related communication more citizen-friendly and accessible.
5. PANKHUDI portal primarily aims to strengthen coordination for which target groups?
- A. Farmers and MSMEs
- B. Senior citizens and persons with disabilities
- C. Students and youth entrepreneurs
- D. Women and children
- E. Tribal communities
View answer
Answer: D. Women and children
PANKHUDI is an integrated digital platform by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to improve service delivery for women and children.
6. India–AI Impact Summit 2026 will be held in which city?
- A. Mumbai
- B. Bengaluru
- C. Hyderabad
- D. Chennai
- E. New Delhi
View answer
Answer: E. New Delhi
The India–AI Impact Summit 2026 is scheduled for 19–20 February 2026 in New Delhi.
7. The National IED Data Management System (NIDMS) is headquartered at which location?
- A. New Delhi
- B. Pune
- C. Chandigarh
- D. Manesar, Haryana
- E. Srinagar
View answer
Answer: D. Manesar, Haryana
NIDMS is headquartered at the National Security Guard (NSG) garrison in Manesar and serves as a centralised IED incident database.
8. SEBI’s revised technical glitch framework applies only to stockbrokers with more than how many registered clients?
- A. 1,000
- B. 5,000
- C. 10,000
- D. 25,000
- E. 50,000
View answer
Answer: C. 10,000
The revised SEBI framework applies only to brokers with more than 10,000 clients, exempting a majority of small brokers.
9. Unclaimed bank deposits are transferred to which fund after remaining inactive for 10 years?
- A. Consolidated Fund of India
- B. Investor Protection Fund
- C. National Asset Reconstruction Fund
- D. Financial Stability Fund
- E. Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund
View answer
Answer: E. Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund
Banks transfer unclaimed deposits to the DEA Fund, which is used for depositor awareness and education initiatives.
10. OSMOS, recently highlighted by RBI, is primarily related to which regulatory function?
- A. Monetary policy transmission
- B. Currency management
- C. Payment system settlement
- D. Offsite supervision of banks
- E. Resolution of failed banks
View answer
Answer: D. Offsite supervision of banks
Offsite Monitoring and Surveillance (OSMOS) enables RBI to conduct real-time, technology-driven supervision of banks without relying solely on onsite inspections.
11 & 12 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. What was a key scientific finding from ISRO’s Aditya-L1 solar mission regarding severe solar storms?
- A. They increase Earth’s gravitational pull
- B. They expand Earth’s magnetosphere outward
- C. They compress Earth’s magnetic field close to the planet
- D. They mainly affect the Moon’s surface
- E. They stop satellite communication permanently
View answer
Answer: C. They compress Earth’s magnetic field close to the planet
Aditya-L1 observed that turbulent regions of solar storms strongly compress Earth’s magnetosphere, sometimes exposing geostationary satellites to harsh space conditions.
2. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is envisioned primarily as:
- A. A robotic-only lunar base
- B. A single-module satellite for Earth observation
- C. A modular space station to host astronauts in LEO
- D. A replacement for PSLV missions
- E. A joint Indo-US space laboratory
View answer
Answer: C. A modular space station to host astronauts in LEO
BAS is planned as a multi-module space station in Low Earth Orbit to ensure sustained human presence in space, succeeding the Gaganyaan programme.
3. What is the primary objective of India’s cooperation with ReCAAP?
- A. Expanding naval trade routes
- B. Combating piracy and armed robbery at sea
- C. Regulating fishing activities
- D. Promoting submarine cable projects
- E. Training marine biologists
View answer
Answer: B. Combating piracy and armed robbery at sea
ReCAAP is a government-to-government framework aimed at enhancing maritime security by preventing piracy and armed robbery against ships.
4. Why did RBI approve Bank of Baroda’s move to set up a Standalone Primary Dealer (SPD) subsidiary?
- A. To increase retail lending
- B. To separate G-Sec trading risks from core banking
- C. To expand foreign exchange operations
- D. To reduce CRR requirements
- E. To promote digital payments
View answer
Answer: B. To separate G-Sec trading risks from core banking
RBI encourages SPDs to ensure clearer separation of risks by hiving off primary dealer activities from banks’ balance sheets.
5. A Payment Aggregator – Cross Border (PA-CB) licence allows an entity to:
- A. Issue cryptocurrencies
- B. Accept only domestic digital payments
- C. Facilitate regulated cross-border payment collection and remittance
- D. Act as a central bank
- E. Trade government securities
View answer
Answer: C. Facilitate regulated cross-border payment collection and remittance
PA-CB entities aggregate international payments for Indian businesses under RBI oversight, ensuring secure and compliant forex transactions.
6. Under stricter FIU norms, crypto exchanges in India must mandatorily collect which of the following?
- A. Aadhaar-linked biometric data only
- B. PAN, geo-location, and selfie with liveness detection
- C. Voter ID details
- D. Passport copies of all users
- E. No KYC information
View answer
Answer: B. PAN, geo-location, and selfie with liveness detection
Enhanced KYC norms include PAN, live selfie verification, geo-coordinates, IP address, and bank verification to curb money laundering.
7. The main objective of the Digital Agriculture Mission (DAM) is to:
- A. Replace farmers with robots
- B. Promote export of farm machinery
- C. Build digital public infrastructure for AI-driven farm decisions
- D. Eliminate subsidies
- E. Privatise agriculture markets
View answer
Answer: C. Build digital public infrastructure for AI-driven farm decisions
DAM focuses on AgriStack, AI analytics, and real-time decision support for farmers and policymakers.
8. Why is Orobanche aegyptiaca particularly dangerous for mustard crops?
- A. It spreads only through water
- B. Damage is visible immediately
- C. It parasitises roots underground before detection
- D. It affects only leaves
- E. It dies within one season
View answer
Answer: C. It parasitises roots underground before detection
The parasitic weed extracts nutrients from mustard roots underground, causing irreversible yield loss before visible symptoms appear.
9. What is the significance of Pashu Aadhaar in India’s dairy sector?
- A. It provides insurance only to farmers
- B. It is a subsidy payment scheme
- C. It uniquely identifies livestock for traceability and health management
- D. It replaces milk cooperatives
- E. It tracks only milk prices
View answer
Answer: C. It uniquely identifies livestock for traceability and health management
Pashu Aadhaar assigns a 12-digit ID to animals, enabling disease surveillance, insurance linkage, and digital dairy management.
10. Achieving fertilizer security mainly helps India by:
- A. Increasing fertilizer exports only
- B. Reducing dependence on food imports
- C. Ensuring timely and affordable fertilizer availability to farmers
- D. Eliminating the need for irrigation
- E. Ending subsidy requirements
View answer
Answer: C. Ensuring timely and affordable fertilizer availability to farmers
Fertilizer security focuses on domestic production, reduced import dependence, and stable supply of key fertilizers to support food security.
13 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Operation Hawkeye, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
- A. UN peacekeeping mission in Iraq
- B. U.S.-led counter-terrorism airstrikes against ISIS in Syria
- C. NATO naval exercise in the Mediterranean
- D. Joint U.S.–Turkey border patrol
- E. Cyber surveillance operation against ISIS
View answer
Answer: B. U.S.-led counter-terrorism airstrikes against ISIS in Syria
Operation Hawkeye is a U.S.-led military operation launched in December 2025 involving air and precision strikes against ISIS targets in Syria, executed by US CENTCOM.
2. Which principle of international law is primarily violated when a state uses force without UN Security Council authorisation or self-defence justification?
