Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 5 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
5 June, 2026

National Affairs

1. Navachar Mantra Initiative, Supplementary Revision Pack

Source: PIB

Context:

Building on the earlier launch coverage, this update gives a closer look at Navachar Mantra’s target demographics, eligibility, six priority sectors, and structured 1-year incubation cycle. The initiative is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), implemented by NIESBUD, and aimed at identifying, supporting, and scaling grassroots innovations from Tier-2, Tier-3, and rural India.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Initiative	Navachar Mantra
Ministry	Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
Implementing agency	NIESBUD (National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development)
Target age group	18 to 55 years
Target geography	Aspirational districts, underserved geographies, and smaller towns
Eligibility	Open to ideas in validation phase or early prototype stage; no need for a registered corporate entity or a finished product
Engagement duration	1-year structured incubation
Application deadline	5 July 2026

Six Priority Operational Sectors:

• Agritech and Food Technology
• HealthTech and Wellness
• EdTech and Vocational Skilling
• Climate Action and Environmental Sustainability
• Rural Commerce and Retail Logistics
• MSME Enablement and Traditional Artisan Tech

About the Programme’s Design and Approach:

• Designed for micro-entrepreneurs, rural innovators, and early-stage start-ups.
• Focuses on localized, community-impact problem solving.
• Helps small ventures move from regional proof-of-concept to scalable national enterprises.
• Flexible registration criteria: even ideas in the validation phase can apply, not just registered companies.
• 1-year structured incubation includes thematic webinars, regulatory compliance guidance, intellectual property (IP) structuring, and tailored business fundraising roadmaps.
• Provides high-visibility national platforms through ministerial podcasts, digital showcases, and national storytelling events.
• A multi-stage expert screening follows the application phase.
• Programme is delivered through the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH).

What are Aspirational Districts?

• The Aspirational Districts Programme was launched by NITI Aayog in 2018.
• It identifies 112 of India’s most underdeveloped districts across states and union territories.
• The programme focuses on health and nutrition, education, agriculture and water, financial inclusion, skill development, and basic infrastructure.
• These districts are priority targets for schemes like Navachar Mantra that aim to drive inclusive innovation.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Navachar Mantra initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. It is implemented by the National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD).
3. It targets innovators aged 18 to 55 years, especially in aspirational districts and underserved geographies.
4. Applicants must already have a fully registered corporate entity and a finished product to apply.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Navachar Mantra has flexible eligibility, and ideas in validation phase or early prototype stage are also eligible.)

Q2. Consider the following statements about the priority sectors under Navachar Mantra:

1. The initiative focuses on six high-impact socioeconomic sectors.
2. Agritech and Food Technology is one of the priority sectors.
3. HealthTech and Wellness, EdTech and Vocational Skilling, and Climate Action and Environmental Sustainability are included.
4. MSME Enablement, Traditional Artisan Tech, and Rural Commerce and Retail Logistics are also among the priority sectors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to the structure of Navachar Mantra, consider the following statements:

1. Selected innovators undergo a year-long engagement cycle.
2. The programme includes thematic webinars, regulatory compliance guidance, and IP structuring support.
3. Application is open until 5 July 2026 on the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH).
4. Navachar Mantra is implemented by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and not by the MSDE.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Navachar Mantra is a flagship scheme of the MSDE, NOT the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Aspirational Districts Programme of NITI Aayog:

1. The Aspirational Districts Programme was launched in 2018.
2. It identifies 112 of India’s most underdeveloped districts for focused intervention.
3. The programme focuses on areas like health and nutrition, education, agriculture and water, financial inclusion, skill development, and basic infrastructure.
4. The programme is run jointly by the Reserve Bank of India and the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Aspirational Districts Programme is run by NITI Aayog, NOT by the RBI or Ministry of Finance.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Navachar Mantra has flexible eligibility, including ideas in validation or prototype stage.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Navachar Mantra is a flagship scheme of the MSDE.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Aspirational Districts Programme is run by NITI Aayog.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on Government Schemes (MSDE, Skill India, Entrepreneurship, Aspirational Districts)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on Welfare and Government policies; GS Paper III on Skill development, Entrepreneurship, Inclusive growth
BPSC and State PCS	Schemes, Skill Development, Rural Innovation, Current Affairs
Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	General Awareness on skilling and entrepreneurship
NABARD Grade A	Rural entrepreneurship and grassroots innovation
SIDBI Grade A	Entrepreneurship, innovation finance, start-up ecosystem

2. 14th Dalai Lama Formally Receives Grammy Award for Audiobook “Meditations”

Source: The New Indian Express

Context:

The 14th Dalai Lama, the Tibetan spiritual leader, has formally received his physical Grammy Award at his official residence in Dharamshala (McLeodganj), Himachal Pradesh, in June 2026. The 90-year-old leader won the award for his spoken-word audiobook album titled “Meditations: The Reflections of His Holiness the Dalai Lama”, which had won at the 68th Annual Grammy Awards in Los Angeles. He becomes the first person holding the paramount position in Tibetan Buddhism to win a Grammy Award. The album won in the “Best Audio Book, Narration, and Storytelling Recording” category.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Awardee	14th Dalai Lama (Tenzin Gyatso), age 90
Award	Grammy Award (68th Annual Grammy Awards)
Album title	“Meditations: The Reflections of His Holiness the Dalai Lama”
Album category	Best Audio Book, Narration, and Storytelling Recording
Award venue (original ceremony)	Los Angeles, USA
Trophy accepted on his behalf at the ceremony by	Musician Rufus Wainwright
Formal handover location	Dharamshala (McLeodganj), Himachal Pradesh
Historic significance	First Tibetan Buddhist supreme leader to win a Grammy
Producer of the album	Kabir Sehgal (multi-Grammy winner)
Number of tracks	10 specialised tracks
First Grammy Award ceremony	4 May 1959

