Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 12&13 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
12&13 June, 2026

International Affairs

1. The FIFA World Cup 2026

Context:

The 23rd edition of the FIFA World Cup officially kicked off on 11 June 2026, marking the largest structural expansion in the history of international football. For the first time, the tournament features 48 teams (up from 32), with 104 matches (up from 64), spread across a 39-day international championship. The tournament is jointly hosted by three nations: United States (11 cities), Mexico (3 cities), and Canada (2 cities), for a total of 16 host cities. Argentina enters as the defending champion after winning its third title in 2022. Cape Verde, Curaçao, Jordan, and Uzbekistan are making their historic World Cup debuts.

The Tournament

• Edition: 23rd FIFA World Cup.
• Kick-off date: 11 June 2026.
• Duration: 39 days.
• Hosts: United States, Mexico, Canada.
• Host cities: 16 total (US: 11, Mexico: 3, Canada: 2).
• Defending champion: Argentina (third title in 2022).

Hosting Milestones

• United States: Previously hosted in 1994.
• Mexico: Becomes the first country to host or co-host a World Cup three times (1970, 1986, 2026).
• Canada: Debut as a World Cup host nation.

Debut Nations

• Cape Verde.
• Curaçao.
• Jordan.
• Uzbekistan.

Top Football Champion Nations (All-Time)

• Brazil: 5 titles (1958, 1962, 1970, 1994, 2002).
• Germany: 4 titles (1954, 1974, 1990, 2014).
• Italy: 4 titles (1934, 1938, 1982, 2006).
• Argentina: 3 titles (1978, 1986, 2022).
• Uruguay: 2 titles (1930, 1950).
• France: 2 titles (1998, 2018).
• England: 1 title (1966).
• Spain: 1 title (2010).

About FIFA

• Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA).
• Founded: 21 May 1904 in Paris, France.
• Headquarters: Zurich, Switzerland.
• Current FIFA President: Gianni Infantino (since 2016).
• Total member associations: 211 (more than the UN).
• Six confederations: AFC, CAF, CONCACAF, CONMEBOL, OFC, UEFA.

India’s Position

• India is a member of the AFC.
• India has never qualified for the FIFA World Cup.
• India was offered a spot in the 1950 FIFA World Cup in Brazil, but withdrew.
• India is ranked far below the AFC’s 8.5 slots.
• India’s football future is closely tied to the AIFF (All India Football Federation) and Indian Super League (ISL).

Recent FIFA World Cup Winners

• 2022 (Qatar): Argentina.
• 2018 (Russia): France.
• 2014 (Brazil): Germany.
• 2010 (South Africa): Spain.
• 2006 (Germany): Italy.
• 2002 (Japan/South Korea): Brazil.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the FIFA World Cup 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The 2026 FIFA World Cup is the 23rd edition of the tournament.
2. It is jointly hosted by the United States (11 cities), Mexico (3 cities), and Canada (2 cities).
3. The tournament has expanded from 32 to 48 teams for the first time.
4. The total number of matches has been reduced from 64 to 32.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the total number of matches has increased from 64 to 104, NOT decreased.)

Q2. With reference to hosting milestones at the 2026 FIFA World Cup, consider the following statements:

1. Mexico becomes the first country to host or co-host a World Cup three times (1970, 1986, 2026).
2. The United States previously hosted the World Cup in 1994.
3. Canada is making its debut as a World Cup host nation in 2026.
4. India is one of the joint hosts of the 2026 World Cup.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is NOT a host of the 2026 World Cup; only US, Mexico, and Canada are joint hosts.)

Q3. With reference to historic World Cup champions, consider the following statements:

1. Brazil has won the most FIFA World Cup titles (5).
2. Germany and Italy have each won 4 World Cup titles.
3. Argentina won its third World Cup title in 2022.
4. England has won the most World Cup titles in Europe, with 5 titles.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; England has won only 1 World Cup title (in 1966), NOT 5.)

Q4. With reference to FIFA and its confederations, consider the following statements:

1. FIFA was founded on 21 May 1904 in Paris, France.
2. FIFA is headquartered in Zurich, Switzerland.
3. FIFA has six continental confederations: AFC, CAF, CONCACAF, CONMEBOL, OFC, and UEFA.
4. India is a member of UEFA, the European confederation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is a member of the AFC (Asian Football Confederation), NOT UEFA.)

Q5. With reference to debut nations at the 2026 FIFA World Cup, consider the following statements:

1. Cape Verde, Curaçao, Jordan, and Uzbekistan are making their World Cup debuts in 2026.
2. India is making its World Cup debut in 2026.
3. The 2026 World Cup has 12 groups of 4 teams each.
4. The top 2 teams from each group, plus the 8 best third-placed teams, advance to a new Round of 32 knockout stage.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 2 is wrong; India is NOT making its World Cup debut in 2026; India has never qualified for the FIFA World Cup.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because matches increased from 64 to 104.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is not a host of the 2026 World Cup.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because England has won only 1 World Cup title.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is a member of AFC, not UEFA.
5. (a), Statements 1, 3, 4 are correct; Statement 2 is wrong because India has never qualified for the World Cup.

2. The First Carbon Credits Under Article 6.4 of the Paris Agreement

Source: Down To Earth

Context

The United Nations carbon market has officially issued its first-ever carbon credits under Article 6.4 of the Paris Agreement for a clean-cooking project in Myanmar. The credits are issued for replacing traditional wood-fired stoves with clean-cooking stoves in communities in Myanmar’s central Dry Zone, including the conflict-affected Sagaing Region. The Republic of Korea (South Korea) is the partner nation that will use part of the credits for its Emissions Trading System (ETS) compliance, while the rest supports Myanmar’s NDC goals. The project marks the transition of the Kyoto Protocol’s Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) to the Paris Agreement’s Article 6.4 mechanism, but has drawn criticism over the military junta’s control of Myanmar’s environment ministry.

The First-Ever Credits

• First carbon credits issued under Article 6.4 of the Paris Agreement.
• Project: Clean-cooking stoves replacing wood-fired stoves.
• Host nation: Myanmar (Dry Zone, including the Sagaing Region).
• Partner nation: Republic of Korea (South Korea).
• Governing authority: Article 6.4 Supervisory Body of the UN Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism.

What is a Carbon Credit?

• A tradeable certificate or permit that represents the verified reduction, avoidance, or removal of 1 metric tonne of CO2 or its equivalent greenhouse gas (CO2e) from the atmosphere.
• Designed as high-integrity assets that funnel international finance toward sustainable climate solutions.

