Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 16 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
16 June, 2026

International Affairs

1. Global Peace Index 2026

Source: TOI

Context

The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) has released the 20th edition of the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2026 in June 2026. Iceland has retained its position as the world’s most peaceful country for the 19th consecutive year, with an overall score of 1.161. However, India dropped to 127th position in 2026 with a score of 2.409, from 115th position in 2025, marking a 2.9 per cent decrease in its overall score. The GPI assesses 163 independent states and territories, covering 99.7 per cent of the world’s population, using 23 qualitative and quantitative indicators across three domains: Societal Safety and Security, Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict, and Militarisation. Russia ranked last at 163rd as the least peaceful country.

The Report

• Released by: Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).
• Edition: 20th edition of the Global Peace Index (GPI).
• Year: 2026.
• Coverage: 163 independent states and territories, covering 99.7 per cent of the world’s population.
• Method: 23 qualitative and quantitative indicators.

The Three Domains Measured

1. Societal Safety and Security: Violent crime, political instability, terrorism, internal conflict.
2. Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict: Wars, armed conflicts, deaths from conflict.
3. Militarisation: Military expenditure, armed services personnel, weapons imports.

Top 5 Most Peaceful Countries (2026 GPI)

Rank	Country	Score
1	Iceland	1.161
2	New Zealand	1.343
3	Switzerland	1.363
4	Slovenia	1.369
5	Ireland	1.371

Bottom 5 Least Peaceful Countries (2026 GPI)

Rank	Country
163 (last)	Russia (overall score 3.367)
162	Sudan
161	Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)
160	Ukraine
159	Israel

India’s Position

• 2026 Rank: 127th (out of 163).
• 2026 Score: 2.409.
• 2025 Rank: 115th.
• Drop: 12 places.
• Score change: Worsened by 2.9 per cent.

Why India’s Rank Dropped

The score deterioration reflects:

• Border tensions with neighbours.
• Increased militarisation.
• Domestic terror incidents including Pahalgam attack (April 2025).
• Cross-border conflicts.
• Increased weapons imports.

Iceland’s 19-Year Run at the Top

• Iceland has held the No.1 position since 2008.
• Why Iceland scores so high:
  • No standing army.
  • Very low violent crime rates.
  • Strong rule of law.
  • Effective political institutions.
  • Geographic isolation (no major neighbours).
  • Membership of NATO (provides security without standing army).
  • High Human Development Index (HDI).

What is the Global Peace Index (GPI)?

• An annual report ranking countries on their level of peacefulness.
• First published: 2007.
• Published by: Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) in Sydney, Australia.
• Founded by: Steve Killelea.
• Methodology: 23 indicators weighted across 3 domains.
• Scoring: Lower scores = more peaceful, Higher scores = less peaceful.

About the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)

• An international think tank.
• Founded: 2007.
• Headquartered in Sydney, Australia, with offices in New York, The Hague, Mexico City, Brussels, Nairobi, Harare.
• Founder: Steve Killelea, Australian philanthropist.
• Other reports by IEP:
  • Global Peace Index (GPI).
  • Global Terrorism Index (GTI).
  • Mexico Peace Index.
  • Ecological Threat Report (ETR).
  • Positive Peace Index (PPI).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The 2026 GPI is the 20th edition of the report, released by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).
2. Iceland retained its position as the world’s most peaceful country for the 19th consecutive year.
3. India dropped to 127th position in 2026 from 115th in 2025.
4. Russia was ranked as the most peaceful country in 2026.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Russia was ranked LAST (163rd) as the least peaceful country, NOT the most peaceful.)

Q2. With reference to the GPI methodology, consider the following statements:

1. The GPI covers 163 independent states and territories, representing 99.7 per cent of the world’s population.
2. It uses 23 qualitative and quantitative indicators.
3. The three domains are: Societal Safety and Security, Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict, and Militarisation.
4. Lower scores in the GPI indicate less peaceful countries.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; lower scores indicate MORE peaceful countries, NOT less peaceful.)

Q3. With reference to the top 5 most peaceful countries in GPI 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Iceland ranks 1st, followed by New Zealand at 2nd.
2. Switzerland ranks 3rd, Slovenia 4th, and Ireland 5th.
3. India is among the top 10 most peaceful countries.
4. The United States is among the bottom 5 least peaceful countries.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statements 3 and 4 are wrong; India is at 127th, NOT in the top 10; the bottom 5 include Russia, Sudan, DRC, Ukraine, Israel, NOT the United States.)

Q4. With reference to the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), consider the following statements:

1. IEP is an international think tank founded in 2007 by Steve Killelea.
2. IEP is headquartered in Sydney, Australia.
3. IEP publishes the Global Peace Index (GPI), Global Terrorism Index (GTI), Positive Peace Index (PPI), and Ecological Threat Report (ETR).
4. IEP is a government organisation under the United Nations.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; IEP is an independent international think tank, NOT a UN government organisation.)

Q5. With reference to Iceland’s position in the GPI, consider the following statements:

1. Iceland has been the world’s most peaceful country since 2008.
2. Iceland has no standing army, relying on NATO and its Coast Guard for defence.
3. Iceland is a founding member of NATO (1949).
4. Iceland is a member of the European Union (EU) and the Eurozone.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Iceland is NOT a member of the EU or the Eurozone; it is a member of EFTA.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Russia was ranked last (163rd).
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because lower scores indicate more peaceful countries.
3. (a), Statements 1 and 2 are correct; Statements 3 and 4 are wrong because India is at 127th and the US is not in the bottom 5.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because IEP is an independent think tank.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Iceland is not a member of the EU or Eurozone.