About the Album “Meditations”:

• A spoken-word audiobook album that turns Buddhist metaphysics into an accessible, studio-produced format.
• Has 10 specialised tracks blending teachings on mindfulness, inner peace, and global connectivity with Indian classical music.
• The track “Water” focuses on climate shifts, drawing from environmental changes observed in Tibet since the Dalai Lama’s childhood.
• The track “Peace” describes loving-kindness and compassion as structural necessities for the survival of human society.
• Features international collaborations with artists like Andra Day, Maggie Rogers, Tony Succar, Ted Nash, Debi Nova, and Rufus Wainwright.
• Produced by multi-Grammy winner Kabir Sehgal.

About the Grammy Awards:

• Presented annually by the Recording Academy (formerly National Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences) in the United States.
• Originally conceived in the 1950s during the Hollywood Walk of Fame project to honour recording industry pioneers.
• The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on 4 May 1959.
• The trophy is the iconic gilded gramophone.
• Considered the most prestigious award in the music industry globally.

Who is 14th Dalai Lama?

• Born Lhamo Dhondup in 1935 in Taktser, Tibet; received the name Tenzin Gyatso on his formal installation as the 14th Dalai Lama.
• Identified at the age of 2 as the reincarnation of the 13th Dalai Lama.
• Lives in exile in India since 1959, after the Chinese takeover of Tibet.
• Heads the Tibetan Government-in-Exile (now Central Tibetan Administration), based in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh.
• Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1989 for his non-violent struggle for the liberation of Tibet.
• Recipient of the US Congressional Gold Medal, the Templeton Prize, and other major international honours.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the 14th Dalai Lama’s Grammy Award, consider the following statements:

1. The Dalai Lama won the award for his spoken-word audiobook titled “Meditations: The Reflections of His Holiness the Dalai Lama”.
2. The album won at the 68th Annual Grammy Awards held in Los Angeles.
3. He is the first person holding the paramount position in Tibetan Buddhism to win a Grammy Award.
4. The formal handover of the Grammy trophy took place at his residence in Dharamshala (McLeodganj), Himachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the Grammy Awards, consider the following statements:

1. The Grammy Awards are presented annually by the Recording Academy in the United States.
2. The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on 4 May 1959.
3. The “Meditations” album won in the Best Audio Book, Narration, and Storytelling Recording category.
4. The Grammy Awards are presented by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Grammy Awards are presented by the Recording Academy in the United States, NOT by UNESCO.)

Q3. Consider the following statements about the album “Meditations”:

1. The album was produced by the multi-Grammy winner Kabir Sehgal.
2. It has 10 specialised tracks blending teachings on mindfulness and inner peace with Indian classical music.
3. The track “Water” focuses on environmental and climate-related themes.
4. The album features no international collaborations and is sung entirely in Tibetan.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the album features international collaborations with artists like Andra Day, Maggie Rogers, Tony Succar, Ted Nash, Debi Nova, and Rufus Wainwright.)

Q4. With reference to the 14th Dalai Lama, consider the following statements:

1. He was born in 1935 in Taktser, Tibet, and received the name Tenzin Gyatso on his installation.
2. He has lived in exile in India since 1959, after the Chinese takeover of Tibet.
3. He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1989 for his non-violent struggle for the liberation of Tibet.
4. He is based at the headquarters of the Central Tibetan Administration in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Grammy Awards are presented by the Recording Academy, not UNESCO.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the album features international collaborations.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.

3. India Hosts 1st World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026 at Ahmedabad

Source: PIB

Context:

The Prime Minister of India is set to virtually inaugurate the 1st World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026, a first-of-its-kind global tournament that transforms yoga into a structured, competitive sport. The 5-day inaugural event is being held at the EKA Arena in Ahmedabad, Gujarat. The championship is organised by Yogasana Bharat in association with the World Yogasana Body and the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), and aims to standardise rules, scoring, and governance for competitive yoga to pave the way for its inclusion in the Olympics, Asian Games, and Commonwealth Games.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Event	1st World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026
Inauguration	Virtually by the Prime Minister of India
Duration	5 days
Venue	EKA Arena, Ahmedabad, Gujarat
Organisers	Yogasana Bharat, World Yogasana Body, and Indian Olympic Association (IOA)
Participating athletes	More than 500
Participating countries	More than 70, including USA, Japan, Uzbekistan, Ghana, Malaysia, Netherlands, and Nepal
India’s contingent	122 members
Scoring	First-ever Electronic Scoring System for global yoga

What is the Electronic Scoring System (ESS)?

• The first-ever Electronic Scoring System used in global yoga.
• Designed to eliminate subjective judging biases.
• Uses standardised, transparent metrics to score flexibility, balance, and posture control.