- A. Sovereign immunity
- B. Pacta sunt servanda
- C. Article 2(4) of the UN Charter
- D. Article 103 of the UN Charter
- E. Principle of reciprocity
View answer
Answer: C. Article 2(4) of the UN Charter
Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits the threat or use of force against the sovereignty and territorial integrity of any state, unless authorised by the UNSC or justified under self-defence (Article 51).
3. Indusfood 2026, inaugurated in January 2026, is best described as:
- A. A global agriculture subsidy platform
- B. Asia’s premier Food & Beverage sourcing and trade show
- C. An international food security treaty
- D. A farmers’ income support scheme
- E. A UN-backed nutrition programme
View answer
Answer: B. Asia’s premier Food & Beverage sourcing and trade show
Indusfood is Asia’s leading global F&B sourcing and trade exhibition, organised by TPCI under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
4. The first-ever Military–Civil Fusion (MCF) exercise ‘Sanjha Shakti’ was conducted by the Indian Army at:
- A. Pokhran, Rajasthan
- B. Babina, Uttar Pradesh
- C. Diggi Range, Khadki Military Station, Pune
- D. Chandipur, Odisha
- E. Leh, Ladakh
View answer
Answer: C. Diggi Range, Khadki Military Station, Pune
‘Sanjha Shakti’ was the inaugural MCF exercise conducted in January 2026 at Diggi Range, Pune, involving the Indian Army and 16 civilian agencies.
5. The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 aims to replace which of the following regulators?
- A. UGC, AICTE and NCTE
- B. NAAC and NBA
- C. CBSE and NCERT
- D. NIOS and SCERT
- E. ICMR and NMC
View answer
Answer: A. UGC, AICTE and NCTE
The Bill proposes a single apex body (VBSA) replacing multiple regulators like UGC, AICTE and NCTE to streamline higher education governance.
6. India’s retail inflation is measured using which index?
- A. Wholesale Price Index
- B. GDP Deflator
- C. Consumer Price Index
- D. Producer Price Index
- E. Cost Inflation Index
View answer
Answer: C. Consumer Price Index
Retail inflation in India is measured using the Consumer Price Index (CPI), published monthly by MoSPI and used by RBI for monetary policy decisions.
7. Under RBI’s Scale-Based Regulatory (SBR) framework, NBFCs posing extreme systemic risk may be placed in which layer?
- A. Base Layer
- B. Middle Layer
- C. Upper Layer
- D. Top Layer
- E. Special Resolution Layer
View answer
Answer: D. Top Layer
The Top Layer under SBR is expected to be empty normally and is reserved for NBFCs posing extreme systemic risk, subject to very stringent regulation.
8. PhonePe PG Bolt primarily enhances digital payments by using:
- A. Blockchain settlement
- B. Biometric authentication
- C. Device-based card tokenization
- D. Offline QR payments
- E. UPI auto-debit mandates
View answer
Answer: C. Device-based card tokenization
PhonePe PG Bolt uses one-time device tokenization for Visa and Mastercard cards, enabling secure one-click in-app payments without repeated CVV entry.
9. According to the SBI report, what is the optimal Credit–Deposit (CD) ratio for public and private sector banks?
- A. 60–65%
- B. 65–70%
- C. 70–75%
- D. 76–80%
- E. Above 85%
View answer
Answer: D. 76–80%
SBI’s research suggests that CD ratios beyond 80% reduce profitability and strain liquidity, making 76–80% optimal for PSBs and private banks.
10. Bamanwas Kankar panchayat, recently in news, is significant because it has become:
- A. India’s first zero-budget natural farming district
- B. Rajasthan’s first fully organic certified panchayat
- C. A model solar-powered farming village
- D. A PM-KISAN pilot panchayat
- E. A climate-resilient seed hub
View answer
Answer: B. Rajasthan’s first fully organic certified panchayat
Bamanwas Kankar in Kotputli–Behror district is Rajasthan’s first officially certified fully organic panchayat, banning chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
14 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) primarily aims to:
- A. Strengthen urban local bodies in tribal areas
- B. Transfer forest ownership to state governments
- C. Extend Panchayati Raj to Fifth Schedule areas with Gram Sabha supremacy
- D. Create separate tribal legislatures
- E. Centralise development planning in Scheduled Areas
View answer
Answer: C
PESA extends Part IX of the Constitution to Fifth Schedule areas and recognises the Gram Sabha as the supreme authority over governance, land, and natural resources in tribal regions.
2. The Bhuria Committee is associated with recommendations related to:
- A. Cooperative banking reforms
- B. Sports governance in India
- C. Crypto asset regulation
- D. Gram Sabha-centric governance in Scheduled Areas
- E. NBFC capital adequacy norms
View answer
Answer: D
The Bhuria Committee (1994–95) recommended empowering Gram Sabhas and recognising tribal control over resources, forming the basis for PESA.
3. BHASHINI Samudaye is primarily aimed at strengthening India’s:
- A. Cyber security framework
- B. Defence AI ecosystem
- C. Indian-language AI ecosystem through collaboration
- D. Semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem
- E. Digital payments infrastructure
View answer
Answer: C
BHASHINI Samudaye promotes co-creation, open datasets, and participatory governance to scale Indian-language AI tools under the National Language Translation Mission.
4. The Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM) recently tested by India is best described as:
- A. Second-generation wire-guided missile
- B. Third-generation fire-and-forget missile with top-attack capability
- C. Long-range surface-to-air missile
- D. Naval anti-ship missile system
- E. Ballistic missile defence interceptor
View answer
Answer: B
MPATGM is a third-generation, fire-and-forget, shoulder-launched missile with top-attack capability designed to destroy modern main battle tanks.
5. The expert committee constituted by PFRDA for assured pension payouts under NPS is chaired by:
- A. Urjit Patel
- B. Raghuram Rajan
- C. M. S. Sahoo
- D. Ajay Tyagi
- E. Shaktikanta Das
View answer
Answer: C
The 15-member committee on assured payouts under NPS is chaired by M. S. Sahoo, former Chairman of IBBI.
6. Why is PFRDA exploring assured payout products under NPS?
- A. To replace NPS with OPS
- B. To introduce fiscal guarantees
- C. To address uncertainty in market-linked retirement income
- D. To merge NPS with EPFO
- E. To eliminate private pension funds
View answer
Answer: C
NPS is a defined-contribution, market-linked scheme, leading to uncertain retirement income. Assured payouts aim to improve income security.
7. Under the proposed crypto regulatory framework, the primary regulator for crypto exchanges in India is expected to be:
- A. RBI
- B. Ministry of Finance
- C. SEBI
- D. FIU-IND
- E. CBDT
View answer
Answer: C
SEBI is proposed as the primary regulator for crypto exchanges, overseeing trading platforms, disclosures, and investor protection.
8. Which institution introduced India’s first fully solar-powered mobile ATM van “TGB on Wheels”?
- A. State Bank of India
- B. NABARD
- C. Tripura Gramin Bank
- D. Punjab National Bank
- E. North Eastern Development Finance Corporation
View answer
Answer: C
Tripura Gramin Bank launched “TGB on Wheels”, India’s first fully solar-powered ATM van, enhancing rural banking outreach sustainably.
9. RBI’s proposal to resume licensing of Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) emphasises which of the following?