How the Project Works

• Step 1 (Deployment): Clean-cooking stoves replace traditional wood-fired stoves, reducing fuel consumption and improving household energy efficiency.
• Step 2 (Emissions Tracking): Lower firewood use cuts indoor air pollution and deforestation.
• Step 3 (Verification): The UN verifies avoided emissions using updated scientific baselines and issues fewer credits to ensure environmental integrity.
• Step 4 (Cross-Border Transfer): A portion of credits transferred to South Korea for ETS compliance, with the rest supporting Myanmar’s NDC goals.

What is Article 6 of the Paris Agreement?

• Article 6 of the Paris Agreement (2015) provides the framework for international cooperation on climate action, particularly through carbon markets.
• Three main sub-articles:
  • Article 6.2: Bilateral or multilateral cooperative approaches between countries via Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs).
  • Article 6.4: A centralised mechanism under UN supervision, often called the Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism (PACM) or Sustainable Development Mechanism (SDM). Replaces the Kyoto CDM.
  • Article 6.8: Non-market approaches for cooperation without carbon credit trading.

What is the CDM and How is Article 6.4 Different?

• Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) was established under the Kyoto Protocol (1997).
• Allowed developed countries to earn emission reduction credits by funding projects in developing countries.
• Issues: Concerns over integrity, additionality, double counting, and lax verification.
• Article 6.4 mechanism:
  • Stricter additionality and verification standards.
  • No double counting (via Corresponding Adjustments).
  • Conservative baselines to ensure environmental integrity.
  • Public consultation and appeal mechanisms.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the first-ever carbon credits issued under Article 6.4 of the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements:

1. The credits are issued for a clean-cooking project in Myanmar.
2. The Republic of Korea (South Korea) is the partner nation.
3. The credits are issued by the Article 6.4 Supervisory Body of the UN Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism.
4. The project is one of the last to operate under the Kyoto Protocol’s CDM, with no link to the Paris Agreement.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the project is transitioning to the Paris Agreement’s Article 6.4 mechanism, NOT operating under the Kyoto CDM.)

Q2. With reference to Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements:

1. Article 6.2 allows bilateral or multilateral cooperative approaches via ITMOs (Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes).
2. Article 6.4 is a centralised UN-supervised carbon market, sometimes called the Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism (PACM).
3. Article 6.8 covers non-market approaches for cooperation without carbon credit trading.
4. Article 6 prohibits any form of international cooperation in climate action.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Article 6 enables international cooperation through markets and non-market approaches, NOT prohibits it.)

Q3. With reference to the CDM and Article 6.4 mechanism, consider the following statements:

1. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) was established under the Kyoto Protocol (1997).
2. The Article 6.4 mechanism replaces the CDM with stricter additionality and verification standards.
3. The Article 6.4 mechanism uses Corresponding Adjustments to prevent double counting.
4. The Article 6.4 mechanism allows credit transfers without any verification or accounting checks.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Article 6.4 mechanism requires strict verification, baselines, and Corresponding Adjustments.)

Q4. With reference to India’s carbon market and climate position, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) was notified in 2023.
2. The CCTS is administered by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power.
3. India has committed to Net Zero by 2070 under its updated NDC.
4. India is not a party to the Paris Agreement.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is a party to the Paris Agreement, having ratified it on 2 October 2016.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the project is transitioning to Article 6.4, not operating under the Kyoto CDM.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Article 6 enables international cooperation.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Article 6.4 mechanism requires strict verification.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is a party to the Paris Agreement.

National Affairs

1. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Emerges as Nationwide Movement Promoting Girl Child Empowerment

Source: News on Air

Context:

The Government of India’s flagship initiative, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP), has emerged as a nationwide movement promoting behavioural change and empowering the girl child. Launched in January 2015, the scheme was designed to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and gender-based discrimination. According to the Ministry of Women and Child Development, key indicators have improved over the decade: the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) has improved from 918 (2014-15) to 929 (2024-25) per HMIS data, and girls’ enrolment at secondary level has risen from 75.51 per cent (2014-15) to 80.2 per cent (2024-25) per UDISE data. The scheme continues to focus on community engagement, awareness, and inter-ministerial convergence.

The Scheme at a Glance

• Name: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP).
• Launched: 22 January 2015 at Panipat, Haryana by PM Narendra Modi.
• Implementing ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD).
• Convergent ministries: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and Ministry of Education (MoE).
• Aim: Address declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) and promote girls’ education and empowerment.

Three-Pillar Objective

• Prevent gender-biased sex-selective elimination.
• Ensure survival and protection of the girl child.
• Ensure education and participation of the girl child.

Key Achievements Over the Decade

• Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB): improved from 918 (2014-15) to 929 (2024-25) per HMIS data.
• Girls’ enrolment at secondary level: increased from 75.51 per cent (2014-15) to 80.2 per cent (2024-25) per UDISE data.
• Greater institutional deliveries preventing gender-biased sex selection.
• Significant community awareness and behaviour change across India.

Linked Schemes for Girl Child

• Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY, 2015): Small savings scheme for girls.
• Mahila Shakti Kendra (2017): Convergent women empowerment platform.
• PM Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): Cash transfer for first-time mothers.
• Anganwadi-based pre-school and ICDS: Early childhood development.
• Kishori Shakti Yojana / SAG (Scheme for Adolescent Girls): For adolescent girls.
• One Stop Centres (Sakhi): For women in distress.
• Mission Shakti: Umbrella scheme covering “Sambal” (safety) and “Samarthya” (empowerment) sub-schemes.

Why is the Sex Ratio at Birth Important?

• Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB): The number of girls born per 1,000 boys.
• A natural SRB is around 950 girls per 1,000 boys.
• India’s historical SRB has been skewed against girls due to gender-biased sex selection.
• A declining SRB signals deep-rooted gender discrimination.

Sex Ratio vs Child Sex Ratio vs Sex Ratio at Birth

• Sex Ratio (SR): The number of females per 1,000 males in the entire population.
• Child Sex Ratio (CSR): The number of girls per 1,000 boys in the 0-6 years age group.
• Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB): The number of girls born per 1,000 boys in a given year.

India’s Key Indicators (Latest)

• Overall Sex Ratio (Census 2011): 943 females per 1,000 males.
• Census 2011 Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years): 919 girls per 1,000 boys.
• SRS data (latest): SRB around 929-930 girls per 1,000 boys.
• NFHS-5 (2019-21): Sex Ratio at 1,020 females per 1,000 males (in households).

India’s Performance on Global Gender Indicators

• WEF Global Gender Gap Report 2024: India ranked 129 out of 146 countries.
• UNDP Gender Inequality Index 2024: India improved in recent years.
• UN SDG 5 (Gender Equality): India has made steady progress in education and health, though economic participation remains a challenge.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme, consider the following statements:

1. BBBP was launched on 22 January 2015 at Panipat, Haryana by PM Narendra Modi.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, with convergence from the Ministries of Health and Family Welfare and Education.
3. The scheme aims to address the declining Child Sex Ratio and gender-based discrimination.
4. BBBP is a state government scheme with no role for the central government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; BBBP is a central government scheme, NOT a state government scheme.)