About Yoga and India:

• Yoga is a classical Indian practice combining physical postures (asanas), breath control (pranayama), and meditation (dhyana).
• International Day of Yoga is observed every year on 21 June, after a United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) resolution in 2014 proposed by India under Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The Ministry of AYUSH, set up in 2014, oversees the promotion of yoga and other traditional systems.
• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is India’s apex sports governing body, recognised by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the 1st World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The 5-day inaugural event is being held at the EKA Arena in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
2. It is organised by Yogasana Bharat, the World Yogasana Body, and the Indian Olympic Association.
3. More than 500 athletes from over 70 countries are participating in the championship.
4. The event will use an Electronic Scoring System for the first time in global yoga.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the disciplines and age divisions of the championship, consider the following statements:

1. Traditional Yogasana focuses on holding postures with precision and stability.
2. Artistic Yogasana is competed in Singles, Pairs, and Groups formats with choreographed, fluid movements.
3. The championship uses six age brackets, from Sub-Junior (10-14 years) to Senior C (45-55 years).
4. Rhythmic Pairs require highly synchronised transitions by two athletes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to yoga, the International Day of Yoga, and related institutions, consider the following statements:

1. The International Day of Yoga is observed every year on 21 June.
2. The day was declared by the UN General Assembly in 2014 after a proposal from India.
3. The Ministry of AYUSH, set up in 2014, oversees the promotion of yoga and other traditional systems of medicine.
4. The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is recognised by the International Olympic Committee as India’s apex sports governing body.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. Consider the following statements about the World Yogasana Sports Championship 2026:

1. The championship aims to pave the way for the inclusion of Yogasana in major multi-sport events like the Olympics, Asian Games, and Commonwealth Games.
2. India is fielding a 122-member contingent in the event.
3. The Electronic Scoring System aims to remove subjective biases by using standardised, transparent metrics.
4. The event is being held entirely online and has no physical venue.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the event has a physical venue at the EKA Arena in Ahmedabad; only the Prime Minister’s inauguration is virtual.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the event is being held physically at the EKA Arena in Ahmedabad, with only the PM’s inauguration being virtual.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper I on Culture and Heritage (Yoga); GS Paper II on Government Initiatives and Sports
UPSC Mains	GS Paper I on Indian Culture; GS Paper II on Government policies and soft power
BPSC and State PCS	Culture, Sports, Current Affairs
Banking and NABARD	General Awareness
SSC, Insurance, Railway	Static and Current GK on Yogasana, IOA, AYUSH, International Day of Yoga
Defence (NDA, CDS, AFCAT)	General Awareness on culture and sports
Sports and Physical Education exams	Very high importance
Culture, Sociology, History Optional	Yoga, soft power, sports policy

4. India Ranked 5th Most Digitalised Economy and 4th on CHIPS AI Index in ICRIER-Prosus SIDE 2026 Report

Source: Times of India

Context:

The earlier coverage focused on India’s ranking in the SIDE 2026 report. This time, we look more closely at what the CHIPS framework actually measures, why India scores high on AI, and what policy ecosystem is driving these results. India’s 8th to 5th rank jump in one year, and 4th rank on the CHIPS AI Index, reflects a combination of large user base, strong talent pipeline, and a deep stack of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) that few countries can match at India’s scale.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
India’s digital economy rank (SIDE 2026)	5th out of 71 countries
India’s previous rank (SIDE 2025)	8th out of 32 countries
India’s CHIPS AI Index rank	4th globally
Countries ahead on CHIPS AI Index	United States, China, Singapore
India’s internet user growth	8.8 per cent (vs 2.1 per cent average for other top-10 countries)
Share of global AI users	About 19.9 per cent
AI talent concentration	2nd largest in the world
Publisher of report	ICRIER-Prosus Centre for Internet and Digital Economy (IPCIDE)

About the CHIPS Framework (Closer Look):

• C, Connect: Measures internet access, broadband penetration, mobile coverage, affordability, and inclusion. India scores well because of large mobile base, low data tariffs, and rural broadband expansion (BharatNet, 5G rollout).
• H, Harness: Measures adoption and use of digital tools across business, government, and households. India scores well due to UPI, Aadhaar-based services, DigiLocker, ABDM (health), and FASTag.
• I, Innovate: Measures digital research, R&D, start-up ecosystem, and patents. India’s 3rd-largest start-up ecosystem and AI start-up growth are key drivers.
• P, Protect: Measures data protection, cyber-security, and consumer rights. India’s recent Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 and CERT-In, NCIIPC activities are key.
• S, Sustain: Measures environmental and social sustainability of the digital economy. India’s green data centres, e-waste regulations, and inclusive design matter here.

About India’s AI Story:

• India has the world’s 2nd-largest pool of AI talent, supported by IITs, IIITs, NITs, ISIs, AIIMS data-science programmes, and hundreds of engineering colleges.
• India accounts for nearly 20 per cent of global AI users, driven by mass usage of AI assistants, chatbots, recommendation engines, generative AI, and AI on smartphones.
• The IndiaAI Mission has five pillars: IndiaAI Compute, Foundation Models, Datasets, Applications, and Skilling.
• India has launched Bharat Gen, a state-funded multilingual, multimodal Large Language Model (LLM).
• The National AI Portal (indiaai.gov.in) is a public-facing hub.
• The FREE-AI Committee at the RBI has reviewed ethical AI use in finance.

Why India’s Rank Jumped from 8th to 5th?

• The 8th rank was out of 32 countries; the 5th rank is out of 71 countries, a much larger and more diverse sample.
• India’s internet user base has been growing 4 times faster than other top-10 countries.
• The AI user base in India is exploding with smartphone-based generative AI tools.
• Government policy push through Digital India, IndiaAI Mission, ONDC, and DPI exports has strengthened all five CHIPS pillars simultaneously.
• The JAM Trinity (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile) has built financial inclusion at scale.