National Affairs

1. India-France Strategic Partnership

Source: Times of India

Context

India and France unveiled 13 major outcomes during PM Narendra Modi’s visit to Nice, France, aimed at deepening cooperation in technology, AI, defence, trade, space, education, and digital infrastructure. The India-France Strategic Partnership, established in 1998, is one of India’s oldest and most comprehensive strategic partnerships, covering defence, space, civil nuclear energy, technology, trade, climate action, education, and people-to-people ties. Key outcomes include the India-France Innovation Roadmap 2030, a Joint AI Working Group, expansion of UPI to France, incubation of 10 Indian startups at Station F, an Economic Security Dialogue, and enhanced space cooperation including the Gaganyaan mission and the Bharatiya Antariksh Station.

The 13 Major Outcomes

1. India-France Innovation Roadmap 2030: Long-term framework for AI, critical technologies, startups, innovation ecosystems, academic mobility; promotes industry-academia partnerships.

2. Joint India-France AI Working Group: Dedicated mechanism for AI governance; covers research collaboration, startup partnerships, capacity building, policy coordination.

3. National Centre of Excellence for Skilling in Aeronautics: To be established at the National Skill Training Institute, Kanpur; strengthens aerospace manufacturing, aviation maintenance, workforce development.

4. Expansion of UPI in France: UPI services extended to Paris Airport and Nice; benefits Indian tourists, students, businesses, diaspora.

5. Startup Collaboration through Station F: 10 additional Indian startups to be incubated at Station F, Europe’s largest startup hub in Paris.

6. India-France Centre of Digital Sciences: Joint establishment by DST (India) and INRIA (France); supports digital technology research, talent mobility.

7. ICCR India Chair at Universite Paris-Saclay: New academic chair on AI, Innovation and Culture.

8. Health Data and AI Research Collaboration: Partnership between ICMR (India) and France’s Health Data Hub; focus on secure health-data sharing, AI-driven medical research.

9. Mechanism to Double Bilateral Trade: Annual high-level mechanism to double bilateral trade in 5 years.

10. Economic Security Dialogue: New platform covering critical minerals, semiconductors, energy security, cybersecurity, strategic technologies.

11. Railway and High-Speed Rail Cooperation: Declaration of Intent signed for railway modernisation, technology transfer, infrastructure.

12. Agreement on Classified Information Protection: Secure legal framework for exchanging sensitive information; strengthens defence-industrial cooperation and Make in India.

13. Enhanced Space Cooperation: Letter of Intent between ISRO and CNES; covers human spaceflight, microgravity research, Gaganyaan mission, Bharatiya Antariksh Station.

What is UPI’s International Expansion?

• UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is India’s flagship digital payments DPI.
• Operated by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India).

Where is UPI Now Available Internationally?

• France: Paris Airport and Nice (2026).
• Singapore: UPI-PayNow linkage (2023).
• UAE: (2023).
• Bhutan: (2021, first international).
• Nepal: (2024).
• Sri Lanka: (2024).
• Mauritius: (2024).
• Maldives: (2024).

What is Station F?

• Europe’s largest startup hub, located in Paris, France.
• Founded: 2017 by Xavier Niel.
• Houses over 1,000 startups.
• Hosts global startup incubator programmes.
• India has had an Indian Startup Programme at Station F for several years.

What is INRIA?

• Institut National de Recherche en Informatique et en Automatique.
• France’s national research institute for computer science and applied mathematics.
• Founded: 1967.
• Headquartered in Le Chesnay, France.

What is ICCR?

• Indian Council for Cultural Relations.
• An autonomous organisation under the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
• Founded: 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• Functions: Cultural diplomacy, ICCR Chairs in foreign universities, scholarships for foreign students, cultural festivals abroad.

What is ISRO-CNES Cooperation?

• ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) and CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) have a long-standing partnership since the 1960s.
• CNES is France’s national space agency, founded in 1961.
• Joint missions: Megha-Tropiques (2011), SARAL-AltiKa (2013), TRISHNA (planned).

What is the Gaganyaan Mission?

• India’s first human spaceflight programme.
• Mission: Send 3-member crew to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) for 3 days.
• Launcher: HLVM3 (Human-Rated LVM3).
• Crew: Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, Group Captain Ajit Krishnan, Group Captain Angad Pratap, Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla (all IAF pilots).
• First crewed mission: Planned around 2026-27.

What is the Bharatiya Antariksh Station?

• India’s planned indigenous space station.
• Target for full operationalisation: 2035.
• First module launch: Around 2028-29.
• 5 modules planned eventually.
• Will be lower-orbiting than the ISS.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent India-France summit outcomes (PM Modi’s visit to Nice), consider the following statements:

1. The India-France Innovation Roadmap 2030 was adopted, covering AI, critical technologies, startups, and academic mobility.
2. UPI services were extended to Paris Airport and Nice in France.
3. A Joint India-France AI Working Group was established.
4. The India-France Strategic Partnership was established in 2026 during this visit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the India-France Strategic Partnership was established in 1998, NOT 2026.)

Q2. With reference to UPI’s international expansion, consider the following statements:

1. UPI is India’s real-time payments platform operated by NPCI.
2. UPI services were extended to France (Paris Airport and Nice) in 2026.
3. UPI is also available in Singapore, UAE, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Mauritius, and Maldives.
4. UPI is currently available only within India, with no international expansion.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; UPI has been expanded internationally to multiple countries.)