- A. Licensing only newly formed societies
- B. Preference for smaller local co-operatives
- C. Higher minimum capital and strong financial track record
- D. Zero-capital digital banks
- E. Exclusive focus on rural co-operatives
View answer
Answer: C
RBI proposes minimum capital of ₹300 crore, CAR ≥12%, low NPAs, and long track records to reduce failures seen in smaller UCBs.
10. The Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 were issued by RBI under:
- A. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- B. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
- C. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
- D. Companies Act, 2013
- E. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
View answer
Answer: C
The 2026 regulations were issued under FEMA, 1999 to create a consolidated framework for guarantees involving non-residents.
15 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. INSV Kaundinya, recently in news, is best described as:
- A. A hand-stitched wooden sailing ship retracing ancient trade routes
- B. A modern cargo vessel for West Asia trade
- C. India’s first nuclear-powered submarine
- D. A naval patrol vessel deployed in the Arabian Sea
- E. An unmanned research ship
View answer
Answer: A
INSV Kaundinya is a hand-stitched wooden sailing ship that retraced ancient Indian Ocean trade routes from Porbandar to Muscat in January 2026.
2. According to the ILO Employment and Social Trends 2026 Report, the projected global unemployment rate in 2026 is:
- A. 6.2%
- B. 5.5%
- C. 4.9%
- D. 4.2%
- E. 3.8%
View answer
Answer: C
The ILO projected global unemployment to remain at a historically low level of 4.9%, affecting around 186 million people worldwide.
3. The Responsible Nations Index (RNI) evaluates countries primarily based on:
- A. GDP growth and military expenditure
- B. Human dignity, sustainability, and global responsibility
- C. Export competitiveness and FDI inflows
- D. Technological innovation and industrial output
- E. Population size and natural resources
View answer
Answer: B
RNI shifts global rankings away from GDP and military power towards values like human dignity, environmental sustainability, and international responsibility.
4. Jharkhand’s megalithic sites are unique because they:
- A. Are entirely underground structures
- B. Are linked to Harappan civilisation
- C. Represent a living megalithic tradition
- D. Were built only for military purposes
- E. Exist only in coastal regions
View answer
Answer: C
Jharkhand’s megaliths are part of a living tradition, where communities like Munda and Ho still erect stones for rituals and remembrance.
5. The primary role of an Internal Ombudsman (IO) in banks is to:
- A. Resolve disputes between banks and RBI
- B. Audit loan portfolios
- C. Review rejected customer complaints
- D. Monitor cyber security risks
- E. Approve new banking products
View answer
Answer: C
The Internal Ombudsman reviews customer complaints rejected by internal grievance mechanisms before they can be escalated to RBI’s Ombudsman.
6. RBI’s new Internal Ombudsman guidelines specify that the IO’s decision:
- A. Can be overridden by bank management
- B. Is advisory in nature
- C. Is binding on banks and NBFCs
- D. Requires RBI approval
- E. Applies only to public sector banks
View answer
Answer: C
Under the new norms, banks and NBFCs cannot override the decision of the Internal Ombudsman, strengthening consumer protection.
7. Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation (SMBC) received RBI’s approval to:
- A. Merge with an Indian public sector bank
- B. Set up a Payments Bank
- C. Establish a Wholly Owned Subsidiary in India
- D. Operate only through IFSC
- E. Exit branch banking operations
View answer
Answer: C
RBI granted in-principle approval to SMBC to convert its Indian branches into a locally incorporated Wholly Owned Subsidiary.
8. What is the usual offer price of units during a New Fund Offer (NFO)?
- A. ₹5
- B. ₹8
- C. ₹10
- D. Market-linked price
- E. NAV of previous scheme
View answer
Answer: C
NFO units are generally offered at a fixed price of ₹10 per unit during the initial subscription period.
9. RBI’s proposed changes to FX risk norms include:
- A. Separate onshore and offshore FX limits
- B. Elimination of capital requirements for FX risk
- C. Unified Net Open Position calculation
- D. Ban on overseas investments by banks
- E. Daily RBI approval for FX exposure
View answer
Answer: C
RBI proposes a single consolidated Net Open Position (NOP) calculation to align Indian FX risk norms with global standards.
10. SEBI’s scrutiny of New Fund Offers (NFOs) is mainly aimed at:
- A. Increasing fund launch frequency
- B. Reducing fund management fees
- C. Preventing excessive portfolio overlap
- D. Promoting passive funds
- E. Limiting retail investor participation
View answer
Answer: C
SEBI aims to ensure clear differentiation among mutual fund schemes by limiting portfolio overlap within the same AMC.
16 & 17 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. According to the Global Risks Report 2026, which risk ranks first in the short-term (2-year horizon)?
- A. Armed conflict
- B. Extreme weather events
- C. Geo-economic confrontation
- D. Biodiversity loss
- E. Adverse AI outcomes
View answer
Answer: C. Geo-economic confrontation
The WEF Global Risks Report 2026 identifies geo-economic confrontation—use of trade barriers, sanctions, and investment restrictions—as the top short-term global risk, surpassing armed conflict.
2. The SVASTIK portal launched by CSIR-NIScPR is related to:
- A. Digital skill certification
- B. Climate risk modelling
- C. Scientifically validated traditional knowledge
- D. Startup incubation
- E. Export facilitation
View answer
Answer: C. Scientifically validated traditional knowledge
SVASTIK (Scientifically Validated Societal Traditional Knowledge) aims to disseminate Indian traditional knowledge after scientific validation in multiple languages.
3. The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2024 is released by:
- A. Ministry of Commerce
- B. Reserve Bank of India
- C. NITI Aayog
- D. Directorate General of Foreign Trade
- E. EXIM Bank
View answer
Answer: C. NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog released the 4th edition of the Export Preparedness Index to assess export readiness of States and UTs.
4. The Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara is primarily associated with which community?
- A. Gond tribe
- B. Santhal tribe
- C. Bhil tribe
- D. Koya Adivasi community
- E. Toda tribe
View answer
Answer: D. Koya Adivasi community
Sammakka–Saralamma Jatara is a biennial tribal festival of the Koya Adivasi community, held at Medaram in Telangana.
5. Under the IndiaAI Mission, which pillar focuses on providing affordable access to GPUs and AI accelerators?
- A. IndiaAI Innovation Centre
- B. IndiaAI Datasets Platform
- C. IndiaAI Compute Capacity
- D. IndiaAI FutureSkills
- E. Responsible AI Framework
View answer
Answer: C. IndiaAI Compute Capacity
This pillar aims to create shared national AI computing infrastructure to reduce dependence on foreign compute providers.
6. The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) under StartUp India is managed by:
- A. NABARD
- B. RBI
- C. SIDBI
- D. SEBI
- E. IFCI
View answer
Answer: C. SIDBI
The ₹10,000 crore Fund of Funds for Startups is managed by SIDBI to provide capital to AIFs supporting startups.
7. Which report recommends AI-enabled centralised digital portals to improve MSME scheme efficiency?
- A. Economic Survey
- B. Global Risks Report
- C. NITI Aayog MSME Convergence Report
- D. EPI 2024
- E. Startup India Action Plan
View answer
Answer: C. NITI Aayog MSME Convergence Report
The report advocates a single AI-enabled MSME portal to reduce compliance costs and improve scheme delivery.
8. Under the amended Forest Conservation Guidelines 2026, plantation on forest land is classified as:
- A. Non-forest activity
- B. Industrial activity
- C. Commercial activity
- D. Forestry activity
- E. Compensatory activity
View answer
Answer: D. Forestry activity
The amendment reclassifies plantation and afforestation as forestry activities, eliminating the need for CA and NPV.