Q2. With reference to BBBP’s achievements per the recent Ministry update, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) per HMIS data has improved from 918 (2014-15) to 929 (2024-25).
2. Girls’ enrolment at secondary level per UDISE data has increased from 75.51 per cent (2014-15) to 80.2 per cent (2024-25).
3. The scheme has expanded from 100 initial districts to all districts of India.
4. The Sex Ratio at Birth has declined over the past decade.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the SRB has improved, NOT declined.)

Q3. With reference to sex ratio concepts, consider the following statements:

1. Sex Ratio (SR) is the number of females per 1,000 males in the entire population.
2. Child Sex Ratio (CSR) is the number of girls per 1,000 boys in the 0-6 years age group.
3. Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) is the number of girls born per 1,000 boys in a given year.
4. According to Census 2011, India’s overall Sex Ratio was 943 females per 1,000 males.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to the PCPNDT Act and related laws, consider the following statements:

1. The PCPNDT Act stands for the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act.
2. The Act was passed in 1994 and amended in 2003.
3. The Act prohibits the use of prenatal diagnostic techniques for sex selection or determination.
4. The PCPNDT Act mandates compulsory prenatal sex determination for all pregnant women.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the PCPNDT Act prohibits prenatal sex selection, NOT mandates it.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because BBBP is a central government scheme.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the SRB has improved, not declined.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the PCPNDT Act prohibits prenatal sex selection.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on Government Schemes (BBBP, SSY, Mission Shakti, PMMVY); GS Paper I on Society
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on Welfare, Women and Child; GS Paper I on Society, Gender
BPSC and State PCS	Schemes, Women and Child, Current Affairs
Banking and NABARD	General Awareness on schemes
SSC, Insurance, Railway	Static and Current GK on BBBP, SRB, CSR, PCPNDT

Banking/Finance

1. Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) or FCNR(B)

Source: The Economic Times

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a special dispensation allowing commercial banks to mobilise fresh 3- to 5-year FCNR(B) deposits, with the RBI absorbing the full hedging cost through a special swap window. This is aimed at attracting NRI capital to support the rupee and shore up forex reserves. FCNR(B) deposits are fixed-term foreign currency bank accounts opened in India by NRIs, OCIs, and PIOs, allowing them to retain their savings in foreign currency without rupee depreciation risk. The new scheme uses a 4-step swap mechanism at the FBIL Reference Rate, with interest income tax-free in India and deposits exempt from CRR and SLR.

The FCNR(B) Account in Brief

• Account type: Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) fixed deposit.
• Eligible depositors: NRIs, OCIs, and PIOs.
• Currency: USD, GBP, EUR, JPY, AUD, CAD, and a few others.
• Maturity: 1 to 5 years (current swap scheme focuses on 3 to 5 years).
• Tax: Interest fully exempt from income tax in India.
• CRR and SLR: Fully exempt, so banks can deploy 100 per cent of funds.
• Currency risk: Borne by the bank (since the deposit is in foreign currency), not the depositor.

Aim of the Scheme

• For banks: Provide a stable, large-scale source of low-cost overseas funding to shore up India’s capital account.
• For NRIs: Offer a route to earn tax-free returns in India without rupee depreciation risk.

The 4-Step Swap Mechanism

The RBI’s new swap window works in four clean steps:

• Step 1 (Deposit Inflow): An NRI places foreign currency (USD, GBP, EUR, JPY, AUD, CAD) into the Indian bank as an FCNR(B) deposit.
• Step 2 (Spot Transaction, First Leg): The commercial bank sells these dollars to the RBI once a week in multiples of USD 1 million, at the official daily FBIL Reference Rate.
• Step 3 (Forward Buyback, Second Leg): The bank simultaneously agrees to buy back the same amount of dollars from the RBI at the end of the 3- to 5-year maturity period.
• Step 4 (Concessional Par Pricing): The buyback rate is the same as the first leg (par pricing). This means the RBI absorbs the entire forward premium, eliminating the bank’s operational hedging cost (about 3.5 per cent).

What is the FBIL Reference Rate?

• FBIL (Financial Benchmarks India Private Limited) is India’s benchmark administrator.
• Set up in 2014.
• Jointly owned by FIMMDA, FEDAI, and IBA.
• Regulated by the RBI.
• Publishes official daily reference rates for:
  • USD-INR.
  • EUR-INR.
  • GBP-INR.
  • JPY-INR.
  • Other currency pairs.
• The FBIL Reference Rate is the default benchmark used in regulatory FX transactions, including the RBI’s FCNR(B) swap window.

Why is the FCNR(B) Window So Strategic?

• India’s NRI diaspora is the largest in the world, about 35 million NRIs and PIOs/OCIs.
• Remittances to India: about USD 138 billion in 2024, the largest globally.
• A focused FCNR(B) push can:
  • Bring in significant dollar inflows (USD 40-55 billion expected).
  • Stabilise the rupee during periods of stress (FPI outflows, oil shocks).
  • Build forex reserves to buffer future shocks.
  • Diversify funding sources for Indian banks.

FCNR(B) vs NRE vs NRO at a Glance

Feature	FCNR(B)	NRE	NRO
Currency	Foreign currency	Indian Rupees	Indian Rupees
Repatriability	Fully repatriable	Fully repatriable	Limited (up to USD 1 mn/year)
Tax on interest	Tax-free in India	Tax-free in India	Taxable in India
Currency risk	Borne by bank	Borne by depositor	Borne by depositor
CRR and SLR	Exempt	Subject	Subject
Type	Fixed deposit only	Savings and FD	Savings, FD, current

Key Terms

• FCNR(B) (Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank): A fixed term deposit in India by NRIs and OCIs in foreign currency, fully repatriable, tax-free, and exempt from CRR and SLR.
• NRI (Non-Resident Indian): An Indian citizen residing abroad for tax or stay-related reasons.
• OCI (Overseas Citizen of India): A foreign citizen of Indian origin granted lifelong visa and certain rights in India (excluding voting).
• PIO (Person of Indian Origin): A foreign citizen of Indian origin, a category largely merged with OCI in 2015.
• Forex Swap: A contract to exchange currencies now and reverse the deal later at a pre-agreed rate.
• Hedging Cost: The cost of protecting against unfavourable currency or interest rate movements.
• Forward Premium: The difference between the forward exchange rate and the spot rate, reflecting interest rate differentials and other factors.
• Par Pricing: A pricing convention where the buyback rate equals the spot rate, neutralising forward premium.
• FBIL (Financial Benchmarks India Private Limited): India’s benchmark administrator, set up in 2014, that publishes daily reference rates.
• CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio): The share of deposits banks must keep with the RBI in cash, currently 3 per cent.
• SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio): The share of deposits banks must invest in approved securities (mostly G-secs), currently 18 per cent.
• Net Interest Margin (NIM): The difference between a bank’s interest income and interest expense, as a percentage of interest-earning assets.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the FCNR(B) account, consider the following statements:

1. FCNR(B) accounts can be opened by NRIs, OCIs, and PIOs.
2. The deposits are held in foreign currencies like USD, GBP, EUR, JPY, AUD, and CAD.
3. Interest earned on FCNR(B) deposits is tax-free in India.
4. The depositor bears the rupee depreciation risk on FCNR(B) deposits.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; FCNR(B) deposits are held in foreign currency, so the depositor is protected from rupee depreciation risk; the bank bears the currency risk.)