Q3. With reference to ISRO-CNES cooperation, consider the following statements:

1. ISRO and CNES have a long-standing partnership since the 1960s.
2. Joint missions include Megha-Tropiques (2011) and SARAL-AltiKa (2013).
3. The TRISHNA mission is planned for land and water surface monitoring.
4. CNES is France’s national space agency, founded in 1961.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to India’s Gaganyaan Mission and Bharatiya Antariksh Station, consider the following statements:

1. Gaganyaan is India’s first human spaceflight programme.
2. The crew for Gaganyaan includes four IAF pilots: Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, Ajit Krishnan, Angad Pratap, and Shubhanshu Shukla.
3. Bharatiya Antariksh Station is India’s planned indigenous space station, targeted for 2035.
4. India has no plans to launch its own space station.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has plans to launch the Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035.)

Q5. With reference to India-France bilateral relations, consider the following statements:

1. France is India’s 2nd-largest arms supplier after Russia.
2. The Jaitapur Nuclear Power Plant project involves 6 EPR (European Pressurised Reactor) units, partnered with EDF (France).
3. India-France bilateral trade was about USD 15-17 billion in 2024-25.
4. France is not a member of the European Union (EU).

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; France is a founding member of the European Union (EU).)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the India-France Strategic Partnership was established in 1998.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because UPI has been expanded internationally.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India plans the Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because France is a founding member of the EU.

2. BRICS Indore Declaration

Source: Times of India

Context

India’s BRICS Presidency culminated in the adoption of the BRICS Indore Declaration during the Agriculture Ministers’ Meeting held in Indore, Madhya Pradesh in June 2026. The Declaration is a unanimous joint agricultural charter adopted by BRICS member countries, serving as a farmer-centric framework for strengthening cooperation on food security, sustainable agriculture, agricultural trade, innovation, and climate resilience. India will lead several major initiatives, including a Global Forum on Farmers’ Rights in Seed Systems, a BRICS Network of Centres of Excellence on Agro-Ecology and Regenerative Agriculture, a BRICS Network on Digital Agriculture, and BRICS AgriN (a network for agro inputs, genetic resources, and information).

The Declaration

• Name: BRICS Indore Declaration.
• Adopted at: BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Meeting.
• Date and Venue: June 2026, Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
• Significance: Culmination of India’s BRICS Presidency 2026.
• Nature: Unanimous joint agricultural charter.

Stated Aims

• Promote food security, sustainable agriculture, and farmer welfare.
• Strengthen innovation, digital agriculture, climate-resilient farming.
• Boost agricultural trade.
• Keep farmers at the centre of policy-making.

Key Features of the Declaration

1. BRICS Network of Centres of Excellence on Agro-Ecology and Regenerative Agriculture

• A collaborative platform for research, training, knowledge-sharing.
• Focuses on natural, organic, and regenerative farming.
• Promotes climate-resilient agriculture and sustainable resource management.

2. BRICS Network on Digital Agriculture

• Cooperation in AI, geospatial technologies, digital public infrastructure, data-driven farming.
• Aims to accelerate technology transfer and improve productivity.

3. Global Forum on Farmers’ Rights in Seed Systems

• Focus on protecting indigenous seeds, traditional knowledge, farmers’ seed rights.
• Supports biodiversity conservation and food security.

4. BRICS AgriN (Agro Inputs, Genetic Resources and Information Network)

• Facilitates exchange of agricultural inputs, genetic resources, best seed varieties, technical expertise.
• Enhances capacity-building and cooperation in agricultural research and innovation.

What is BRICS?

• BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa.
• An intergovernmental grouping of major emerging economies.
• First BRIC Summit: 2009 (without South Africa).
• South Africa joined: 2011 (making it BRICS).

Recent Expansion (BRICS Plus)

• At the 15th BRICS Summit (Johannesburg, August 2023), the group invited 6 new members to join from 1 January 2024:
  • Saudi Arabia (status pending; has not yet formally joined as of 2026).
  • Iran.
  • UAE.
  • Egypt.
  • Ethiopia.
  • Argentina (subsequently declined to join under President Milei).
• Indonesia joined the bloc in January 2025.

What is BRICS Presidency?

• A rotating annual presidency among BRICS members.
• The presidency country hosts BRICS Summits and ministerial meetings.
• Sets the agenda and drives key initiatives.
• India’s BRICS Presidency 2026 has focused on agriculture, food security, climate resilience.

Recent BRICS Presidencies

• 2023: South Africa.
• 2024: Russia (Kazan Summit in October 2024).
• 2025: Brazil (Rio de Janeiro Summit in July 2025).
• 2026: India.
• 2027: China (planned).

India’s BRICS Presidency 2026 Theme

• “BRICS for People, Planet and Prosperity” (related broader Indian framing for multilateral engagements).
• Indian focus areas:
  • Agriculture and food security.
  • Climate resilience.
  • Digital public infrastructure (DPI).
  • Reform of multilateral institutions (including the UN and IMF).

What is the New Development Bank (NDB)?

• A multilateral development bank established by BRICS in 2014 at the Fortaleza Summit (Brazil).
• Operational since 2015.
• Headquartered in Shanghai, China.
• Initial subscribed capital: USD 50 billion (expandable to USD 100 billion).
• First President: K.V. Kamath (India), 2015-2020.
• Current President: Dilma Rousseff (former Brazilian President), since 2023.
• Function: Infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies.

What is the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)?