Key Terms:

• Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI): A set of digital platforms and protocols (often built or backed by the state) that anyone, public or private, can use to build services on top, like Aadhaar, UPI, DigiLocker, and ABDM.
• JAM Trinity: Jan Dhan (bank account), Aadhaar (digital ID), and Mobile (phone), the three foundational pillars of India’s financial inclusion push.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI): Computer systems designed to perform tasks usually needing human intelligence, like understanding language, recognising images, and making decisions.
• Large Language Model (LLM): A type of AI trained on massive amounts of text that can understand and generate language, like ChatGPT-style systems. Bharat Gen is India’s homegrown LLM.
• IndiaAI Mission: India’s national mission to develop AI infrastructure, foundation models, datasets, applications, and skills.
• ONDC (Open Network for Digital Commerce): An open protocol for digital commerce in India, designed to avoid monopolies and enable interoperability between buyers, sellers, and platforms.
• Account Aggregator (AA): A consent-based data sharing system in India, regulated by the RBI, that allows individuals and businesses to share their financial data with financial institutions.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to India’s performance in the SIDE 2026 report, consider the following statements:

1. India has been ranked the 5th most digitalised economy out of 71 countries in 2026.
2. India was ranked 8th out of 32 countries in the SIDE 2025 report.
3. India’s internet users grew at 8.8 per cent, against an average of 2.1 per cent in the other top-10 countries.
4. India ranks first globally in the CHIPS AI Index.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is ranked 4th on the CHIPS AI Index, behind the United States, China, and Singapore.)

Q2. With reference to the CHIPS framework, consider the following statements:

1. The “C” pillar (Connect) measures internet access, broadband penetration, mobile coverage, affordability, and inclusion.
2. The “H” pillar (Harness) measures the adoption and use of digital tools by business, government, and households.
3. The “P” pillar (Protect) measures data protection, cybersecurity, and consumer rights.
4. The “S” pillar (Sustain) measures the environmental and social sustainability of the digital economy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to India’s AI story, consider the following statements:

1. India accounts for about 19.9 per cent of global AI users.
2. India has the second-largest concentration of AI talent in the world.
3. Bharat Gen is India’s state-funded multilingual, multimodal Large Language Model (LLM).
4. The IndiaAI Mission has five pillars: IndiaAI Compute, Foundation Models, Datasets, Applications, and Skilling.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) stack, consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar, UPI, DigiLocker, Account Aggregator, and ABDM are key components of India’s DPI stack.
2. India’s DPI stack is widely seen as a global model and is being exported through G20 leadership and bilateral partnerships.
3. The JAM Trinity stands for Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, and Mobile, the three foundational pillars of India’s financial inclusion push.
4. India’s DPI is exclusively built and operated by private fintech firms, with no role for the state.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s DPI stack is largely built or backed by the state, with active public-private collaboration, not purely by private fintech firms.)

Answer Key

1. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is 4th on the CHIPS AI Index, not 1st.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India’s DPI is largely state-built or state-backed, not purely private.

Banking/Finance

1. RBI Eases Foreign Borrowing Rules for PSUs, FCNR(B) Deposits and FII Investment Limits

Source: The Indian Express

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has unveiled a package of measures to boost foreign capital inflows and stabilise the rupee, by easing norms for foreign borrowings by state-owned enterprises, incentivising banks to mobilise FCNR(B) deposits, and liberalising FII and NRI/OCI investment limits. The move complements the government’s decision to scrap capital gains tax and withholding tax on FII investment in government bonds. RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra said these steps are expected to strengthen the balance of payments and attract foreign capital inflows during a period of rupee pressure and FPI outflows (about USD 13.4 billion equity and USD 0.3 billion debt outflows during 1 April to 2 June 2026).

Key Facts

• Step 1: Cheaper dollar loans for PSUs. PSU companies borrowing in dollars get a subsidised hedging cost from the RBI till 30 September 2026, making dollar loans cheaper.
• Step 2: Cheaper NRI deposits for banks. Banks raising 3- to 5-year FCNR(B) deposits (deposits in foreign currency held by NRIs and OCIs) get full hedging cost support till September 2026, so they can offer better rates to NRIs.
• Step 3: More bond access for foreigners. Under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), foreigners can now buy new 15-, 30-, and 40-year government bonds freely. Short-term, concentration, and single-security limits have also been removed.
• Step 4: Easier equity investment for NRIs and foreigners. NRIs, OCIs, and all Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs) can now buy listed Indian shares with higher limits and without SEBI registration.
• Step 5: Faster export earnings repatriation. Exporters now have to bring back their export earnings within 9 months, restored from the 15 months allowed in November 2025.

About the Concessional FX Swap Facility for PSU ECBs:

• A swap facility allows PSUs to convert rupee liabilities into foreign currency exposure, or vice versa, at more favourable terms than market-based hedging.
• The RBI is lowering the hedging and funding cost of foreign currency borrowing by PSUs, nudging them to tap cheaper overseas capital.

About the FCNR(B) Swap Facility for AD Banks:

• The RBI will provide full hedging cost on fresh 3- to 5-year FCNR(B) deposits raised by Authorised Dealer (AD) banks until September 2026.
• An FCNR(B) account is a fixed deposit in India held by NRIs and OCIs in foreign currencies like USD, GBP, EUR, or CAD, avoiding currency fluctuation risks for the depositor.
• With hedging costs subsidised, banks can offer more competitive interest rates without eating into their margins.
• This is expected to strengthen foreign currency inflows into the banking system, support FX liquidity, and stabilise the external account.

What is Fully Accessible Route (FAR)?

• The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) allows FIIs to buy and sell designated G-secs without any quantitative ceiling.
• The FAR has been expanded to include all new issuances of 15-year, 30-year, and 40-year G-secs.
• General Route restrictions removed: short-term investment caps, concentration limits, and individual security limits.
• These steps complement the government’s decision to scrap capital gains tax and withholding tax on FII investment in government bonds.