Q2. With reference to the RBI’s new FCNR(B) swap mechanism, consider the following statements:

1. The mechanism involves two legs: a spot transaction (first leg) and a forward buyback (second leg) at par pricing.
2. The RBI sets the forward buyback rate equal to the spot rate, absorbing the entire forward premium.
3. The bank sells dollars to the RBI once a week in multiples of USD 1 million at the official FBIL Reference Rate.
4. The bank bears the hedging cost under the new scheme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RBI bears the hedging cost under the new scheme, NOT the bank.)

Q3. With reference to the FBIL Reference Rate, consider the following statements:

1. FBIL stands for Financial Benchmarks India Private Limited.
2. FBIL is jointly owned by FIMMDA, FEDAI, and IBA, and is regulated by the RBI.
3. FBIL publishes official daily reference rates for currency pairs like USD-INR, EUR-INR, GBP-INR, and JPY-INR.
4. FBIL is a private foreign agency based in London, with no Indian regulatory oversight.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; FBIL is an Indian benchmark administrator, jointly owned by FIMMDA, FEDAI, and IBA, and regulated by the RBI.)

Q4. With reference to NRE, NRO, and FCNR(B) accounts, consider the following statements:

1. NRE accounts are rupee-denominated, fully repatriable, and offer tax-free interest in India.
2. NRO accounts are rupee-denominated, with taxable interest in India and limited repatriability (up to USD 1 million per year).
3. FCNR(B) accounts are foreign currency-denominated, fully repatriable, and exempt from CRR and SLR.
4. NRE and NRO accounts also protect the depositor from rupee depreciation, just like FCNR(B) accounts.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; only FCNR(B) accounts protect depositors from rupee depreciation; NRE and NRO accounts are held in rupees and expose depositors to rupee risk.)

Answer Key

1. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the depositor is protected from rupee depreciation risk.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the RBI bears the hedging cost, not the bank.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because FBIL is an Indian benchmark administrator regulated by the RBI.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because only FCNR(B) accounts protect depositors from rupee depreciation.

2. FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026

Source: The Hindu

Context

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment (FCRA) Bill, 2026, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2026, proposes significant changes to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010. Supporters of the Bill argue it strengthens transparency and national security by addressing misuse of foreign funds. Critics argue it expands executive power, weakens due process, and threatens NGOs, religious institutions, and minority-run educational and charitable bodies. The Bill builds on the 2020 FCRA amendments, which had already tightened the regime.

The Bill at a Glance

• Bill name: Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026.
• Introduced: Lok Sabha, 25 March 2026.
• Existing law: Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
• Last major amendment: 2020.

Key Proposed Changes (Per the Op-Ed)

• New Chapter IIIA added; earlier Section 15 removed.
• New Section 14B: Automatic “cessation” of FCRA registration if renewal is denied, not applied for on time, or pending.
• New Section 16A (the most discussed): On cancellation, surrender, or cessation of FCRA registration, all foreign contributions and assets can provisionally vest in a government-designated authority without prior judicial review.
• The Designated Authority can manage, transfer, or dispose of assets; sale proceeds credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Permanent vesting if restoration or re-registration is not secured within the prescribed period.
• Amended Section 13: Bars organisations from managing assets without prior approval during suspension.
• Revised Section 43: Centralises enforcement, requiring Union government approval before any state agency can investigate FCRA violations.
• Broader definitions of “key functionaries” with increased personal liability for office-bearers.
• Abolition of Section 22, which currently deals with disposal of assets of defunct or non-operational organisations.

What is the FCRA?

• The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (replacing the earlier 1976 Act) regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and companies in India.
• Administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• Aims to ensure that foreign contributions are not used for activities detrimental to national interest.
• Requires registration or prior permission for NGOs and other organisations to receive foreign contributions.
• Prohibits certain categories (political parties, election candidates, judges, government servants, media houses) from receiving foreign contributions.

What Are the Constitutional Articles Cited?

• Article 14: Equality before law and equal protection of laws.
• Article 19(1)(c): Freedom of association.
• Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
• Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs, including the right to administer property.
• Article 29: Protection of interests of minorities.
• Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• Article 300A: Right to property (a constitutional right, not a fundamental right since the 44th Amendment, 1978).

Key Terms

• FCRA (Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010): An Indian law that regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals and organisations.
• Foreign Contribution: Any donation, delivery, or transfer made by a foreign source, including currency, articles, or securities.
• Foreign Source: Defined under the FCRA, includes foreign governments, agencies, foreign companies, foreign trusts, NRIs (in some contexts), and foreign citizens.
• FCRA Registration: A mandatory licence for organisations to receive foreign contributions.
• Cancellation/Suspension of Registration: When MHA cancels or suspends an FCRA licence for violations or other grounds.
• Designated Authority: A government-appointed authority that, under the 2026 Bill, would manage and dispose of assets of FCRA-cancelled organisations.
• Provisional Vesting: A temporary government takeover of assets of an FCRA-cancelled organisation, pending possible restoration.
• Permanent Vesting: A permanent government takeover of assets, with sale proceeds going to the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Consolidated Fund of India (CFI): The government’s main account under Article 266(1) of the Constitution, that receives all revenues, loans, and recovered loans.
• Civil Society Organisations (CSOs): Non-state, non-profit organisations that work for public interest causes.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), consider the following statements:

1. The FCRA, 2010 replaced an earlier FCRA enacted in 1976.
2. The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. Under the FCRA, political parties, election candidates, judges, and government servants are barred from receiving foreign contributions.
4. The FCRA, 2010 is administered by the Ministry of External Affairs.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, NOT the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the 2020 FCRA amendments (background), consider the following statements:

1. All foreign contributions must be received in a single FCRA Account at the State Bank of India in New Delhi.
2. Administrative expenditure was reduced from 50 per cent to 20 per cent of foreign contributions.
3. Sub-granting to smaller organisations was banned.
4. The Aadhaar of key functionaries was made mandatory for registration and renewal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to the constitutional articles often cited in FCRA debates, consider the following statements:

1. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws.
2. Article 19(1)(c) guarantees the right to freedom of association.
3. Article 30 protects the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
4. Article 300A is a fundamental right protecting the right to property.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Article 300A is a constitutional right, not a fundamental right, after the 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978 removed the right to property from the chapter on fundamental rights.)