• A financial safety net established by BRICS in 2014.
• Initial pool: USD 100 billion.
• Provides short-term liquidity support to BRICS members in balance of payments crises.
• Alternative to the IMF.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the BRICS Indore Declaration, consider the following statements:

1. The Declaration was adopted at the BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Meeting in Indore, Madhya Pradesh, in June 2026.
2. It is a unanimous joint agricultural charter focused on farmer-centric cooperation.
3. The Declaration culminated India’s BRICS Presidency 2026.
4. The Declaration was adopted unilaterally by India without consultation with other BRICS members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Declaration was unanimously adopted by all BRICS members, NOT unilaterally by India.)

Q2. With reference to the key features of the BRICS Indore Declaration, consider the following statements:

1. It establishes a BRICS Network of Centres of Excellence on Agro-Ecology and Regenerative Agriculture.
2. It launches a BRICS Network on Digital Agriculture for cooperation in AI, geospatial technologies, and DPI.
3. It creates a Global Forum on Farmers’ Rights in Seed Systems.
4. It includes BRICS AgriN for exchange of agricultural inputs, genetic resources, and best seed varieties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The first BRIC Summit was held in 2009, with South Africa joining in 2011 to make it BRICS.
2. BRICS represents about 45 per cent of the global population.
3. The 15th BRICS Summit in Johannesburg in August 2023 invited 6 new members.
4. India is a non-member of BRICS, holding only observer status.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is a founding member of BRICS, NOT an observer.)

Q4. With reference to the New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements:

1. NDB was established by BRICS in 2014 at the Fortaleza Summit.
2. NDB is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
3. The first NDB President was K.V. Kamath from India (2015-2020).
4. The current NDB President (since 2023) is Dilma Rousseff, former President of Brazil.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q5. With reference to India’s farmers’ seed rights framework, consider the following statements:

1. The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act was enacted in 2001.
2. India is a signatory to the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA), 2001.
3. The PPV&FR Act recognises farmers’ rights to save, use, exchange, and sell seeds from their harvest.
4. India has no legal framework for protecting farmers’ seed rights.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has a strong PPV&FR Act, 2001 for farmers’ seed rights.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Declaration was unanimously adopted.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is a founding member of BRICS.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India has the PPV&FR Act, 2001.

3. Jharkhand’s Four Traditional Products Receive Geographical Indication (GI) Tag

Source: News on Air

Context

In a major milestone for tribal craftsmanship, four traditional products from Jharkhand, namely Bhagaiya Silk, Kuchai Silk, Munda Jewellery, and Bamboo Craft, have been officially granted the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag. The GI tag, governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, recognises products with specific geographical origin and qualities essentially due to that place of origin. The tags will boost livelihoods of tribal artisans, provide legal protection against duplication, ensure premium quality assurance, and enable global branding and export value for these traditional Jharkhand crafts.

The Four GI-Tagged Products

1. Bhagaiya Silk

• A traditional Jharkhand silk known for:
  • Natural golden sheen.
  • Durability.
  • Eco-friendly wild Tussar silk production.
• Produced through indigenous hand-reeling techniques.

2. Kuchai Silk

• Another traditional Jharkhand silk with similar features.
• Eco-friendly Tussar variety.
• Reflects the state’s rich handloom heritage.

3. Munda Jewellery

• Traditional tribal jewellery of the Munda community.
• Handcrafted with unique geometric patterns and nature-inspired motifs.
• Holds cultural and spiritual significance.
• Preserves centuries-old indigenous metalcraft traditions.

4. Jharkhand Bamboo Craft

• Eco-friendly craft using local bamboo.
• Produces baskets, mats, utility products, decorative items.
• Supports sustainable livelihoods in rural forest regions.

What is a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag?

• An official intellectual property sign used on products with a specific geographical origin.
• Products possess qualities, characteristics, or reputation that are essentially due to that place of origin.
• Examples globally: Champagne (France), Roquefort cheese (France), Tequila (Mexico), Darjeeling Tea (India), Kanchipuram Silk (India).
• Two forms in India:
  • Agricultural products.
  • Manufactured products.

About Tussar Silk

• One of four major silk types in India: Mulberry, Tussar, Eri, Muga.
• Tussar (also called Tasar/Kosa) is produced by silkworms (Antheraea mylitta) that feed on wild Sal, Asan, and Arjun trees.
• Wild/non-mulberry silk.
• Major producing states: Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal.
• Tussar silk has a natural golden sheen and rich texture.

About the Munda Community

• One of India’s largest tribal communities.
• Linguistic group: Mundari (Austroasiatic family).
• Geographic concentration: Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal.
• Population: Approximately 2 million.
• Famous Munda leader: Birsa Munda (1875-1900), tribal freedom fighter.
• Birsa Munda Jayanti is celebrated on 15 November as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas.

About Jharkhand

• State formed: 15 November 2000 (carved out of Bihar).
• Capital: Ranchi.
• Population: about 3.3 crore.
• Tribal population: about 26 per cent (significant tribal heritage).
• Major tribes: Santhal, Munda, Oraon, Ho, Kharia.
• Rich in: Minerals (coal, iron ore, bauxite, mica), forests, biodiversity.
• Current CM: Hemant Soren (JMM).
• Current Governor: Santosh Kumar Gangwar.

Other Recent Notable GI Tags from Jharkhand

• Sohrai-Khovar Painting (2020): Traditional tribal mural painting.
• Tilkamanjhi Saree (recently considered).