What is Liberalisation for NRIs, OCIs, and PROIs?

• NRIs (Non-Resident Indians), OCIs (Overseas Citizens of India), and now all Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs) get higher investment limits in listed equity instruments.
• They can invest without separate registration with SEBI.

About Export Realisation Time Limit:

• The RBI has proposed to restore the time limit for realisation of export proceeds to 9 months, providing breathing room for exporters facing global trade headwinds.

Key Terms:

• External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs): Loans taken by Indian companies (including PSUs) from foreign lenders in foreign currency (mostly USD), subject to RBI rules on end-use, maturity, and cost.
• FCNR(B) Account: Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) account, a fixed deposit held by NRIs/OCIs in India in foreign currencies, so the depositor faces no rupee depreciation risk.
• Authorised Dealer (AD) Banks: Banks licensed by the RBI under FEMA to deal in foreign exchange.
• Hedging Cost: The cost of protecting against exchange rate movements through instruments like forwards and swaps.
• Forex Swap: A contract to exchange a sum in one currency for another now, and reverse the transaction later at a pre-agreed rate.
• Fully Accessible Route (FAR): A regime under which foreign investors can freely buy and sell specified Government of India securities without any quantitative limit.
• General Route for FII Investment: An alternative regime with specified caps and concentration limits for FII debt investments.
• NRI (Non-Resident Indian): An Indian citizen who lives outside India for tax or stay purposes.
• OCI (Overseas Citizen of India): A foreign citizen of Indian origin granted lifelong visa and certain rights in India (excluding voting).
• PROI (Person Resident Outside India): Any person resident outside India under FEMA, including NRIs, OCIs, and foreign nationals.
• Capital Gains Tax (in this context): Tax on profits earned from selling investments like bonds and securities.
• Withholding Tax: A tax deducted at source when income (like interest or dividend) is paid to a foreign investor, before the money leaves the country.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s recent measures to boost foreign capital inflows, consider the following statements:

1. The RBI has announced a concessional foreign exchange swap facility for ECBs by PSUs until 30 September 2026.
2. AD banks will get a similar facility covering the full hedging cost for fresh 3- to 5-year FCNR(B) deposits until September 2026.
3. The RBI has also expanded the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) for FIIs by including new 15-, 30-, and 40-year G-sec issuances.
4. These measures complement the government’s decision to scrap capital gains tax and withholding tax on FII investment in government bonds.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about FCNR(B) accounts:

1. FCNR(B) is the Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) account scheme.
2. It is a fixed deposit held by NRIs and OCIs in foreign currencies like USD, GBP, EUR, or CAD.
3. It protects the depositor from rupee depreciation risk.
4. FCNR(B) deposits can only be held in Indian rupees.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; FCNR(B) deposits are held in foreign currencies, NOT Indian rupees.)

Q3. With reference to the Fully Accessible Route (FAR), consider the following statements:

1. Under FAR, FIIs can buy and sell designated Government of India securities without any quantitative ceiling.
2. The RBI has expanded FAR to include all new issuances of 15-, 30-, and 40-year G-sec bonds.
3. The General Route restrictions on short-term investments, concentration limits, and individual security limits for FII investments have been removed.
4. The FAR is governed by the Ministry of External Affairs and not the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; FAR is governed by the Reserve Bank of India, not the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about NRIs, OCIs, and Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs):

1. NRIs are Indian citizens who reside outside India for tax or stay purposes.
2. OCIs are foreign citizens of Indian origin granted lifelong visa and certain rights in India, excluding voting.
3. PROIs include NRIs, OCIs, and foreign nationals as defined under FEMA.
4. The RBI has restricted PROIs from investing in Indian listed equity instruments under any route.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RBI has liberalised investment limits for NRIs, OCIs, and PROIs in listed equity instruments, without requiring SEBI registration.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because FCNR(B) deposits are held in foreign currencies, not rupees.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the FAR is governed by the RBI, not the Ministry of External Affairs.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the RBI has actually liberalised, not restricted, PROI investment in listed equity instruments.

2. ADB and Standard Chartered Sign Agreements to Strengthen Supply Chain Finance in India

Source: BL

Context:

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and Standard Chartered Bank have signed agreements in June 2026 to strengthen supply chain finance in India, through risk-sharing arrangements covering both US Dollar (USD) and Indian Rupee (INR) transactions. The agreements were signed in Mumbai by Bhargav Dasgupta, Vice-President of ADB, and P.D. Singh, CEO of Standard Chartered Bank India and South Asia. The partnership aims to address financing gaps, strengthen risk-sharing mechanisms, and expand access to trade and supply chain finance for Indian businesses.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Partners	Asian Development Bank (ADB) and Standard Chartered Bank
Month and venue of signing	June 2026, Mumbai (Maharashtra)
Signed by (ADB)	Bhargav Dasgupta, Vice-President, ADB
Signed by (Standard Chartered)	P.D. Singh, CEO, Standard Chartered Bank India and South Asia
Objective	Address financing gaps and strengthen risk-sharing in supply chain finance in India
USD-denominated transactions arrangement	Risk Participation Arrangement (RPA) through GIFT City, Gujarat
INR onshore transactions arrangement	Partial Guarantee Facility (PGF) agreement
Coverage	Both domestic and cross-border trade

About the Agreement and the Partners:

• The deal has two parts: a Risk Participation Arrangement (RPA) for USD-denominated transactions through GIFT City, Gujarat, and a Partial Guarantee Facility (PGF) for onshore INR transactions.
• The arrangements aim to expand access to trade finance and supply chain finance for Indian businesses, especially those in export and import value chains.
• They also support continued flow of both domestic and cross-border trade, particularly during periods of global supply-chain stress.

