Daily Current Affairs Quiz: 30 October 2026
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1. Which institute developed the gene-edited rice variety DRR Dhan 100, released in India in 2025?
A. ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute
B. ICAR-Indian Institute of Rice Research
C. ICAR-National Rice Research Institute
D. International Rice Research Institute
E. Punjab Agricultural University
View Answer
Explanation: DRR Dhan 100 was developed by ICAR-Indian Institute of Rice Research using the CRISPR-Cas9 tool. It matures in about 130 days against 150 days for its parent variety and gives nearly 20 per cent higher yield. A shorter crop cycle saves water and gives farmers time for the next crop.
2. Pusa DST Rice 1, a CRISPR-Cas9 based rice variety, is mainly known for which feature?
A. Tolerance to submergence for up to two weeks
B. Resistance to bacterial leaf blight
C. Better performance in saline and alkaline soils
D. High zinc content for better nutrition
E. Suitability for direct seeding in dry areas
View Answer
Explanation: Pusa DST Rice 1, developed by ICAR-IARI, does better in saline and alkaline soils, giving 10-30 per cent higher yield in such conditions. Salinity means excess soluble salts in soil, which damage crop growth and is a major problem in many irrigated and coastal areas.
3. What is apomixis in plants?
A. Fusion of male and female gametes to form a seed
B. Insertion of a gene taken from another species
C. Growing plants in a nutrient solution without soil
D. Seed formation without fertilisation, giving offspring almost identical to the mother plant
E. Higher yield obtained by crossing genetically different parents
View Answer
Explanation: Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction where seeds form without fertilisation. Because the offspring are almost identical to the mother plant, a hybrid could keep its vigour over generations. This could cut the cost farmers pay for fresh hybrid seed every year.
4. Under India’s rules, which category of gene editing is regulated in the same way as GM crops?
A. SDN-1 only
B. SDN-2 only
C. Both SDN-1 and SDN-2
D. SDN-3
E. None of the SDN categories
View Answer
Explanation: SDN-1 and SDN-2 make small changes in the plant’s own DNA without adding foreign DNA, so they are exempt from GM rules. SDN-3 inserts a whole new gene and is treated as GM. That is why two gene-edited rice varieties could be released in 2025 while GM mustard is still stuck in litigation.
5. HB4 wheat, developed in Argentina by Bioceres Crop Solutions, is drought-tolerant because of a gene taken from which plant?
A. Sunflower
B. Soybean
C. Maize
D. Sorghum
E. Mustard
View Answer
Explanation: HB4 wheat carries a sunflower gene that helps it tolerate drought. Since a gene from another species is inserted, it is a transgenic GM crop, not a gene-edited one. In India such crops need GEAC approval, and Bt cotton remains the only commercially approved transgenic crop since 2002.
6. What outlay has the Union Cabinet approved for the Khelo India Sports Goods Manufacturing Scheme for 2026-27 to 2033-34?
A. ₹985 crore
B. ₹1,130 crore
C. ₹1,856.67 crore
D. ₹2,250.50 crore
E. ₹3,400 crore
View Answer
Explanation: The scheme, run by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, aims to boost domestic manufacturing and exports of sports goods and reduce imports. It gives 20 per cent capital support to anchor investors putting in at least ₹100 crore, turnover-linked incentives up to 15 per cent, and plans four manufacturing zones of 300 acres or more each.
7. According to the World Bank’s October 2026 Poverty and Equity Brief, extreme poverty in India (US$3.00 a day line) fell from 27.1 per cent in 2011 to what level in 2023?
A. 16.1 per cent
B. 8.6 per cent
C. 5.3 per cent
D. 2.6 per cent
E. 1.2 per cent
View Answer
Explanation: The World Bank calls this one of the fastest falls in poverty in the world. At the higher US$4.20 lower-middle-income line, poverty dropped from 57.7 per cent to 16.1 per cent. It credits strong consumption growth, more jobs especially for women, and social transfers such as food subsidies.
8. As per the World Bank brief, about how many people in India moved out of poverty at the US$4.20 a day line between 2011 and 2023?
A. 270 million
B. 496 million
C. 134 million
D. 415 million
E. 550 million
View Answer
Explanation: Around 496 million people crossed the US$4.20 line in this period. The same brief notes that about 80 per cent of Indians are still below the upper-middle-income line of US$8.30 a day. The belt from Uttar Pradesh to West Bengal holds 57 per cent of India’s poor.
9. During April-September 2026, India’s fiscal deficit reached what share of the FY27 Budget Estimate?
A. 37 per cent
B. 25 per cent
C. 48 per cent
D. 55 per cent
E. 42 per cent
View Answer
Explanation: The deficit rose nearly 25 per cent year-on-year to ₹7.14 lakh crore in the first half of FY27, compared with about 37 per cent of the target a year earlier. Total spending grew about 11 per cent to ₹25.50 lakh crore, led by revenue expenditure on subsidies, while tax collection was slower.
10. The Union Government has raised Dearness Allowance and Dearness Relief to what rate with effect from 1 July 2026?
A. 58 per cent
B. 60 per cent
C. 63 per cent
D. 61 per cent
E. 65 per cent
View Answer
Explanation: DA and DR were raised by three percentage points, from 60 to 63 per cent. DA is paid to serving government employees and DR to pensioners. It is a cost-of-living adjustment that protects their purchasing power against inflation.
11. The MoU signed between SEBI and the Bank of England on 28 October 2026 mainly relates to cooperation on which entities?
A. SEBI-recognised Clearing Corporations (Central Counterparties)
B. Credit rating agencies
C. Mutual fund houses
D. Foreign portfolio investors
E. Stock brokers
View Answer
Explanation: The MoU sets up regulatory cooperation and information sharing on SEBI-recognised clearing corporations. It allows the Bank of England to rely on SEBI’s supervision of these CCPs, subject to law. Clearing corporations complete trade settlement and reduce the risk of default between buyers and sellers.
12. SEBI’s SMARTs portal, which faced a code execution attack on 26 October 2026, stands for what?
A. SEBI Market Analytics and Reporting Tool
B. Securities Market Trainers
C. Systematic Monitoring of Accounts and Risk Tracking
D. Securities Market Awareness and Research Team
E. Smart Market Alert and Response System
View Answer
Explanation: SMARTs is a platform where eligible trainers register with SEBI and conduct investor awareness programmes. A code execution attack exploits a weakness to run unauthorised commands on a system, which can put data at risk and disrupt services. SEBI placed its cyber team on red alert after repeated attempts.
13. The fourth edition of the Tobacco-Free Youth Campaign (TFYC 4.0), launched on 28 October 2026, will run for how many days?
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
E. 100 days
View Answer
Explanation: TFYC 4.0 is organised by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and was launched in New Delhi by MoS Prataprao Jadhav. It focuses on Higher Educational Institutions and tobacco-free campuses, and the Say No to Tobacco pledge asks young people to reject tobacco and nicotine products.
14. The second BRICS Finance Ministers’ and Central Bank Governors’ meeting under India’s 2026 presidency was co-chaired by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra and whom?
A. The Chief Economic Adviser
B. DEA Secretary Anuradha Thakur
C. The President of the New Development Bank
D. The Lok Sabha Speaker
E. The CEO of NITI Aayog
View Answer
Explanation: The FMCBG meeting was co-chaired by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra and Department of Economic Affairs Secretary Anuradha Thakur. India’s 2026 BRICS presidency theme is Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability, and New Delhi also hosted the BRICS Business Forum.
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