Notable Recent GI Tags from Across India

• Mithila Makhana (Bihar): 2022.
• Basohli Pashmina (J&K): 2023.
• Goa Cashew (Goa): 2023.
• Kashmir Saffron (J&K): 2020.
• Coorg Coffee (Karnataka).
• Manipuri Black Rice (Chak-Hao).
• Tirupathi Laddu (AP).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent GI tags granted to Jharkhand’s traditional products, consider the following statements:

1. Four products from Jharkhand received the GI tag: Bhagaiya Silk, Kuchai Silk, Munda Jewellery, and Bamboo Craft.
2. Bhagaiya Silk and Kuchai Silk are wild Tussar silks with a natural golden sheen.
3. Munda Jewellery is traditional tribal jewellery of the Munda community.
4. The GI tags were granted under the Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the GI Act, 1999, consider the following statements:

1. The GI Act, 1999 came into force on 15 September 2003.
2. The Geographical Indications Registry is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
3. The GI registration is valid for 10 years and is renewable.
4. The GI tag is an individual right, not a collective right.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; GI is a collective right, NOT an individual right.)

Q3. With reference to Tussar silk, consider the following statements:

1. Tussar is one of four major silk types in India, along with Mulberry, Eri, and Muga.
2. Tussar is a wild/non-mulberry silk produced by silkworms feeding on Sal, Asan, and Arjun trees.
3. Major Tussar-producing states include Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar, MP, and West Bengal.
4. Tussar silk is exclusively produced in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Tussar is mainly produced in Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar, MP, West Bengal, NOT Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.)

Q4. With reference to the Munda community and Birsa Munda, consider the following statements:

1. The Munda community is one of India’s largest tribal communities, concentrated in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and West Bengal.
2. The Munda language belongs to the Austroasiatic family.
3. Birsa Munda (1875-1900) was a Munda tribal freedom fighter.
4. Birsa Munda’s birth anniversary (15 November) is celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas since 2021.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q5. With reference to GI tags in India, consider the following statements:

1. Darjeeling Tea was India’s first registered GI product, registered in 2004-05.
2. India has over 670 GI tags registered as of mid-2026.
3. The GI Act, 1999 is aligned with the WTO TRIPS Agreement (1994).
4. GI tags are administered by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; GI tags are administered by DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, NOT the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because GI is a collective right.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Tussar is mainly produced in eastern India.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because GI tags are administered by DPIIT.

4. Kaziranga’s First Scientific Assessment of Greater Hog Badger

Context

The Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve has released its first-ever scientific assessment report on the Greater Hog Badger (Arctonyx collaris). The assessment recorded a healthy population of the vulnerable species in the 1,100 sq km floodplain network of the Kaziranga landscape. The Greater Hog Badger is globally classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and enjoys the highest legal protection in India under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Locally called “mati gahori” (earth pig) in Assamese for its pig-like snout and digging behaviour, it is a fossorial omnivore that plays a critical ecological role in soil aeration, nutrient redistribution, and micro-habitat formation.

What is the Greater Hog Badger?

• Scientific name: Arctonyx collaris.
• Local name (Assamese): “mati gahori” (earth pig).
• Reason for local name: Pig-like snout and digging behaviour.
• Activity pattern: Nocturnal (operates almost exclusively at night).
• Diet: Omnivore.
• Size: Medium-sized, the largest of the three globally extant hog badger species.
• Behaviour: Burrowing and fossorial (adapted for digging and underground living).

Conservation Status

• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable.
• India’s Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I (highest legal protection).
• CITES: Not currently listed.

Why is the Greater Hog Badger Ecologically Important?

Fossorial Engineering

• Anatomically specialised for digging.
• Continuously turns over soil and leaf litter while foraging.
• Plays a critical role in:
  • Nutrient redistribution.
  • Soil aeration.

Micro-Habitat Formation

• Burrowing breaks up compacted earth.
• Facilitates seed germination.
• Creates crucial micro-habitats for invertebrates and small vertebrates.

What is Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve?

• A globally renowned wildlife sanctuary.
• UNESCO World Heritage Site (designated in 1985).
• A successful Tiger Reserve (declared in 2007).
• Hosts the world’s largest population of the Greater Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros.
• A vital refuge for elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.

Where is Kaziranga Located?

• Northeastern state of Assam, India.
• Floodplains of the Golaghat, Nagaon, and Sonitpur districts.
• Edge of the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot.
• Adjacent to the Brahmaputra River.

India’s Wildlife Protection Framework

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:
  • Schedule I: Highest protection (e.g., tigers, rhinos, hog badgers).
  • Schedule II: High protection.
  • Schedule III: Lesser protection.
  • Schedule IV: Plants.
• Biological Diversity Act, 2002: For biodiversity conservation and benefit-sharing.
• Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980: For forest land use.
• Project Tiger (1973): For tiger conservation.
• Project Elephant (1992): For elephant conservation.
• Project Rhino: For rhinoceros conservation.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Greater Hog Badger, consider the following statements:

1. The scientific name of the Greater Hog Badger is Arctonyx collaris.
2. It is the largest of the three globally extant hog badger species.
3. It is a nocturnal, medium-sized burrowing omnivore.
4. It is locally called “mati gahori” (earth pig) in Assamese.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the conservation status of the Greater Hog Badger, consider the following statements:

1. It is globally classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
2. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 in India.
3. Its global range includes Bangladesh, Northeast India, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam.
4. The Greater Hog Badger is classified as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Greater Hog Badger is Vulnerable, NOT Least Concern.)