About Asian Development Bank (ADB):

• Regional development bank for the Asia-Pacific region.
• Established in 1966, headquartered in Manila, Philippines.
• Has 68 members, including 49 from within Asia-Pacific and 19 from outside the region.
• India is a founding member of ADB.
• Provides loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments for development projects.
• Largest shareholders include Japan, the United States, China, India, and Australia.

About Standard Chartered Bank:

• A British multinational banking and financial services company, headquartered in London, United Kingdom.
• Formed in 1969 through the merger of The Standard Bank of British South Africa and The Chartered Bank of India, Australia and China.
• Has a strong presence in Asia, Africa, and the Middle East.
• Operates in India for over 165 years, with a significant trade and corporate banking franchise.

About GIFT City:

• Gujarat International Finance Tec-City, located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• India’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).
• Regulated by the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), set up in 2020 under the IFSCA Act, 2019.
• Allows foreign-currency-denominated transactions in a special regulatory regime, similar to global financial centres like Singapore, Dubai, and Hong Kong.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent agreements between ADB and Standard Chartered Bank, consider the following statements:

1. The agreements were signed in Mumbai in June 2026.
2. The partnership covers both USD and INR transactions.
3. The Risk Participation Arrangement is routed through GIFT City, Gujarat.
4. The Partial Guarantee Facility supports onshore INR transactions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Asian Development Bank (ADB):

1. ADB was established in 1966 and is headquartered in Manila, the Philippines.
2. ADB has 68 members, including 49 from within the Asia-Pacific region.
3. India is a founding member of ADB.
4. ADB’s largest shareholder is the United Kingdom.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; ADB’s largest shareholders include Japan and the United States, NOT the United Kingdom.)

Q3. With reference to Standard Chartered Bank, consider the following statements:

1. Standard Chartered is a British multinational bank headquartered in London.
2. It was formed in 1969 through the merger of the Standard Bank of British South Africa and the Chartered Bank of India, Australia and China.
3. It has a strong presence in Asia, Africa, and the Middle East.
4. Standard Chartered is a fully Indian public-sector bank under the Department of Financial Services.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Standard Chartered is a British multinational private bank, NOT an Indian public-sector bank.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about GIFT City:

1. GIFT City stands for Gujarat International Finance Tec-City, located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
2. It is India’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).
3. GIFT City is regulated by the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), set up under the IFSCA Act, 2019.
4. GIFT City does not allow any foreign-currency-denominated transactions.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; GIFT City allows foreign-currency-denominated transactions under a special regulatory regime.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ADB’s largest shareholders include Japan and the United States, not the United Kingdom.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Standard Chartered is a British multinational private bank, not an Indian public-sector bank.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because GIFT City explicitly allows foreign-currency-denominated transactions.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on International Organisations (ADB); GS Paper III on Indian Economy (Trade Finance, IFSC, GIFT City)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on Bilateral and multilateral institutions; GS Paper III on External sector, Banking, Trade
BPSC and State PCS	Economy, Banking, Current Affairs
Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, trade finance, supply chain finance, GIFT City, ADB
SEBI Grade A and IRDAI Grade A	Financial regulation, IFSCA, cross-border finance
SSC, Insurance, Railway	Static and Current GK on ADB, Standard Chartered, GIFT City

3. India Launches UPI Payments in Cambodia Through NPCI-ACLEDA Bank Partnership

Source: News on Air

Context

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has partnered with ACLEDA Bank to launch Unified Payments Interface (UPI) acceptance in Cambodia. With this, Cambodia becomes the latest country to accept UPI-based payments, strengthening India’s cross-border digital payments footprint in Southeast Asia. UPI is now live in over nine countries including the UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius, and Qatar.

About Cambodia:

• A culturally rich, largely rural country in mainland Southeast Asia.
• Civilization shaped over 2,000 years by Indian and Chinese cultural, religious, and architectural influences.
• Reached its classical peak under the Angkor Empire (9th to 15th century CE), famous for Angkor Wat.
• Capital: Phnom Penh.
• Currency: Cambodian Riel; the US dollar is also widely used.
• Population is largely rural, with a significant share employed in agriculture.

About UPI’s International Expansion:

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is India’s flagship real-time digital payment system, run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• It allows instant bank-to-bank money transfer through a mobile app.
• UPI is currently live in more than nine countries: UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius, and Qatar.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the launch of UPI payments in Cambodia, consider the following statements:

1. The launch is the result of a partnership between the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and ACLEDA Bank.
2. With this launch, Cambodia becomes one of more than nine countries where UPI is live.
3. UPI is operated in India by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
4. UPI’s international expansion is driven by NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the location and borders of Cambodia, consider the following statements:

1. Cambodia is bordered by Thailand to the west and northwest.
2. Cambodia is bordered by Laos to the northeast.
3. Cambodia is bordered by Vietnam to the east and southeast.
4. Cambodia’s southwestern coastline meets the Gulf of Thailand.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to Cambodia’s geography, consider the following statements:

1. The Mekong River flows about 510 km through Cambodia and serves as a major transport and economic lifeline.
2. The Tonle Sap Lake is connected to the Mekong by the Tonle Sap River and expands during the monsoon.
3. The Dangrek Mountains lie in the north, while the Cardamom and Elephant Mountains lie in the southwest of Cambodia.
4. Mount Aôral, the highest peak in Cambodia, is located in the Himalayan range.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Mount Aôral is located in the Cardamom and Elephant Mountains of Cambodia, not in the Himalayan range.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about UPI’s international footprint:

1. UPI is now live in countries including the UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius, and Qatar.
2. NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) is the wholly owned subsidiary of NPCI responsible for UPI’s international expansion.
3. UPI’s international expansion has been driven exclusively by partnerships with central banks of European countries.
4. UPI is one of the building blocks of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 3 is wrong; UPI’s international expansion has involved a mix of partnerships across Asia, Europe, the Middle East, and Africa, not just European central banks.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Mount Aôral is in the Cardamom and Elephant Mountains of Cambodia, not the Himalayas.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 4 are correct; Statement 3 is wrong because UPI’s expansion has involved partnerships across many regions, not just European central banks.