9. Which long-term risk rises sharply in ranking in the Global Risks Report 2026 due to weak governance?
- A. Pollution
- B. Armed conflict
- C. AI-related adverse outcomes
- D. Trade wars
- E. Pandemics
View answer
Answer: C. AI-related adverse outcomes
AI risks rise from low short-term ranking to top 5 long-term risks due to concerns over jobs, misinformation, and warfare.
10. The India–Israel Joint Declaration on Fisheries and Aquaculture focuses on all EXCEPT:
- A. Recirculatory Aquaculture Systems
- B. Genetic seed improvement
- C. Water-efficient technologies
- D. Deep-sea mining
- E. Fisheries traceability
View answer
Answer: D. Deep-sea mining
The declaration focuses on sustainable aquaculture, water efficiency, seed quality, and monitoring—not deep-sea mining.
18 & 19 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) primarily performs which of the following functions?
- A. Peacekeeping operations
- B. International judicial settlements
- C. Coordination of global economic, social and environmental policies
- D. Military conflict resolution
- E. Enforcement of international sanctions
View answer
Answer: C. Coordination of global economic, social and environmental policies
ECOSOC is one of the six principal organs of the UN and serves as the central platform for policy coordination, consensus-building, and SDG follow-up in economic, social, and environmental domains.
2. The BBNJ Treaty, recently entering into force, is associated with which of the following objectives?
- A. Regulation of coastal fisheries
- B. Protection of polar ecosystems
- C. Conservation of marine biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction
- D. Deep-sea mineral extraction
- E. Maritime boundary demarcation
View answer
Answer: C. Conservation of marine biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction
The BBNJ (High Seas) Treaty is a legally binding agreement under UNCLOS to conserve and sustainably use marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction, covering nearly two-thirds of global oceans.
3. The SVAMITVA Scheme uses which technology for mapping rural inhabited areas?
- A. Satellite remote sensing
- B. LiDAR-based aerial mapping
- C. High-resolution drone surveys
- D. GPS triangulation only
- E. Ground-based cadastral surveys
View answer
Answer: C. High-resolution drone surveys
SVAMITVA uses drone-based surveys to generate accurate 3D maps of village abadi areas for property identification and rural infrastructure planning.
4. “Sahkar Se Samriddhi” is associated with strengthening which sector of the Indian economy?
- A. MSME manufacturing
- B. Cooperative enterprises
- C. Public sector banking
- D. Startup ecosystem
- E. Digital service delivery
View answer
Answer: B. Cooperative enterprises
“Sahkar Se Samriddhi” means Prosperity through Cooperation and is the Government of India’s vision to strengthen cooperatives for inclusive growth, rural livelihoods, and financial inclusion.
5. The Chips to Start-up (C2S) Programme is implemented by which ministry?
- A. Ministry of Science & Technology
- B. Ministry of Heavy Industries
- C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- D. Ministry of Skill Development
- E. Ministry of Education
View answer
Answer: C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
The C2S Programme, launched in 2022, is implemented by MeitY to build indigenous semiconductor design capability and industry-ready chip design talent.
6. Which of the following best describes the RBI’s proposal regarding BRICS digital currencies?
- A. Creation of a single BRICS currency
- B. Replacement of the US dollar in global trade
- C. Linking national CBDCs for cross-border payments
- D. Introduction of a private stablecoin
- E. Monetary union among BRICS nations
View answer
Answer: C. Linking national CBDCs for cross-border payments
RBI proposed interoperability among BRICS countries’ CBDCs to facilitate cross-border trade and tourism payments, without aiming for de-dollarisation.
7. Nominal GDP differs from Real GDP mainly because nominal GDP:
- A. Excludes services
- B. Adjusts for inflation
- C. Uses constant base-year prices
- D. Reflects current market prices
- E. Measures only industrial output
View answer
Answer: D. Reflects current market prices
Nominal GDP is measured at current market prices and is not adjusted for inflation, unlike Real GDP which reflects true economic growth.
8. Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima has been launched for which group of beneficiaries?
- A. All Indian citizens
- B. Ayushman Bharat beneficiaries
- C. Central Government Health Scheme beneficiaries
- D. State government employees
- E. Unorganized sector workers
View answer
Answer: C. Central Government Health Scheme beneficiaries
The scheme was launched by the Department of Financial Services in January 2026 to complement CGHS coverage, including AYUSH and modern treatments.
9. The PM-PRANAM Scheme is primarily aimed at:
- A. Increasing MSP procurement
- B. Promoting organic exports
- C. Reducing chemical fertilizer usage
- D. Expanding irrigation coverage
- E. Supporting farm mechanization
View answer
Answer: C. Reducing chemical fertilizer usage
PM-PRANAM incentivizes states to reduce chemical fertilizer consumption by sharing subsidy savings, promoting sustainable agriculture and soil health.
10. India’s first open-sea marine fish farming project has been launched in which region?
- A. Arabian Sea off Gujarat coast
- B. Bay of Bengal near Odisha
- C. Lakshadweep Sea
- D. Andaman Sea near North Bay
- E. Gulf of Mannar
View answer
Answer: D. Andaman Sea near North Bay
The pilot open-sea aquaculture project has been launched near North Bay in the Andaman Sea by MoES and NIOT under India’s Blue Economy initiative.
20 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The Pax Silica initiative primarily aims to strengthen cooperation in which of the following areas?
- A. Nuclear disarmament and arms control
- B. Climate change mitigation and carbon markets
- C. Semiconductor, AI, and critical mineral supply chains
- D. Maritime security and freedom of navigation
- E. Global health infrastructure and pandemic response
View answer
Answer: C
Pax Silica is a US-led multilateral initiative focused on securing semiconductor, AI, and critical mineral supply chains to reduce dependence on single countries and promote resilient and peaceful tech ecosystems.
2. India and the UAE have set a target to double their bilateral trade to USD 200 billion by which year?
- A. 2028
- B. 2030
- C. 2032
- D. 2035
- E. 2040
View answer
Answer: C
India and the UAE have pledged to double bilateral trade to USD 200 billion by 2032 under their Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
3. The Environmental (Protection) Fund notified in January 2026 will primarily utilise money collected from:
- A. Environmental cess on fuel
- B. International climate finance
- C. Corporate social responsibility funds
- D. Penalties imposed for environmental violations
- E. Green bonds issued by the government
View answer
Answer: D
The Environmental (Protection) Fund is designed to recycle monetary penalties collected from violations of environmental laws into environmental protection and restoration activities.
4. The Indian Skimmer is considered an indicator species because it signifies the health of:
- A. Coastal mangrove ecosystems
- B. Wetland and marsh ecosystems
- C. Forest river catchments
- D. Riverine ecosystems
- E. Coral reef systems
View answer
Answer: D
The Indian Skimmer depends on clean, slow-flowing rivers and exposed sandbars, making it an indicator of healthy riverine ecosystems.
5. Under the Export Promotion Mission (EPM), which of the following components provides interest subvention on export credit?
- A. Niryat Saarthi
- B. Niryat Setu
- C. Niryat Protsahan
- D. Niryat Disha
- E. Niryat Shakti
View answer
Answer: C
Niryat Protsahan is the financial enabler under EPM that offers interest subvention on pre- and post-shipment export credit and other export financing instruments.