Q3. With reference to Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements:

1. Kaziranga National Park is located in the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River in Assam.
2. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.
3. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2007 under Project Tiger.
4. Kaziranga hosts the world’s largest population of the Greater Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to Kaziranga’s vegetation and geology, consider the following statements:

1. The park features four main vegetation types: tall elephant grasslands, marshy savannas, semi-evergreen forests, and moist deciduous forests.
2. Oxbow lakes locally called “beels” are found in Kaziranga.
3. The Karbi Anglong Foothill Corridor connects Kaziranga to the Karbi Anglong hill range.
4. Kaziranga is part of the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Kaziranga is part of the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot, NOT the Western Ghats.)

Q5. With reference to India’s wildlife protection framework, consider the following statements:

1. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has 4 schedules after the 2022 amendment.
2. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 for tiger conservation.
3. NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority) is the statutory body for tiger conservation.
4. India has zero tiger reserves as of 2026.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has 57+ tiger reserves as of mid-2026.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Greater Hog Badger is Vulnerable.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Kaziranga is part of the Eastern Himalaya hotspot.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India has 57+ tiger reserves.

5. India Gets Its First Guided Missile Prostate Cancer Therapy: Novartis Launches Pluvicto

Context

Novartis has launched Pluvicto, India’s first regulatory-authority-approved radioligand therapy for advanced prostate cancer. Pluvicto (lutetium/Lu-177 vipivotide tetraxetan) is designed for eligible patients with prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-positive metastatic prostate cancer. The launch comes months after Novartis exited its listed Indian subsidiary but reinforces its commitment to India’s innovative medicines market. It signals India’s growing role in Novartis’s next-generation treatment strategy and highlights the maturing nuclear medicine ecosystem in India, with over 250 nuclear medicine centres estimated nationwide. India sees about 2,50,000 prostate cancer cases annually, with more than half diagnosed at advanced stages.

The Therapy

• Name: Pluvicto (lutetium-177/Lu-177 vipivotide tetraxetan).
• Type: Radioligand therapy (RLT).
• Developer: Novartis (Swiss pharma giant).
• Target: PSMA-positive metastatic prostate cancer.
• Origin of supply: Imported from Novartis facilities in Spain and Italy.
• Availability: Initially through select hospitals and nuclear medicine centres.

How Pluvicto Works

• Combines two components:
  • A targeting molecule that binds to PSMA (Prostate-Specific Membrane Antigen), a protein found in large quantities on many prostate cancer cells.
  • The radioactive isotope Lu-177 (Lutetium-177) that delivers targeted radiation.
• The targeting molecule acts like a GPS guidance system, directing the radiation specifically to cancer cells.
• This limits exposure to surrounding healthy tissue, unlike chemotherapy which affects both cancerous and healthy cells.

What is Radioligand Therapy (RLT)?

• A type of targeted cancer therapy that uses radioactive isotopes attached to molecules that bind specifically to cancer cells.
• The targeting molecule (ligand) binds to specific receptors on cancer cells.
• The radioactive isotope then delivers radiation directly to the cancer cells.
• Also called “guided missile therapy” due to its precision.
• Other examples: Lutathera (Lu-177 dotatate) for neuroendocrine tumours.

What is PSMA (Prostate-Specific Membrane Antigen)?

• A protein that is highly expressed on the surface of prostate cancer cells.
• Used as a biomarker for prostate cancer diagnosis and treatment.
• PSMA-PET imaging is used for diagnosis of advanced prostate cancer.
• PSMA-targeted therapies like Pluvicto use this for treatment.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Pluvicto, consider the following statements:

1. Pluvicto is India’s first regulatory-authority-approved radioligand therapy for advanced prostate cancer.
2. It is launched by Novartis, a Swiss multinational pharmaceutical company.
3. Pluvicto targets PSMA-positive metastatic prostate cancer using Lutetium-177.
4. Pluvicto is a chemotherapy drug that kills all rapidly dividing cells, including healthy ones.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Pluvicto is a radioligand therapy, NOT chemotherapy; it targets cancer cells specifically while sparing healthy tissue.)

Q2. With reference to radioligand therapy, consider the following statements:

1. Radioligand therapy combines a targeting molecule with a radioactive isotope.
2. The targeting molecule binds to specific receptors on cancer cells.
3. The radioactive isotope delivers targeted radiation to cancer cells.
4. Radioligand therapy is also called “guided missile therapy” due to its precision.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to India’s prostate cancer burden, consider the following statements:

1. India sees about 2,50,000 prostate cancer cases annually.
2. More than half of cases are diagnosed at advanced stages.
3. Prostate cancer is among the three most common cancers in urban men.
4. India has no nuclear medicine infrastructure to support advanced cancer therapies.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has over 250 nuclear medicine centres with growing infrastructure.)

Q4. With reference to India’s pharma regulatory framework, consider the following statements:

1. CDSCO (Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation) is India’s national drug regulator.
2. DCGI (Drug Controller General of India) heads CDSCO.
3. AERB (Atomic Energy Regulatory Board) regulates radiation safety in India.
4. CDSCO is headquartered in Mumbai.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; CDSCO is headquartered in New Delhi, NOT Mumbai.)

Q5. With reference to India’s pharmaceutical industry, consider the following statements:

1. India is the 3rd largest pharma sector globally by volume.
2. India supplies about 20 per cent of global generic medicines.
3. India is called the “Pharmacy of the World”.
4. India does not export any vaccines to other countries.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is a major vaccine exporter, supplying about 60 per cent of WHO procurement.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Pluvicto is a radioligand therapy, not chemotherapy.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India has over 250 nuclear medicine centres.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because CDSCO is headquartered in New Delhi.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is a major vaccine exporter.