Agriculture

1. APCNF Wins the 2026 Food Planet Prize for Transforming Food Systems Through Natural Farming

Source: Down To Earth

Context

India’s Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) programme has won the prestigious 2026 Food Planet Prize, awarded in Båstad, Sweden. The Food Planet Prize is the world’s largest environmental award dedicated to transforming global food systems, established by Sweden’s Curt Bergfors Foundation. APCNF, launched in 2016, won over 1,000 international nominations from six continents, and now scales across 1.8 million farming families and 3,40,000 women’s Self Help Groups (SHGs) in Andhra Pradesh.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Award	Food Planet Prize 2026
Award venue	Båstad, Sweden
Awarding body	Curt Bergfors Foundation, Sweden
Winner	Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) programme, India
Implementing agency for APCNF	Rythu Sadhikara Samstha (RySS), under Andhra Pradesh’s agriculture department
APCNF launch year	2016
Grand prize amount	USD 1.5 million
Prize for specialised international finalists	USD 150,000 each

About the Food Planet Prize:

• It is the world’s largest environmental award focused entirely on transforming global food systems.
• Established by Sweden’s Curt Bergfors Foundation.
• Funds early-stage, high-potential projects capable of radically reshaping sustainable food value chains, rather than honouring past legacy achievements.
• The foundation also sends independent investigative journalists and photographers for unannounced on-ground verification.

About Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF):

• Launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh in 2016.
• Implemented by Rythu Sadhikara Samstha (RySS), a non-profit company set up by the state’s agriculture department.
• Aims to shift Andhra Pradesh’s farmers from chemical-input-based agriculture to natural farming, based on principles like Jeevamrutham, Beejamrutham, and Acchadana (mulching).
• Key features: no chemical fertilisers or pesticides, use of cow-based bio-inputs, diverse cropping patterns, continuous soil cover, and community-led mobilisation through women’s SHGs.
• Acts as a community-based, women-led model rather than a top-down government scheme.
• Now covers 1.8 million farming families across the state.
• Aims to eventually take all six million farming households of Andhra Pradesh to natural farming.
• Linked to broader frameworks such as National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) and Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY).

About Natural Farming:

• A chemical-free farming approach that relies on local resources, cow-based inputs, and traditional knowledge.
• Different from organic farming in that it uses even fewer external inputs and is rooted in local, community-led practice.
• Promoted globally as a climate-smart, biodiversity-friendly, low-cost approach to agriculture.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the 2026 Food Planet Prize, consider the following statements:

1. The Food Planet Prize is the world’s largest environmental award focused on transforming global food systems.
2. It is awarded by the Curt Bergfors Foundation of Sweden.
3. The 2026 award has been won by India’s Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) programme.
4. The grand prize amount is USD 1.5 million.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) programme, consider the following statements:

1. APCNF was launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh in 2016.
2. It is implemented by Rythu Sadhikara Samstha (RySS) under the state’s agriculture department.
3. The programme covers about 1.8 million farming families and around 3,40,000 women’s SHGs.
4. APCNF promotes the heavy use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides to maximise yields.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; APCNF is a chemical-free natural farming approach, NOT one that promotes heavy use of chemicals.)

Q3. With reference to the architecture of the Food Planet Prize, consider the following statements:

1. The jury follows a 50-50 split between scientific researchers and grassroots field practitioners.
2. Nominations are mapped onto a 400-spot Master Grid covering geographies, formats, and food-cycle impact points.
3. Shortlisted candidates undergo anonymous scientific review by top academics and industry experts.
4. The prize is awarded only to projects with at least 50 years of historical legacy.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the prize specifically funds early-stage, high-potential projects, NOT only legacy projects.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about natural farming and related policies in India:

1. Natural farming relies on local resources, cow-based inputs, and traditional knowledge, without chemical fertilisers or pesticides.
2. The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is a Government of India scheme promoting organic and natural farming.
3. The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) is a national-level scheme to encourage chemical-free farming.
4. Natural farming is identical to industrial high-input agriculture using genetically modified seeds.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; natural farming is the opposite of industrial high-input agriculture, and does not depend on GM seeds.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because APCNF is a chemical-free natural farming model.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the prize specifically funds early-stage, high-potential projects, not legacy ones.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because natural farming is the opposite of industrial high-input agriculture.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

Very high importance, sustainable agriculture, SHGs, rural development

Facts To Remember

1. Cabinet Approves Rs. 9,585 Crore Vehicle Replacement Scheme for Delhi-NCR

The Union Cabinet approved a two-year Rs. 9,585 crore scheme to replace 2.07 lakh BS-IV and older trucks and buses in Delhi-NCR with BS-VI-compliant or electric vehicles. The initiative aims to reduce vehicular pollution, improve air quality, and modernize commercial transport fleets across Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Benefits include interest subvention, fuel vouchers, tax concessions, registration fee waivers, and manufacturer discounts on eligible vehicles.