Q4. With reference to the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026 (as described in the editorial), consider the following statements:

1. The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2026.
2. The Bill introduces a new Chapter IIIA dealing with the management of FCRA assets after cancellation or cessation of registration.
3. The proposed Section 16A allows provisional vesting of foreign contributions and derived assets in a government-designated authority on cancellation, surrender, or cessation.
4. The Bill has already been enacted into law in March 2026.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Bill has only been introduced, NOT enacted; the parliamentary process and possible judicial review are still pending.)

Answer Key

1. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Article 300A is a constitutional right, not a fundamental right.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Bill has only been introduced, not enacted.

3. India to Grow at 6.6 Per Cent in FY27, World Bank Raises Forecast

Source: ET

Context

The World Bank has raised India’s GDP growth projection by 10 basis points (bps) to 6.6 per cent for FY27 in its latest Global Economic Prospects report. It has also raised India’s FY28 growth forecast by 60 bps to 7.2 per cent. The upgrade reflects resilient domestic demand, strong rural private consumption, recovering urban demand, and the expected mitigating effect of FTAs and structural reforms. However, the global growth outlook has been cut to 2.5 per cent in 2026 (from 2.9 per cent in 2025), the lowest pace since the COVID-19 pandemic, due to the West Asia conflict and higher energy prices.

India’s Forecast Numbers

• FY27 GDP growth: 6.6 per cent (up by 10 bps from earlier January projection).
• FY28 GDP growth: 7.2 per cent (up by 60 bps).
• FY29 GDP growth: 7.0 per cent.
• The 6.6 per cent FY27 forecast is in line with the RBI’s projection.
• The 6.6 per cent FY27 forecast is lower than the 7.7 per cent FY26 (provisional) growth estimated by MoSPI.

About the World Bank Group

• A multilateral development institution that provides loans, grants, and technical assistance to developing countries.
• Founded in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference (along with the IMF).
• Headquartered in Washington DC, USA.
• Current President: Ajay Banga (Indian-American, since June 2023).

The Five Institutions of the World Bank Group

• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) – founded 1944.
• International Development Association (IDA) – founded 1960.
• International Finance Corporation (IFC) – founded 1956.
• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) – founded 1988.
• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) – founded 1966.

Note: The term “World Bank” specifically refers to the IBRD and IDA, while the World Bank Group includes all five.

Key World Bank Publications

• Global Economic Prospects (GEP): Published twice a year (January and June), with global and country-specific growth projections.
• World Development Report (WDR): Annual flagship report on a specific development theme.
• Doing Business Report: Earlier published, discontinued in 2021.
• Logistics Performance Index (LPI): Ranks countries by logistics performance.
• Human Capital Index (HCI): Measures expected human capital productivity.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the World Bank’s latest growth projections for India, consider the following statements:

1. The World Bank has projected India’s GDP growth at 6.6 per cent for FY27, up by 10 bps from its January projection.
2. The World Bank has projected India’s GDP growth at 7.2 per cent for FY28, up by 60 bps.
3. The World Bank’s FY27 growth projection for India is in line with the RBI’s projection.
4. The World Bank’s FY27 growth projection for India is higher than India’s FY26 (provisional) growth estimate by MoSPI.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 6.6 per cent FY27 forecast is lower than the 7.7 per cent FY26 (provisional) growth estimated by MoSPI.)

Q2. With reference to the World Bank’s global growth outlook, consider the following statements:

1. The World Bank has cut its 2026 global growth projection to 2.5 per cent from 2.9 per cent in 2025.
2. The 2.5 per cent global growth in 2026 is the lowest since the COVID-19 pandemic.
3. The cut is linked to higher energy prices and the West Asia conflict.
4. The World Bank is projecting global growth to fall further in 2027 and 2028.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the World Bank expects global growth to recoup in 2027-28, NOT fall further.)

Q3. With reference to the World Bank Group, consider the following statements:

1. The World Bank Group was founded in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
2. The World Bank Group consists of five institutions, including the IBRD, IDA, IFC, MIGA, and ICSID.
3. The World Bank Group is headquartered in Washington DC, USA.
4. The current President of the World Bank Group, Ajay Banga, is of Indian origin.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to India’s FTA progress and growth drivers, consider the following statements:

1. The India-Oman FTA came into force in June 2026.
2. India-EU and India-New Zealand FTAs are expected to be implemented soon.
3. India-UAE signed a CEPA in 2022.
4. India’s FY27 growth is being driven entirely by net exports, with no role for domestic demand.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s growth is being driven primarily by domestic demand, especially rural consumption and urban recovery, NOT by net exports.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the 6.6 per cent FY27 forecast is lower than the 7.7 per cent FY26 growth.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the World Bank expects global growth to recoup in 2027-28.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India’s growth is driven primarily by domestic demand.

Agriculture

1. Indian Agri-Tech and Water-Tech Startups Must Move Beyond Basic Problem-Solving: NITI Aayog Official

Source: Business Standard

Context:

Himanshu Joshi, Programme Director at NITI Aayog, has called on Indian agri-tech and water-tech startups to move beyond basic problem-solving and adopt advanced technologies to enter new markets and overcome regulatory and technology-maturity challenges. Speaking at the Nasscom Deeptech Confluence 2026 on Agri and Water Tech, Joshi drew on examples from NITI Aayog’s bilateral collaboration programmes with countries like Denmark, where foreign startups have improvised and adapted their products to Indian conditions and scaled across the Global South.

Examples Cited

• A global water-tech startup extended its India stay after finding opportunities to test technology in Indian conditions, with potential markets across the Global South.
• An agri-drone startup initially focused on identifying quality coconuts ready for harvesting in Lakshadweep. Later, it expanded to use AI for:
  • Optimal harvesting times.
  • Disease risk identification.
• These were foreign startups that improvised and found new use cases.

What is Agri-Tech?

• Agri-tech refers to technology applied to agriculture to improve productivity, sustainability, market access, and farmer incomes.
• Examples:
  • Precision agriculture: GPS-guided machinery, variable-rate inputs.
  • Sensor-based irrigation: Soil moisture, weather stations.
  • Drone-based spraying: For crop protection.
  • Satellite-based monitoring: Crop health, yield estimation.
  • AI/ML: Pest and disease detection, yield prediction.
  • FarmTech/AgriFintech: Credit, insurance, market linkage platforms.