6. The Hooghly River is best described as which one of the following?
- A. A tributary originating from the Yamuna
- B. A distributary of the Ganga flowing into the Bay of Bengal
- C. An independent east-flowing river of peninsular India
- D. A Himalayan glacier-fed river originating in Nepal
- E. A coastal river of West Bengal
View answer
Answer: B
The Hooghly River is a distributary of the Ganga river system, providing navigable access from the Bay of Bengal to inland Kolkata.
7. According to the IMF’s revised forecast, India’s GDP growth rate for FY 2025–26 is estimated at:
- A. 6.4%
- B. 6.6%
- C. 7.0%
- D. 7.3%
- E. 7.8%
View answer
Answer: D
The IMF upgraded India’s GDP growth forecast for FY 2025–26 to 7.3%, citing stronger-than-expected economic performance.
8. State Development Loans (SDLs) are issued by:
- A. The Reserve Bank of India
- B. Public Sector Banks
- C. State Governments
- D. Municipal Corporations
- E. NABARD
View answer
Answer: C
SDLs are bonds issued by State governments to finance fiscal deficits and capital expenditure, generally offering higher yields than central government securities.
9. SEBI has proposed identifying “significant indices” based on which threshold?
- A. Daily trading volume of ₹10,000 crore
- B. Market capitalisation of ₹50,000 crore
- C. Investor count exceeding 10 lakh
- D. Assets Under Management exceeding ₹20,000 crore
- E. Listing on more than two stock exchanges
View answer
Answer: D
SEBI proposed that indices tracked by mutual funds with cumulative AUM exceeding ₹20,000 crore be classified as “significant” and subjected to enhanced regulation.
10. The primary objective of introducing the Closing Auction Session (CAS) in equity markets is to:
- A. Increase intraday trading volume
- B. Extend market trading hours
- C. Improve price discovery and reduce manipulation at market close
- D. Promote high-frequency trading
- E. Align equity markets with commodity exchanges
View answer
Answer: C
CAS determines the closing price through an auction mechanism, reducing last-minute price manipulation and improving price integrity, in line with global best practices.
21 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The UNESCO Media and Information Literacy (MIL) Alliance was originally launched in which year and location?
- A. 2015, Paris
- B. 2013, Abuja
- C. 2020, Geneva
- D. 2018, New York
- E. 2025, Cartagena
View answer
Answer: B. 2013, Abuja
The UNESCO MIL Alliance was launched in 2013 at the Global Forum for Partnerships on MIL held in Abuja, Nigeria.
2. Which of the following best reflects the core objective of the UNESCO MIL Alliance?
- A. Regulating global media houses
- B. Promoting freedom of press
- C. Building resilience against misinformation and hate speech
- D. Monitoring social media platforms
- E. Licensing digital news portals
View answer
Answer: C. Building resilience against misinformation and hate speech
The MIL Alliance focuses on strengthening media and information literacy to counter disinformation, misinformation, and hate speech.
3. India’s reusable launch vehicle programme primarily differs from SpaceX’s approach in terms of:
- A. Payload capacity
- B. Fuel type
- C. Recovery method
- D. Launch frequency
- E. Mission duration
View answer
Answer: C. Recovery method
While SpaceX uses Vertical Take-off and Vertical Landing (VTVL), ISRO is developing a winged RLV with retro-propulsion recovery.
4. The digital attendance system in the Lok Sabha ensures attendance is marked:
- A. Through mobile application
- B. At entry gates
- C. In the lobby area
- D. From the MP’s designated seat
- E. Through facial recognition
View answer
Answer: D. From the MP’s designated seat
Attendance will be recorded via seat-based biometric authentication inside the Lok Sabha chamber only.
5. The Internet Governance Internship & Capacity Building Scheme (IGICBS) is implemented by:
- A. TRAI
- B. NIC
- C. NIXI
- D. CERT-In
- E. MeitY
View answer
Answer: C. NIXI
NIXI is the nodal implementing agency for IGICBS, while MeitY is the administrative ministry.
6. Which of the following correctly matches the newly discovered ant fly species with its location?
- A. Metadon ghorpadei – Western Ghats
- B. Metadon reemeri – Delhi Ridge
- C. Metadon ghorpadei – Delhi Ridge
- D. Metadon reemeri – Eastern Ghats
- E. Both species – Sundarbans
View answer
Answer: C. Metadon ghorpadei – Delhi Ridge
Metadon ghorpadei was discovered in the Northern Ridge Forest of Delhi, while Metadon reemeri was found in the Western Ghats.
7. Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary has been notified as an Eco-Sensitive Zone primarily to:
- A. Promote eco-tourism
- B. Enable mining activities
- C. Act as a buffer for fragile ecosystems
- D. Expand urban infrastructure
- E. Increase industrial corridors
View answer
Answer: C. Act as a buffer for fragile ecosystems
ESZs function as transition zones to reduce ecological stress around protected areas.
8. EPFO 3.0 is best described as:
- A. A new pension scheme
- B. A labour code reform
- C. A core digital system overhaul
- D. A private PF management platform
- E. A blockchain-based PF wallet
View answer
Answer: C. A core digital system overhaul
EPFO 3.0 involves a core-banking-like backend overhaul, new portal, and AI-enabled services.
9. The proposed amendment to the SARFAESI Act aims to clarify the Centre’s powers over:
- A. RBI
- B. NABARD
- C. SEBI
- D. CERSAI
- E. SIDBI
View answer
Answer: D. CERSAI
The amendment seeks to explicitly empower the Centre to issue directions to CERSAI to remove governance ambiguities.
10. Which organisation has been recognised by RBI as a Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) for authorised dealers in forex markets?
- A. FIMMDA
- B. FEDAI
- C. NPCI
- D. IBA
- E. CCIL
View answer
Answer: B. FEDAI
In January 2026, RBI recognised FEDAI as the SRO under the Omnibus Framework for SROs.
22 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. Spain recently joined which India-led maritime cooperation framework that is non-treaty and non-military in nature?
- A. QUAD
- B. IORA
- C. Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)
- D. Indian Ocean Rim Strategy
- E. SAGAR Vision
View answer
Answer: C. Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)
IPOI is a voluntary, non-treaty and cooperative maritime framework initiated by India in 2019 at the East Asia Summit. Spain formally joined by submitting a Declaration of Accession.
2. The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) is strategically based on which Indian doctrine?
- A. Act East Policy
- B. Neighbourhood First
- C. Blue Economy Policy
- D. SAGAR Doctrine
- E. Maritime Silk Road
View answer
Answer: D. SAGAR Doctrine
IPOI builds on India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) doctrine, which emphasizes a free, open, inclusive, and rules-based Indo-Pacific region.
3. The National Legislative Index (NLI) announced in 2026 aims to assess the performance of which institutions?
- A. Judiciary and Tribunals
- B. Central Ministries
- C. Parliament and State Legislatures
- D. Local Governments
- E. Constitutional Bodies
View answer
Answer: C. Parliament and State Legislatures
The NLI is designed to objectively evaluate and compare the functioning of Parliament and State Legislatures using quantifiable indicators.
4. Operation Trashi-I is primarily focused on counter-terrorism activities in which region?
- A. Kupwara, Jammu & Kashmir
- B. Poonch, Jammu & Kashmir
- C. Chatroo region, Kishtwar district
- D. Baramulla district
- E. Rajouri sector
View answer
Answer: C. Chatroo region, Kishtwar district
Operation Trashi-I is a multi-day counter-terrorism operation conducted in the dense forest areas of the Chatroo region in Kishtwar district, J&K.
5. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the removal of Supreme Court judges?
- A. Article 61
- B. Article 124(4)
- C. Article 217
- D. Article 356
- E. Article 368
View answer
Answer: B. Article 124(4)
Article 124(4) and 124(5) provide the constitutional mechanism for removal of Supreme Court judges on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
6. India’s first fully Made-in-India C-295 aircraft will be assembled at which location?
- A. Bengaluru
- B. Hyderabad
- C. Nagpur
- D. Vadodara
- E. Nashik
View answer
Answer: D. Vadodara
The Final Assembly Line (FAL) for the C-295 aircraft is located in Vadodara, Gujarat, making it India’s first private-sector-led military aircraft assembly line.
7. SIDBI was established in 1990 primarily to promote and finance which sector?
- A. Agriculture
- B. Large Industries
- C. MSME Sector
- D. Infrastructure Sector
- E. Export Houses
View answer
Answer: C. MSME Sector
SIDBI is the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the MSME sector in India.
8. Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act requires prior approval before investigation of which type of acts?
- A. Private sector corruption
- B. Election-related offences
- C. Judicial misconduct
- D. Decisions taken in official duty
- E. Trap cases
View answer
Answer: D. Decisions taken in official duty
Section 17A mandates prior approval before investigating public servants for offences related to decisions or recommendations made during official duty, except in trap cases.
9. Under the NIRYAT PROTSAHAN scheme, interest subvention is applicable only to exports covered under which list?
- A. Negative list
- B. Open commodity list
- C. Priority sector list
- D. Positive list
- E. Restricted trade list
View answer
Answer: D. Positive list
Interest subvention under NIRYAT PROTSAHAN applies only to products notified under a “positive list” defined at the HSN six-digit tariff level.
10. RBI granted in-principle approval to Payoneer India to operate as which type of entity?
- A. Payment Bank
- B. Small Finance Bank
- C. Payment Aggregator – Domestic
- D. Payment Aggregator – Cross Border
- E. Prepaid Payment Instrument
View answer
Answer: D. Payment Aggregator – Cross Border
RBI granted Payoneer India in-principle approval to operate as a Payment Aggregator – Cross Border (PA-CB) to facilitate international trade payments for exporters and importers.
23 & 24 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The United States’ formal withdrawal from the World Health Organization (WHO) will take effect after completion of which mandatory requirement?
- A. Approval by the UN General Assembly
- B. Six-month cooling-off period
- C. One-year notice period
- D. Approval by WHO Executive Board
- E. Ratification by US Senate
View answer
Answer: C. One-year notice period
As per WHO rules, any member state wishing to withdraw must serve a mandatory one-year notice period, after which the withdrawal becomes effective.
2. Which of the following is NOT a core function of the World Health Organization (WHO)?
- A. Setting International Health Regulations (IHR)
- B. Coordinating pandemic responses
- C. Conducting military medical operations
- D. Providing technical assistance to countries
- E. Maintaining global health surveillance
View answer
Answer: C. Conducting military medical operations
WHO is a civilian UN specialised agency focused on public health coordination, standards, and technical assistance, not military operations.
3. The term “Water Bankruptcy” as used in the UNU-INWEH report refers to:
- A. Temporary water shortages during drought years
- B. Market-based trading of water resources
- C. Persistent water use exceeding renewable and safe limits
- D. Inefficient urban water pricing
- E. Decline in rainfall due to El Niño
View answer
Answer: C. Persistent water use exceeding renewable and safe limits
Water Bankruptcy denotes a permanent failure state where withdrawals exceed sustainable inflows, causing irreversible damage to water systems.
4. According to the Global Water Bankruptcy report, approximately what percentage of the world’s population lives in water-insecure or critically water-insecure countries (2026)?
- A. 40%
- B. 55%
- C. 65%
- D. 75%
- E. 90%
View answer
Answer: D. 75%
The report estimates that around three-fourths of the global population resides in countries facing water insecurity or critical water stress.
5. Parakram Diwas is observed to commemorate the birth anniversary of:
- A. Bhagat Singh
- B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- C. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
- D. Chandrashekhar Azad
- E. Lala Lajpat Rai
View answer
Answer: C. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
Parakram Diwas is celebrated on 23 January to mark the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, a revolutionary nationalist leader.
6. Which constitutional article mandates the Governor’s Address to the State Legislature at the beginning of certain sessions?
- A. Article 163
- B. Article 174
- C. Article 175
- D. Article 176
- E. Article 200
View answer
Answer: D. Article 176
Article 176 mandates the Governor’s Address at the first session after elections and the first session of each calendar year.
7. India’s Net Foreign Direct Investment (Net FDI) turned negative primarily due to:
- A. Fall in gross FDI inflows
- B. Decline in exports
- C. Rising repatriation and outward investments
- D. Increase in government borrowing
- E. RBI tightening monetary policy
View answer
Answer: C. Rising repatriation and outward investments
Despite steady gross inflows, higher profit repatriation, disinvestment, and outward FDI caused net FDI to remain negative.
8. In the context of the Air India aircraft crash, the $125 million payout was mainly made by:
- A. Passenger liability insurers
- B. Indian government
- C. Primary insurers alone
- D. Global reinsurers
- E. Airport authorities
View answer
Answer: D. Global reinsurers
Hull and engine losses were largely borne by global reinsurers under excess-of-loss reinsurance arrangements.
9. Receivables Exchange of India Limited (RXIL) operates under which regulatory authority?
- A. SEBI
- B. Ministry of MSME
- C. Reserve Bank of India
- D. IRDAI
- E. Department of Financial Services
View answer
Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India
RXIL is a Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform regulated by the RBI to improve MSME liquidity.
10. The proposed linking of urea sales with digital farmer IDs will be implemented through which digital platform?
- A. e-NAM
- B. PM-KISAN Portal
- C. Agri Stack
- D. Soil Health Card Portal
- E. DBT Bharat
View answer
Answer: C. Agri Stack
Agri Stack is a Digital Public Infrastructure for agriculture aimed at integrating farmer data, services, and advisory systems.
25 & 26 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The United States officially withdrew from the World Health Organization (WHO) in January 2026 after completing which mandatory requirement?
- A. UN General Assembly approval
- B. Two-year cooling-off period
- C. One-year notice period
- D. Financial settlement process
- E. Referendum approval
View answer
Answer: C. One-year notice period
As per WHO rules, a member country must give a one-year notice before withdrawal. The USA completed this requirement in January 2026 after initiating the process in January 2025.
2. What was the theme of the 56th Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum (WEF) held in January 2026?
- A. Rebuilding Global Trust
- B. Shaping the Future of Growth
- C. A Spirit of Dialogue
- D. Global Cooperation in Crisis
- E. Inclusive and Sustainable Growth
View answer
Answer: C. A Spirit of Dialogue
The 56th WEF Annual Meeting at Davos-Klosters (19–23 Jan 2026) was held under the theme “A Spirit of Dialogue”.
3. According to the WEF–Accenture AI Adoption Report, India’s rank in AI investment as a share of GDP is:
- A. 5th
- B. 6th
- C. 7th
- D. 8th
- E. 10th
View answer
Answer: D. 8th
India ranked 8th among 11 countries in AI investment as a share of GDP during 2010–2024, with investment estimated at 1.2%–1.8% of GDP.