2. Cabinet Approves Rs. 10,000 Crore ATF Price Stabilisation Fund

The Union Cabinet approved a Rs. 10,000 crore Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) Price Stabilisation Fund to support Indian airlines affected by rising global fuel prices. The scheme will provide interest-free advances to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) and ensure stable ATF pricing for airline operators. A recovery mechanism will return excess support funds to the Consolidated Fund of India when fuel prices decline.

3. Jayant Chaudhary Launches ‘Navachar Mantra’ for Grassroots Innovators

Union Minister Jayant Chaudhary launched ‘Navachar Mantra’, a national initiative aimed at identifying, mentoring, and scaling grassroots innovations and startups. Implemented by NIESBUD with IIT Delhi’s FITT as knowledge partner, the programme offers mentorship, investor interactions, innovation showcases, and year-long support for selected innovators.

4. Centre Expands QR Tagging of FCI Foodgrain Bags

The Government of India expanded QR code tagging of Food Corporation of India (FCI) foodgrain bags to Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha. The initiative enables end-to-end tracking of foodgrain movement, enhances transparency, prevents bag recycling, and streamlines subsidy distribution through electronic Point-of-Sale (ePoS) systems.

5. T-Hub Launches Third ORBIT Space-Tech Accelerator Cohort

Hyderabad-based T-Hub launched the third cohort of its ORBIT Space-Tech Accelerator Programme and onboarded 13 startups working in propulsion systems, satellite intelligence, orbital services, geospatial technologies, and space energy systems. The accelerator is supported by Atal Innovation Mission and aims to strengthen India’s growing space-tech ecosystem.

6. UNGA Elects Five New Non-Permanent Members to UNSC

The United Nations General Assembly elected Austria, Kyrgyzstan, Portugal, Trinidad and Tobago, and Zimbabwe as non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) for the 2027–2028 term. Kyrgyzstan secured its first-ever membership of the Security Council since joining the United Nations in 1992.

7. mOECD Raises India’s FY27 GDP Growth Forecast to 6.3%

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) raised India’s FY27 GDP growth forecast by 20 basis points to 6.3% in its latest Economic Outlook report. The report projects GDP growth of 7.6% in FY26 and 6.4% in FY28 while forecasting inflation at 4.8% in FY27.

8. Lionel Messi Wins Princess of Asturias Award for Sports 2026

Argentine football legend Lionel Messi became the first footballer to receive the prestigious Princess of Asturias Award for Sports. He was recognized for his sporting achievements, global influence, and humanitarian contributions supporting education and healthcare initiatives.

9. D.K. Shivakumar Sworn In as Karnataka’s 25th Chief Minister

D. K. Shivakumar was sworn in as the 25th Chief Minister of Karnataka after succeeding Siddaramaiah. The oath of office was administered by Governor Thawar Chand Gehlot at Raj Bhavan, Bengaluru.

10. Mette Frederiksen Secures Third Consecutive Term as Denmark PM

Mette Frederiksen secured a third consecutive term as Prime Minister of Denmark after forming a new centre-left coalition government following the 2026 parliamentary elections.

11. Visa Appoints Shah Rukh Khan as Brand Ambassador

Shah Rukh Khan was appointed brand ambassador for Visa’s new ‘Infinitely More’ campaign in India. The campaign focuses on experience-led lifestyles, digital payments, travel, wellness, dining, and entertainment benefits.

12. GQG Partners Sells Stake in GMR Airports

American investment firm GQG Partners sold a 1.85% stake in GMR Airports Limited for Rs. 1,906 crore through open market transactions. The stake was acquired by Fidelity International through its investment funds.

13. India Launches First Flex-Fuel Passenger Vehicle

Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri launched India’s first flex-fuel passenger vehicle, the Maruti Suzuki Wagon R Flex-Fuel, capable of operating on ethanol-petrol blends ranging from E20 to E100. The launch supports India’s ethanol-based mobility and cleaner transportation goals.

14. KS Bharat Retires from International Cricket

Kona Srikar Bharat announced retirement from international cricket after representing India in seven Test matches. He will now pursue opportunities in overseas T20 leagues while continuing domestic cricket commitments.

15. Constitutional Expert Subhash C. Kashyap Passes Away

Renowned constitutional expert and former Lok Sabha Secretary-General Subhash C. Kashyap passed away at the age of 97. A Padma Bhushan awardee, he authored over 100 books on India’s Constitution, parliamentary procedures, and political system.

16. Former CBFC Chairman Pahlaj Nihalani Passes Away

Veteran film producer and former CBFC Chairman Pahlaj Nihalani passed away at the age of 76. He was known for producing several successful Bollywood films and served as CBFC Chairperson from 2015 to 2017.

17. International Day for the Fight Against IUU Fishing 2026 – June 5

The United Nations observed the International Day for the Fight Against Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) Fishing on June 5. The day raises awareness about the environmental and economic impacts of illegal fishing and promotes sustainable fisheries management worldwide.

18. International Level Crossing Awareness Day 2026 – June 5

International Level Crossing Awareness Day (ILCAD) was observed on June 5 under the slogan “Alert Today, Safe Tomorrow”. The observance promotes safety at railway crossings and encourages responsible behaviour among road and rail users.

19. Telangana and Germany’s Thuringia Sign Cooperation Pact

The Government of Telangana signed a cooperation agreement with the German state of Thuringia to strengthen collaboration in skill development, innovation, industrial growth, workforce training, startups, and life sciences. The partnership also includes plans for a German Language Training Hub in Hyderabad to improve overseas employment opportunities.