What is Water-Tech?

• Water-tech refers to technology applied to water management, including:
  • Water treatment and recycling.
  • Smart irrigation systems.
  • Leak detection in urban water supply.
  • Desalination and groundwater monitoring.
  • Industrial wastewater management.
  • Smart metering for water utilities.

India’s Agri-Tech and Water-Tech Landscape

• India has a large agri-tech ecosystem with start-ups like DeHaat, AgroStar, Ninjacart, Cropin, Fasal, BharatAgri, Krishify, and others.
• The agri-tech market is estimated to be about USD 24 billion by 2025, with strong growth potential.
• Water-tech is comparatively underdeveloped in India, but demand is rising due to water stress, urbanisation, and industrial demand.
• Major Indian water-tech start-ups focus on smart metering, leak detection, water purification, and wastewater management.

What is NITI Aayog?

• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• Established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• Chairperson: Prime Minister.
• Vice-Chairperson: Currently Suman Bery.
• Has a CEO, currently B V R Subrahmanyam.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• Functions:
  • Strategic and long-term policy framework.
  • Cooperative and competitive federalism.
  • Knowledge and innovation hub.
  • Monitoring and evaluation.
  • Bilateral and multilateral collaboration.

What is NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)?

• A flagship innovation initiative of NITI Aayog.
• Launched in 2016.
• Promotes innovation and entrepreneurship across schools, universities, research institutions, MSMEs, and corporate sectors.
• Components include:
  • Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in schools.
  • Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) for start-ups.
  • Atal Community Innovation Centres (ACICs) for underserved regions.
  • Atal New India Challenges (ANICs) for product innovation.
  • Atal Research and Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE) for MSMEs.

Key Terms

• Agri-Tech: Technology applied to agriculture for productivity, sustainability, and farmer incomes.
• Water-Tech: Technology applied to water management, including treatment, irrigation, monitoring, and conservation.
• NITI Aayog: The National Institution for Transforming India, the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, established in 2015.
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): A flagship innovation initiative of NITI Aayog, launched in 2016.
• MVP (Minimum Viable Product): A basic version of a product with just enough features to test the market.
• Pilot Project: A small-scale trial of a product or service before full-scale rollout.
• Precision Agriculture: Data-driven farming that uses GPS, sensors, satellite imagery, and AI to optimise inputs and outputs.
• Deep-Tech: Technology built around fundamental scientific or engineering breakthroughs, such as AI, robotics, IoT, biotech, advanced materials, quantum computing.
• Global South: Developing countries of Asia, Africa, Latin America, and Oceania, often with similar development challenges.
• Nasscom: The National Association of Software and Service Companies, India’s leading IT and tech industry body, founded in 1988.
• Indo-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership: A bilateral framework between India and Denmark, focused on green technology, water management, renewable energy, and innovation.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to NITI Aayog, consider the following statements:

1. NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
2. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
3. NITI Aayog is headquartered in New Delhi.
4. NITI Aayog is a constitutional body created under Article 280 of the Constitution.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; NITI Aayog is an executive body created by a Cabinet resolution, NOT a constitutional body. Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission.)

Q2. With reference to NITI Aayog’s Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), consider the following statements:

1. AIM was launched in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
2. Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) are part of AIM, set up in schools.
3. Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) are set up to nurture start-ups.
4. AIM is administered by SEBI, not NITI Aayog.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; AIM is administered by NITI Aayog, NOT SEBI.)

Q3. With reference to India’s start-up ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. India is the third-largest start-up ecosystem globally.
2. India has about 110+ unicorns, defined as start-ups valued at USD 1 billion or more.
3. DPIIT, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, recognises start-ups under the Start-Up India initiative.
4. Bengaluru, Delhi-NCR, Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Chennai are major start-up hubs in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to agri-tech and water-tech, consider the following statements:

1. Agri-tech includes precision agriculture, drone-based spraying, satellite-based crop monitoring, and AI-based pest detection.
2. Water-tech includes smart metering, leak detection, wastewater management, and water purification.
3. The Indo-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership, announced in 2020, covers areas like renewable energy, water, climate, and sustainable agriculture.
4. NITI Aayog has no role in bilateral collaboration programmes for innovation and technology.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; NITI Aayog actively participates in bilateral collaboration programmes for innovation and technology.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because NITI Aayog is an executive body, not a constitutional body.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because AIM is administered by NITI Aayog, not SEBI.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because NITI Aayog actively participates in bilateral collaboration programmes.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

Very high importance, agri-tech, water, rural innovation

2. Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra: India’s First WhatsApp-Based AI Advisory Service for Oilseed Farmers

Source: PIB

Context

The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has highlighted the nationwide impact of Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra, India’s first WhatsApp-based AI advisory service for oilseed cultivation, as farmers enter the crucial kharif sowing season. Developed by the ICAR-Indian Institute of Oilseeds Research (ICAR-IIOR), Hyderabad, the 24×7 multilingual AI-powered chatbot delivers research-validated agricultural advice to farmers in their native regional languages, directly via WhatsApp, without requiring downloads of separate apps or complex browsers.

The Platform

• Name: Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra.
• Developer: ICAR-Indian Institute of Oilseeds Research (ICAR-IIOR), Hyderabad.
• Nature: AI-powered WhatsApp chatbot, 24×7 multilingual.
• Cost to farmers: Free.
• No app download needed: Works directly within WhatsApp.

How to Access

• Step 1: Save the official number +91 40 2459 8180 as “Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra”.
• Step 2: Open WhatsApp and type, speak, or send a crop-related query in the native regional language.
• Step 3: The AI engine parses the query and delivers research-validated advice instantly.

Crops Covered

• Groundnut.
• Mustard.
• Sesame.
• Sunflower.
• Soybean.
• Niger.

Languages Supported

• All official Indian regional languages, including Hindi, Kannada, Gujarati, Telugu, Malayalam, and others.
• Built on a natural language processing (NLP) architecture.

End-to-End Crop Cycle Guidance

• High-yield regional seed variety selection and official seed availability.
• Agronomic soil preparation and sowing practices.
• Real-time pest, weed, and disease control diagnostics.
• Precision irrigation scheduling and tailored fertiliser application.
• Post-harvest processing, drying, and storage techniques.

Why is Oilseed Farming So Important for India?

• India is one of the world’s largest consumers of edible oils.
• India imports about 55 to 60 per cent of its edible oil needs, costing about USD 18 to 20 billion annually.
• Reducing import dependence is a strategic priority.
• A strong domestic oilseed sector is crucial for:
  • Food security.
  • Reducing current account deficit (CAD).
  • Supporting farmer incomes.
  • Diversifying agriculture beyond paddy and wheat.

What is the National Mission on Edible Oils (NMEO)?