4. The PLI Scheme for White Goods primarily targets which of the following product segments?
- A. Washing Machines and Refrigerators
- B. Solar Panels and Batteries
- C. Air Conditioners and LED Lights
- D. Smartphones and Semiconductors
- E. Electric Vehicles
View answer
Answer: C. Air Conditioners and LED Lights
The PLI Scheme for White Goods focuses on boosting domestic manufacturing of Air Conditioners and LED Lights to reduce import dependence.
5. The Asiatic Wild Dog (Dhole), recently sighted in Ratapani Tiger Reserve, is listed under which IUCN conservation status?
- A. Vulnerable
- B. Near Threatened
- C. Endangered
- D. Critically Endangered
- E. Least Concern
View answer
Answer: C. Endangered
The Asiatic Wild Dog (Cuon alpinus) is classified as Endangered due to habitat fragmentation, prey depletion, and disease transmission.
6. The Inland Waterways Development Council (IWDC 3.0) meeting held in January 2026 was chaired by:
- A. Nitin Gadkari
- B. Sarbananda Sonowal
- C. Ashwini Vaishnaw
- D. Hardeep Singh Puri
- E. Mansukh Mandaviya
View answer
Answer: B. Sarbananda Sonowal
The 3rd meeting of IWDC (IWDC 3.0) was chaired by Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal in Kochi, Kerala.
7. Buyforex received in-principle Payment Service Provider (PSP) approval from which regulatory authority?
- A. RBI
- B. SEBI
- C. IFSCA
- D. Ministry of Finance
- E. NPCI
View answer
Answer: C. IFSCA
Buyforex received PSP approval from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) at GIFT IFSC for cross-border payment services.
8. The SAARG committee set up by PFRDA aims to modernise which system?
- A. Employees’ Provident Fund
- B. Atal Pension Yojana
- C. National Pension System
- D. Insurance Regulatory Framework
- E. Public Provident Fund
View answer
Answer: C. National Pension System
SAARG (Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance) was constituted to reform and modernise the investment framework of the National Pension System (NPS).
9. Under the NPS Swasthya Pension Scheme, what is the maximum withdrawal allowed at any instance for medical expenses?
- A. 10% of own contribution
- B. 20% of total corpus
- C. 25% of own contribution
- D. 50% of total corpus
- E. No withdrawal allowed
View answer
Answer: C. 25% of own contribution
The scheme allows subscribers to withdraw up to 25% of their own contributions for medical needs, with no limit on the number of withdrawals.
10. As per the revised RBI Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms, the PSL target for Small Finance Banks has been revised to approximately:
- A. 40% of ANBC
- B. 50% of ANBC
- C. 60% of ANBC
- D. 75% of ANBC
- E. 90% of ANBC
View answer
Answer: C. 60% of ANBC
RBI rationalised PSL norms by reducing the PSL target for Small Finance Banks to around 60% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit to balance inclusion with risk management.
27 & 28 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The India–EU Security and Defence Partnership (SDP) primarily signifies which shift in bilateral relations?
- A. From political to cultural cooperation
- B. From economic aid to humanitarian support
- C. From trade-centric engagement to strategic-security partnership
- D. From multilateralism to bilateral isolation
- E. From climate cooperation to defence manufacturing only
View answer
Answer: C. From trade-centric engagement to strategic-security partnership
The 16th India–EU Summit marks a clear shift in relations where security, defence, and global strategic issues now complement traditional trade-focused engagement.
2. India–EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations were originally launched in 2007 but were suspended in 2013 mainly due to:
- A. WTO objections
- B. Political instability in India
- C. Gap in ambition between the two sides
- D. EU financial crisis
- E. Disagreement over defence cooperation
View answer
Answer: C. Gap in ambition between the two sides
The FTA talks were suspended in 2013 due to differences in ambition and expectations, and were later re-launched in June 2022.
3. Which of the following institutions has financed metro rail and sustainable transport projects in India under India–EU cooperation?
- A. World Bank
- B. Asian Development Bank
- C. European Central Bank
- D. European Investment Bank
- E. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
View answer
Answer: D. European Investment Bank
The European Investment Bank (EIB) has supported India through financing urban rail, metro, and sustainable transport projects.
4. The Advance–Decline Ratio (ADR) falling below 1 indicates:
- A. Bullish market sentiment
- B. Equal number of advancing and declining stocks
- C. More stocks rising than falling
- D. Weak market breadth
- E. High market volatility only
View answer
Answer: D. Weak market breadth
ADR below 1 means declining stocks outnumber advancing stocks, indicating weak and narrow market participation.
5. According to RBI’s State Finances analysis, which structural factor poses a long-term fiscal risk to Indian States?
- A. Rising crude oil prices
- B. Demographic ageing
- C. Exchange rate volatility
- D. Corporate tax cuts
- E. Disinvestment slowdown
View answer
Answer: B. Demographic ageing
RBI highlights ageing populations as a structural challenge due to rising pension and healthcare costs and slower revenue growth.
6. UBS has maintained an underweight stance on Indian equities primarily due to:
- A. High inflation
- B. Weak fiscal discipline
- C. Limited AI-linked listed companies
- D. Excessive government borrowing
- E. Banking sector stress
View answer
Answer: C. Limited AI-linked listed companies
UBS notes that India lacks listed companies directly benefiting from AI, cloud, and semiconductor investment cycles.
7. The renewed ESMA–RBI information-sharing agreement is significant because it:
- A. Allows EU regulators to directly inspect Indian banks
- B. Restores EU recognition of Indian clearing houses
- C. Merges EU and Indian stock exchanges
- D. Eliminates capital controls
- E. Creates a common currency framework
View answer
Answer: B. Restores EU recognition of Indian clearing houses
The pact ends a regulatory impasse and enables Indian CCPs to regain ESMA recognition, facilitating EU banks’ access.
8. The core criticism in the “Niyat vs Niti in Farm Policy” article is that Indian agriculture suffers from:
- A. Lack of farmer subsidies
- B. Excess private sector control
- C. Absence of coherent and accountable policy strategy
- D. Low agricultural output
- E. Over-mechanisation
View answer
Answer: C. Absence of coherent and accountable policy strategy
The article argues that while political intent exists, India lacks a structured, transparent, and long-term agricultural policy framework.
9. Under the India–EU FTA, which of the following Indian sectors is explicitly protected from import concessions?
- A. Tea
- B. Coffee
- C. Dairy
- D. Spices
- E. Processed foods
View answer
Answer: C. Dairy
Sensitive sectors like dairy, cereals, and poultry are protected to safeguard domestic food security and farmer livelihoods.
10. Tariff Rate Quotas (TRQs), as used in the India–EU FTA, imply:
- A. Complete elimination of import duties
- B. Uniform tariff on all imports
- C. Unlimited imports at concessional rates
- D. Lower tariffs up to a fixed quantity, higher beyond it
- E. Export subsidies for farmers
View answer
Answer: D. Lower tariffs up to a fixed quantity, higher beyond it
TRQs allow limited imports at concessional tariffs while imposing higher duties once the quota is exceeded, balancing trade and domestic protection.
29 & 30 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. The 2nd India–Arab Foreign Ministers’ Meeting (2026) was held under which institutional framework to strengthen India–Arab engagement?