6. India and Slovakia Elevate Ties to Comprehensive Partnership

Context

India and Slovakia have expanded their bilateral relationship with multiple memoranda of understanding (MoUs) across defence, labour mobility, education, digital technology, and other sectors, officially branding the relationship as a “Comprehensive Partnership”. Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Slovak Prime Minister Robert Fico at the Bratislava Castle in Slovakia. This is the first visit by an Indian Prime Minister since the founding of Slovakia in 1993. Talks covered automobiles, railways, advanced manufacturing, green technology, and terrorism cooperation, with both leaders calling for the adoption of the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism at the UN.

The Visit

• Visit duration: A little over 24 hours.
• Location: Bratislava, capital of Slovakia.
• Significance: First visit by an Indian PM since the founding of Slovakia in 1993.
• Hosted by: PM Robert Fico at the Bratislava Castle.
• Relationship upgrade: “Comprehensive Partnership”.

Key MoUs Signed

• Defence: For defence-industrial cooperation.
• Labour Mobility: For facilitating mobility of workers and information exchange between authorities.
• Higher Education: Between the Higher Education Ministries to facilitate academic and institutional linkages.
• Digital Technology: For cooperation in IT and digital infrastructure.
• Other sectors: Automobiles, railways, advanced manufacturing, green technology.

About Slovakia

• Capital: Bratislava.
• Currency: Euro (since 2009).
• Population: about 5.4 million.
• Government: Parliamentary republic.
• Founded: 1 January 1993 (after the peaceful “Velvet Divorce” that split Czechoslovakia into Czech Republic and Slovakia).
• EU member: Since 2004.
• NATO member: Since 2004.
• Eurozone member: Since 2009.
• Schengen Area member.
• Current PM: Robert Fico (since October 2023, fourth term).
• Major industries: Automobiles (Volkswagen, Kia, Peugeot-Citroen, Land Rover have plants), electronics, steel.

About UNSC 1267 Sanctions Committee

• Established in 1999 through UNSC Resolution 1267.
• Imposes sanctions on individuals and entities associated with Al-Qaeda, ISIL/Daesh, and Taliban.
• Sanctions include:
  • Asset freeze.
  • Travel ban.
  • Arms embargo.
• India has used the 1267 mechanism to seek sanctions against Pakistan-based terror figures.
• Notable additions: Hafiz Saeed, Masood Azhar, Dawood Ibrahim, and others.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent India-Slovakia bilateral visit, consider the following statements:

1. PM Narendra Modi met Slovak PM Robert Fico in Bratislava.
2. The two countries upgraded their relationship to a “Comprehensive Partnership”.
3. This is the first visit by an Indian PM to Slovakia since the country’s founding in 1993.
4. The visit was India’s first to a EU member state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has had many visits to EU member states; this is the first Indian PM visit to Slovakia specifically, but not the first to a EU member.)

Q2. With reference to Slovakia, consider the following statements:

1. Slovakia was founded on 1 January 1993 after the peaceful “Velvet Divorce” of Czechoslovakia.
2. Slovakia is a member of the European Union (since 2004) and NATO (since 2004).
3. Slovakia is part of the Eurozone (since 2009) and the Schengen Area.
4. The capital of Slovakia is Prague.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the capital of Slovakia is Bratislava, NOT Prague (which is the capital of the Czech Republic).)

Q3. With reference to the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT), consider the following statements:

1. CCIT was proposed by India in 1996.
2. It aims to create a comprehensive legal framework to combat terrorism at the UN.
3. It has been pending adoption at the UN General Assembly due to disagreements over the definition of terrorism.
4. CCIT was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 2020.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; CCIT has NOT been adopted by the UN General Assembly yet.)

Q4. With reference to the UNSC 1267 Sanctions Committee, consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 1999 through UNSC Resolution 1267.
2. It imposes sanctions on individuals and entities associated with Al-Qaeda, ISIL/Daesh, and Taliban.
3. Sanctions include asset freeze, travel ban, and arms embargo.
4. India has used the 1267 mechanism to seek sanctions against various Pakistan-based terror figures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q5. With reference to India’s diplomatic relationships, consider the following statements:

1. India and Russia have a Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership since 2010.
2. India and the United States have a Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership since 2020.
3. India and Singapore upgraded to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2024.
4. India does not have any Strategic Partnerships in West Asia.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has Strategic Partnerships with UAE (Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, 2017), Saudi Arabia (Strategic Partnership, 2010), and others in West Asia.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India has had many visits to EU member states.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the capital of Slovakia is Bratislava.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because CCIT has not been adopted yet.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India has Strategic Partnerships in West Asia.

Banking/Finance

1. RBI Imposes Restrictions on Mogaveera Co-operative Bank for 6 Months

Source: BS

Context

In June 2026, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed several restrictions on Mogaveera Co-operative Bank Limited (based in Mumbai, Maharashtra) under direction for a period of 6 months. The restrictions are effective from closure of business on 12 June 2026. The bank cannot grant or renew loans, make investments, or accept fresh deposits without prior RBI approval. Maximum withdrawal has been capped at ₹1 lakh per depositor. However, the banking licence has NOT been cancelled, and the bank can continue daily operational expenses like salaries, rent, and electricity bills. Eligible depositors are entitled to deposit insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh from the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).