• A central government mission to boost domestic edible oil production.
• Two key components:
  • NMEO-Oil Palm (2021): Focused on oil palm cultivation, especially in the North East and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • NMEO-Oilseeds (2024): Focused on oilseeds like soybean, mustard, groundnut, sesame, and others.
• Aims to reduce edible oil import dependence.

ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) at a Glance

• The apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture in India.
• Founded in 1929 as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• Under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• Has a network of over 100 institutes and 70+ agricultural universities.

Key Terms

• Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra: India’s first WhatsApp-based AI advisory chatbot for oilseed cultivation.
• AI Chatbot: A software application that uses artificial intelligence to converse with users in natural language and provide automated responses.
• Natural Language Processing (NLP): A branch of AI that enables computers to understand, interpret, and generate human language.
• ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research): The apex body for agricultural research and education in India, founded in 1929.
• ICAR-IIOR: The Indian Institute of Oilseeds Research, Hyderabad.
• Oilseed: A plant whose seeds are grown primarily for the production of edible or industrial oils, including groundnut, mustard, soybean, sesame, sunflower, niger, safflower, castor.
• National Mission on Edible Oils (NMEO): A central mission to boost domestic edible oil production, with NMEO-Oil Palm (2021) and NMEO-Oilseeds (2024).
• eNAM (National Agriculture Market): An online trading platform for agricultural commodities, launched in 2016.
• Agri Stack: An integrated data architecture for Indian agriculture, part of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) in agriculture.
• Krishi-DSS (Krishi Decision Support System): A GIS-based decision-support platform for Indian agriculture.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra, consider the following statements:

1. It is India’s first WhatsApp-based AI advisory service for oilseed cultivation.
2. It is developed by the ICAR-Indian Institute of Oilseeds Research, Hyderabad.
3. It is a 24×7 multilingual AI-powered chatbot that is free to access.
4. It requires farmers to download a separate mobile application to access the service.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the service is accessible directly via WhatsApp, without requiring any separate app download.)

Q2. With reference to the coverage and design of Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra, consider the following statements:

1. The chatbot provides advice on oilseeds like groundnut, mustard, sesame, sunflower, soybean, and niger.
2. It supports all official Indian regional languages, including Hindi, Kannada, Gujarati, Telugu, and Malayalam.
3. The chatbot integrates research from ICAR-IIOR, NSRI, IIGR, IIRMR, and the Project Coordinating Unit for Sesame and Niger.
4. The chatbot covers only the seed selection stage of farming, not the post-harvest stage.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the chatbot provides end-to-end crop cycle guidance, including post-harvest processing, drying, and storage.)

Q3. With reference to ICAR and its institutes, consider the following statements:

1. ICAR is the apex body for agricultural research and education in India, founded in 1929.
2. ICAR-IIGR is located in Junagadh, ICAR-IIRMR in Bharatpur, and ICAR-NSRI in Indore.
3. ICAR functions under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
4. ICAR is a private research foundation, with no formal link to the Government of India.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; ICAR is the apex government body for agricultural research, NOT a private research foundation.)

Q4. With reference to India’s edible oil sector and policies, consider the following statements:

1. India imports about 55 to 60 per cent of its edible oil needs, costing about USD 18 to 20 billion annually.
2. The National Mission on Edible Oils includes both NMEO-Oil Palm (2021) and NMEO-Oilseeds (2024).
3. Major oilseed crops in India include groundnut, mustard, soybean, sesame, sunflower, and niger.
4. India is self-sufficient in edible oils, with no need for imports.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India imports about 55-60 per cent of its edible oil needs, NOT self-sufficient.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the service is accessible directly via WhatsApp without requiring a separate app download.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the chatbot covers the entire crop cycle, including post-harvest stages.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ICAR is the apex government body for agricultural research.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India imports a large share of its edible oil needs.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

Very high importance, agriculture, oilseeds, ICAR, rural extension

3. NBA Reconstitutes Expert Committee on Agrobiodiversity Under Section 13(1) of Biological Diversity Act, 2002

Source: News on Air

Context

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) has reconstituted the Expert Committee on Agrobiodiversity under Section 13(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The Committee has been reconstituted for a period of one year to guide the conservation, sustainable use, and access and benefit-sharing (ABS) of agricultural biodiversity. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) noted that the Committee plays a significant role in implementing the Biological Diversity Act. Padma Shri Dr P.L. Gautam will serve as the Co-Chair of the Committee.

The Reconstitution

• Authority: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).
• Statutory basis: Section 13(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• Duration: One year.
• Focus: Conservation, sustainable use, access and benefit-sharing (ABS) of agricultural biodiversity.
• Co-Chair: Padma Shri Dr P.L. Gautam.

About Agrobiodiversity

• Agrobiodiversity (Agricultural Biodiversity) refers to:
  • The variety and variability of animals, plants, and micro-organisms used directly or indirectly for food and agriculture.
  • Includes crop diversity, livestock breeds, fish, pollinators, soil biota, and wild relatives of cultivated species.
  • Encompasses the genetic, species, and ecosystem-level diversity that supports agriculture.

Why is Agrobiodiversity Important?

• Food security in the face of climate change and pests.
• Genetic resources for breeding climate-resilient crop varieties.
• Nutritional diversity through a variety of crops and animals.
• Cultural heritage through traditional agricultural systems.
• Ecosystem services like pollination, pest control, and soil health.

About the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

• Statutory autonomous body established in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• Headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• Functions:
  • Regulates access to India’s biological resources and traditional knowledge.
  • Approves applications from foreign nationals/entities for biological resource use.
  • Provides advice to the central and state governments on biodiversity conservation.
  • Recommends to the central government on notifying threatened species and biodiversity heritage sites.
• Chairperson: Appointed by the central government.

The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

• Enacted on 5 February 2003 (notified later in 2003).
• Implements India’s commitments under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• Three-tier biodiversity management structure:
  • National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the central level.
  • State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level.
  • Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local body level (gram panchayats, municipalities).
• Key features:
  • Regulates access to biological resources and traditional knowledge.
  • Prevents biopiracy.
  • Ensures access and benefit-sharing (ABS).
  • Recognises People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) at the local level.

Section 13(1) of the Biological Diversity Act

• Empowers the NBA to constitute committees to assist in the discharge of its functions.
• Expert Committees under this section provide specialist guidance on specific themes like agrobiodiversity, marine biodiversity, threatened species, and others.

2023 Amendment to the Biological Diversity Act

• Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023 was passed in 2023.
• Key changes:
  • Decriminalisation of certain offences.
  • Easier registration for Indian companies with foreign equity.
  • Streamlined ABS procedures.
  • Encouragement for AYUSH practitioners and researchers to access biological resources.
  • Aimed at balancing biodiversity conservation with ease of doing business.