- A. Non-Aligned Movement
- B. Arab–India Cooperation Forum (AICF)
- C. India–GCC Strategic Dialogue
- D. BRICS Plus Forum
- E. Asian Cooperation Council
View answer
Answer: B. Arab–India Cooperation Forum (AICF)
The Arab–India Cooperation Forum (AICF), established in 2008, serves as the key institutional platform for structured India–Arab League engagement, under which foreign ministers’ meetings are conducted.
2. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, waste must be segregated into how many mandatory streams?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five
- E. Six
View answer
Answer: C. Four
The SWM Rules, 2026 mandate segregation into four streams—wet waste, dry waste, sanitary waste, and special care waste—to improve recycling and reduce landfill dependency.
3. Which principle allows authorities to impose environmental compensation for improper waste disposal under SWM Rules, 2026?
- A. Precautionary Principle
- B. Sustainable Development Principle
- C. Polluter Pays Principle
- D. Equity Principle
- E. Common but Differentiated Responsibility
View answer
Answer: C. Polluter Pays Principle
The Polluter Pays Principle ensures that waste generators bear financial responsibility for non-segregation, improper disposal, and false reporting.
4. Why did the Supreme Court stay the implementation of UGC Equity Regulations, 2026?
- A. Violation of federal structure
- B. Conflict with NEP 2020
- C. Vagueness and potential misuse
- D. Budgetary constraints
- E. Opposition from state governments
View answer
Answer: C. Vagueness and potential misuse
The Supreme Court cited vague definitions and the risk of misuse as reasons for staying the implementation and directed reconsideration of the regulations.
5. PANCHAM digital chatbot is primarily designed to assist which group?
- A. Urban local bodies
- B. School teachers
- C. Panchayati Raj representatives
- D. Anganwadi workers
- E. Farmers’ Producer Organisations
View answer
Answer: C. Panchayati Raj representatives
PANCHAM is a WhatsApp-based AI chatbot launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to assist over 30 lakh elected Panchayat representatives.
6. The Power Gap Index primarily measures a country’s ability to:
- A. Increase military spending
- B. Expand GDP growth
- C. Convert resources into geopolitical influence
- D. Improve internal security
- E. Achieve trade surplus
View answer
Answer: C. Convert resources into geopolitical influence
The Power Gap Index assesses power efficiency—how effectively a country converts material resources into real strategic and geopolitical influence.
7. Which institution issues the Digital Food Currency under India’s pilot programme?
- A. Ministry of Finance
- B. National Payments Corporation of India
- C. Reserve Bank of India
- D. Food Corporation of India
- E. NITI Aayog
View answer
Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India
The Digital Food Currency is a programmable CBDC issued by the Reserve Bank of India to modernise subsidy delivery under the PDS.
8. Why has SEBI’s corporate bond liquidity window seen low adoption?
- A. High transaction taxes
- B. Mandatory participation
- C. Issuer discretion and buyback obligations
- D. Short settlement cycle
- E. Retail investor opposition
View answer
Answer: C. Issuer discretion and buyback obligations
Issuers are reluctant due to buyback requirements, reserved issue size, and balance sheet impact, resulting in negligible usage of the liquidity window.
9. Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) are primarily aimed at:
- A. Replacing APMCs
- B. Eliminating middlemen
- C. Aggregating produce and improving farmer bargaining power
- D. Providing free inputs
- E. Export promotion only
View answer
Answer: C. Aggregating produce and improving farmer bargaining power
FPOs help farmers collectively access markets, technology, credit, and better prices by improving their bargaining strength.
10. The Paathara (Khoni) practice is best described as:
- A. A crop rotation method
- B. A rainwater harvesting system
- C. A traditional underground grain storage technique
- D. A biofertiliser preparation method
- E. A terrace farming technique
View answer
Answer: C. A traditional underground grain storage technique
Paathara (Khoni) is an indigenous, electricity-free underground grain storage system used for long-term paddy preservation.
31 January 2026
10 questions · open this quiz
1. BHARAT SAMPARK initiative is primarily aimed at which of the following?
- A. Promoting foreign direct investment
- B. Connecting youth with government policy-making
- C. Expanding postal services to rural areas only
- D. Skill development for government employees
- E. Reforming higher education curriculum
View answer
Answer: B – Connecting youth with government policy-making
BHARAT SAMPARK is a government outreach programme designed to engage students, especially from premier institutions, with public institutions, policy processes, and nation-building initiatives.
2. The nodal ministry for the BHARAT SAMPARK initiative is:
- A. Ministry of Education
- B. Ministry of Electronics and IT
- C. Ministry of Communications
- D. Ministry of Youth Affairs
- E. Ministry of Home Affairs
View answer
Answer: C – Ministry of Communications
BHARAT SAMPARK is coordinated by the Ministry of Communications, with a strong focus on India Post modernisation and digital infrastructure.
3. The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established under which Act?
- A. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
- B. National Commission for Women Act, 1990
- C. Commission for Gender Equality Act, 1992
- D. Women’s Rights Protection Act, 1989
- E. Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act
View answer
Answer: B – National Commission for Women Act, 1990
NCW is a statutory body established in 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
4. India’s first mega shipbuilding cluster (NSHIP) is being developed at which location?
- A. Kochi, Kerala
- B. Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
- C. Kandla, Gujarat
- D. Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu
- E. Paradip, Odisha
View answer
Answer: D – Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu
The National Shipbuilding & Heavy Industries Park (NSHIP) is India’s first mega shipbuilding cluster located at Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu.
5. The base year of India’s new Consumer Price Index (CPI) series is:
- A. 2010–11
- B. 2011–12
- C. 2017–18
- D. 2020–21
- E. 2023–24
View answer
Answer: E – 2023–24
The CPI base year has been revised from 2011–12 to 2023–24 using data from the latest Household Consumption Expenditure Survey.
6. Which component’s weight has significantly reduced in the new CPI series?
- A. Housing
- B. Transport
- C. Health
- D. Food and Beverages
- E. Education
View answer
Answer: D – Food and Beverages
The weight of food and beverages declined from about 46% to nearly 37%, reflecting changing consumption patterns as per Engel’s Law.
7. Slice Small Finance Bank launched India’s first digital savings account linked entirely to which rate?
- A. Bank Rate
- B. MCLR
- C. Repo Rate
- D. Reverse Repo Rate
- E. MSF Rate
View answer
Answer: C – Repo Rate
Slice launched India’s first digital savings account linked 100% to the RBI’s repo rate, with daily interest calculation and credit.
8. The Payment Aggregator–Physical (PA-P) licence is issued by:
- A. SEBI
- B. Ministry of Finance
- C. NPCI
- D. Reserve Bank of India
- E. MeitY
View answer
Answer: D – Reserve Bank of India
The RBI issues PA-P licences, allowing entities to aggregate and process offline digital payments for merchants.
9. The first USD-backed stablecoin approved by the UAE Central Bank is issued by:
- A. Binance
- B. Ripple
- C. Universal Digital
- D. Circle
- E. Tether
View answer
Answer: C – Universal Digital
The USD-backed stablecoin (USDU) is issued by Universal Digital and is regulated under the UAE’s Payment Token Services Regulation.
10. SEBI’s No-Objection Certificate (NOC) to NSE allows it to do which of the following?
- A. Begin trading in cryptocurrencies
- B. Merge with BSE
- C. Start IPO preparations
- D. Launch new commodity exchanges
- E. Regulate stock brokers
View answer
Answer: C – Start IPO preparations
SEBI’s NOC permits NSE to appoint intermediaries, prepare DRHP, and proceed with IPO-related formalities.