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Daily Current Affairs
21 November, 2025
1. Which constitutional provision was discussed by the Supreme Court regarding “deemed assent” to pending Bills?
A. Article 129
B. Article 142
C. Article 200
D. Article 111
E. Article 356
Answer: B. Article 142
Explanation: Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to deliver “complete justice.” The SC clarified that Article 142 cannot be used to grant “deemed assent” to Bills pending before the Governor or President.
2. The campaign “Hamara Shauchalaya, Hamara Bhavishya” is related to which ministry?
A. Ministry of Rural Development
B. Ministry of Health
C. Ministry of Jal Shakti
D. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
E. Ministry of Environment
Answer: C. Ministry of Jal Shakti
Explanation: The campaign was launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti on World Toilet Day 2025 to upgrade rural sanitation facilities and promote community participation.
3. Geological Survey of India (GSI) was originally founded in 1851 to explore which resource?
A. Gold
B. Iron ore
C. Coal
D. Limestone
E. Natural gas
Answer: C. Coal
Explanation: GSI was established in 1851 by the British to locate coal resources needed for expanding Indian Railways.
4. The Second Regional Open Digital Health Summit (RODHS) 2025 is hosted by which country?
A. Bangladesh
B. India
C. Sri Lanka
D. Thailand
E. Nepal
Answer: B. India
Explanation: RODHS 2025 is being hosted in New Delhi with participation from WHO-SEARO member nations.
5. ‘Sagar Kavach’ is primarily an exercise related to:
A. Cyber security
B. Air defence preparedness
C. Coastal security
D. Maritime diplomacy
E. Disaster management
Answer: C. Coastal security
Explanation: ‘Sagar Kavach’ is a biannual coastal security exercise conducted by the Indian Coast Guard to test preparedness against intrusions, smuggling, and terrorist infiltration.
6. Banks have requested the RBI to raise the acquisition financing exposure limit from the current 10% of Tier-1 capital to:
A. 12–15%
B. 15–20%
C. 20–25%
D. 25–40%
E. 40–60%
Answer: D. 25–40%
Explanation: Banks argue that the current 10% cap is insufficient due to rising M&A activity and propose raising the limit to 25–40% of Tier-1 capital.
7. SEBI issued a warning in 2025 regarding which unregulated financial product?
A. Digital Mutual Funds
B. Digital Gold
C. Digital REIT Units
D. Crypto ETFs
E. Unlisted IPO Units
Answer: B. Digital Gold
Explanation: SEBI clarified that digital gold is not a regulated security, leading to a warning for investors due to risks relating to purity, storage, and counterparty reliability.
8. Online Bond Platform Providers (OBPPs) in India are governed under which SEBI regulation?
A. SEBI (Debt Instruments) Regulations, 2016
B. SEBI (Bond Trading) Regulations, 2020
C. SEBI (OBPP) Regulations, 2022
D. SEBI (Securities Contracts) Regulations, 2014
E. SEBI (Digital Markets) Regulations, 2025
Answer: C. SEBI (OBPP) Regulations, 2022
Explanation: OBPPs are governed under the SEBI (Online Bond Platform Providers) Regulations, 2022, ensuring investor protection and transparency.
9. India is the world’s ____ largest aquaculture producer according to FAO SOFIA 2024.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th
Answer: B. 2nd
Explanation: India is the 2nd-largest producer of aquaculture globally after China, contributing 23 million tonnes of aquatic animals.
10. Which flagship scheme provides ₹20,312 crore for fisheries development from 2020–26?
A. PM Krishi Sinchai Yojana
B. FIDF Scheme
C. Rashtriya Matsya Vikas Abhiyan
D. PM Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
E. Blue Economy Mission 2030
Answer: D. PM Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
Explanation: PMMSY is a ₹20,312 crore scheme aimed at building cold chains, transport, aquaculture parks, and reducing post-harvest losses.