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

• An international treaty adopted at the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.
• Came into force on 29 December 1993.
• Three main objectives:
  • Conservation of biological diversity.
  • Sustainable use of its components.
  • Fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources.
• Secretariat: Montreal, Canada.
• 196 parties (including the EU), making it one of the most widely-ratified treaties.
• India is a party to the CBD since 1994.

Key Terms

• Agrobiodiversity (Agricultural Biodiversity): The variety and variability of plants, animals, and micro-organisms used in food and agriculture, including wild relatives.
• National Biodiversity Authority (NBA): A statutory body established in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, headquartered in Chennai.
• State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs): State-level bodies under the Biological Diversity Act.
• Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs): Local body-level bodies under the Biological Diversity Act, formed at gram panchayat or municipality level.
• People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs): Local-level documents that record biological resources and traditional knowledge in a specific area.
• Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS): A principle under the CBD and Nagoya Protocol for fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources.
• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): An international treaty adopted at the Rio Earth Summit, 1992, with three objectives: conservation, sustainable use, and ABS.
• Nagoya Protocol (2010): A supplementary protocol to the CBD on Access and Benefit-Sharing.
• Cartagena Protocol (2000): A supplementary protocol to the CBD on biosafety of living modified organisms (LMOs).
• Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022): The post-2020 global biodiversity framework, often called the “Paris Agreement for Nature”.
• PPV&FR Act, 2001: India’s plant variety protection and farmers’ rights law.
• Megadiverse Country: A country with exceptional biodiversity, 17 globally (India is one).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), consider the following statements:

1. NBA is a statutory autonomous body established in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2. NBA is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
3. NBA recently reconstituted the Expert Committee on Agrobiodiversity under Section 13(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
4. NBA is a private foundation with no statutory backing.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; NBA is a statutory body, NOT a private foundation.)

Q2. With reference to the three-tier biodiversity management structure under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements:

1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) operates at the central level.
2. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) operate at the state level.
3. Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) operate at the local body level (gram panchayats, municipalities).
4. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; NBA is the apex body under the Biological Diversity Act, NOT ICAR.)

Q3. With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and its protocols, consider the following statements:

1. The CBD was adopted at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992 and came into force in 1993.
2. The Cartagena Protocol (2000) deals with biosafety, especially Living Modified Organisms (LMOs).
3. The Nagoya Protocol (2010) deals with Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) of genetic resources.
4. The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022) is often called the “Paris Agreement for Nature”.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to India’s agrobiodiversity framework, consider the following statements:

1. India is one of the world’s 17 megadiverse countries.
2. India is one of the 8 Vavilov centres of crop origin and diversity.
3. The PPV&FR Act, 2001 protects both plant breeders and farmers’ rights.
4. India is not a party to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is a party to the CBD since 1994.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because NBA is a statutory body.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because NBA is the apex body, not ICAR.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is a party to the CBD.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

Very high importance, biodiversity, agriculture, genetic resources

Facts To Remember

1. Jhansi first UP district with ‘no child labour in its 496 villages’

In line with Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath’s announcement to make Uttar Pradesh child labour-free by 2027, Jhansi is set to become the first district of the state where all 496 of its gram panchayats would be declared child labour-free. Meanwhile, the district is also gearing up to eradicate child labour from its urban areas.

2. BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Conference begins in Indore,Madhya Pradesh

The two-day BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Conference began today in Indore, Madhya Pradesh.

3. Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda Launches ‘10 Years of PMSMA – A Decade of Care’ Celebrations

Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda launched nationwide celebrations marking the completion of 10 years of the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA). The programme, launched in 2016, provides free and comprehensive antenatal care services to pregnant women on the 9th day of every month.

4. Government Approves 96 Companies Under Textile PLI Scheme

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5. Cabinet Approves ₹2,533 Crore Central Government Complexes in Amaravati

The Cabinet approved the construction of Central Government office and residential accommodation complexes in Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh, at a combined cost of ₹2,533 crore. The facilities are designed to accommodate around 8,000 officials and staff from various central government departments.

6. Government Extends CGSMFI-2.0 Till August 2026

The Government of India extended the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Microfinance Institutions (CGSMFI-2.0) until 31 August 2026 or until guarantees worth ₹20,000 crore are issued. The government also increased the loan limit for large NBFC-MFIs from ₹300 crore to ₹1,000 crore.

7. Ministry of Defence Signs ₹449 Crore Deal for ECGNSS Jammers

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8. BSNL and IIT Kanpur Partner for Next-Generation Telecom Technologies

BSNL and Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur signed a Memorandum of Understanding to collaborate on advanced telecom technologies. The partnership will focus on Direct-to-Mobile broadcasting, indigenous 4G solutions, and spectrum research to strengthen India’s telecom innovation ecosystem.

9. RBI Eases Lending Norms for REITs and InvITs

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10. Nuvama Wealth Management Receives SEBI Approval for Mutual Fund Business

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11. Sangeet Natak Akademi Announces Fellowships and Awards

The Sangeet Natak Akademi elected seven eminent artists as Fellows and announced 108 Akademi Awards for 2024 and 2025. The awards recognize outstanding contributions in music, dance, theatre, folk arts, puppetry, and performing arts scholarship.

12. Indian-Origin Scientist Gautam Dey Wins EMBO Gold Medal 2026

Gautam Dey received the prestigious EMBO Gold Medal 2026 for his research on the evolutionary origins of nuclear organization and cell division. He currently works at the European Molecular Biology Laboratory.

13. CCI Approves Additional Stake Acquisition in Shriram Life Insurance

The Competition Commission of India approved Sanlam Emerging Markets’ acquisition of an additional 2.80% stake in Shriram Life Insurance Company through a preferential issue worth approximately ₹220.88 crore.

14. ADIA Arm Plans Sale of 2.3% Stake in Lenskart

Platinum Jasmine A 2018 Trust, backed by the Abu Dhabi Investment Authority, announced plans to sell a 2.3% stake in Lenskart Solutions through a block deal valued at approximately ₹1,944 crore.

15. NASA Announces Artemis III Mission Crew

NASA unveiled the four-member Artemis III crew consisting of Randy Bresnik, Andre Douglas, Frank Rubio, and Luca Parmitano. The mission will test docking operations between lunar mission systems and support future human lunar exploration.

16. International Day of Play 2026 Observed

The International Day of Play was observed on 11 June 2026 with the theme “Protect Play, Protect Childhood.” The observance highlights the importance of play in children’s learning, development, and well-being.

17. World Day Against Child Labour 2026 Observed

World Day Against Child Labour was observed on 12 June 2026 under the theme “Red Card to Child Labour: Fair Play for Children, Decent Work for Adults.” The day promotes global efforts to eliminate child labour and protect children’s rights.