The Restrictions

• Bank affected: Mogaveera Co-operative Bank Limited, Mumbai.
• Imposed by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Duration: 6 months (subject to review).
• Effective from: Closure of business hours on 12 June 2026.

Key Restrictions Imposed

• No new loans or renewals without RBI’s prior approval.
• No investments without RBI’s prior approval.
• No new liabilities (including borrowing of funds).
• No acceptance of fresh deposits.
• Withdrawals capped at ₹1 lakh per depositor.

What is NOT Restricted

• Banking licence has NOT been cancelled.
• The bank can continue daily operational expenses like:
  • Employee salaries.
  • Rent.
  • Electricity bills.
  • Other essential operations.

Deposit Insurance

• Eligible depositors are entitled to deposit insurance of up to ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank from DICGC.
• This is the standard insurance limit under the DICGC Act, 1961, raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh in 2020.

Why Did RBI Impose Restrictions?

• Deteriorating financial position of the bank.
• Liquidity stress.
• Lack of concrete efforts by the bank’s board to address supervisory concerns.
• Need to protect the interest of depositors.

The “Directions” Mechanism

• The RBI’s directions under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (Section 35A in particular).
• Allow the RBI to impose temporary restrictions on financially distressed banks.
• Do NOT amount to cancellation of the banking licence.
• Aim: To stabilise the bank while protecting depositor interests.

What is a Co-operative Bank?

• A bank that is owned and operated by its members (depositors and borrowers).
• Three-tier structure:
  • State Co-operative Bank (StCB): At the state apex level.
  • District Central Co-operative Bank (DCCB): At the district level.
  • Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS): At the village level.
• Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs): Operate in urban areas.
• Multi-State Co-operative Banks: Operate across states.
• Mogaveera Co-operative Bank is an urban co-operative bank.

Regulatory Structure for Co-operative Banks

• Dual control:
  • RBI: For banking-related operations.
  • Registrar of Co-operative Societies (RCS): For management-related issues.
• Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020: Strengthened RBI’s powers over co-operative banks, especially after the PMC Bank crisis.

About DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation)

• A wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI.
• Founded: 15 July 1978 (after merging DIC (1962) and CGCI (1971)).
• Headquartered: Mumbai.
• Functions:
  • Deposit insurance up to ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank.
  • Credit guarantee for small loans.
• Coverage: All scheduled commercial banks, RRBs, urban co-operative banks, and eligible local area banks.
• Deposit insurance fund (DIF): As of recent data, about ₹2 lakh crore.

Key Terms

• Co-operative Bank: A bank owned and operated by its members, serving specific communities or regions.
• Urban Co-operative Bank (UCB): A co-operative bank operating in urban or semi-urban areas, providing banking services to small businesses, salaried employees, and households.
• Banking Regulation Act, 1949: India’s principal banking law, empowering the RBI to regulate, supervise, and direct banks.
• Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020: An amendment that strengthened RBI’s powers over co-operative banks, including mergers, amalgamations, and reconstruction schemes.
• Section 35A of Banking Regulation Act, 1949: The provision under which the RBI imposes directions on distressed banks.
• Moratorium: A legal authorisation to suspend certain banking operations for a specified period.
• DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation): A wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI, providing deposit insurance up to ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank.
• DICGC Act, 1961: The law under which DICGC was established and operates.
• DICGC (Amendment) Act, 2021: An amendment that allowed depositors to receive deposit insurance within 90 days of a bank coming under moratorium or restrictions.
• Registrar of Co-operative Societies (RCS): A state-level authority that registers and supervises co-operative societies, including co-operative banks.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s restrictions on Mogaveera Co-operative Bank, consider the following statements:

1. The RBI imposed restrictions for a period of 6 months, effective from 12 June 2026.
2. The bank cannot grant or renew loans, make investments, or accept fresh deposits without RBI’s prior approval.
3. Withdrawals are capped at ₹1 lakh per depositor.
4. The banking licence of Mogaveera Co-operative Bank has been cancelled.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the banking licence has NOT been cancelled; the bank continues to function with restrictions.)

Q2. With reference to deposit insurance in India, consider the following statements:

1. DICGC provides deposit insurance coverage up to ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank.
2. The coverage was raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh in 2020.
3. DICGC is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
4. The DICGC (Amendment) Act, 2021 allowed depositors to receive deposit insurance within 90 days of a bank coming under moratorium.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to co-operative banks in India, consider the following statements:

1. Co-operative banks in India are under dual control of the RBI and the Registrar of Co-operative Societies (RCS).
2. The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 strengthened the RBI’s powers over co-operative banks.
3. The Ministry of Co-operation was created in July 2021.
4. Co-operative banks in India are not subject to any RBI supervision.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; co-operative banks ARE subject to RBI supervision for banking-related operations.)

Q4. With reference to DICGC, consider the following statements:

1. DICGC was founded in 1978 after merging DIC (1962) and CGCI (1971).
2. DICGC is headquartered in Mumbai.
3. DICGC covers all scheduled commercial banks, RRBs, urban co-operative banks, and eligible local area banks.
4. DICGC is a private foundation, independent of the RBI.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; DICGC is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI, NOT a private foundation.)

Q5. With reference to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, consider the following statements:

1. The Act is India’s principal banking law, empowering the RBI to regulate, supervise, and direct banks.
2. Section 35A of the Act allows the RBI to impose directions on distressed banks.
3. The 2020 amendment strengthened RBI’s powers over co-operative banks.
4. The Act is administered by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Banking Regulation Act is administered by the RBI under the Ministry of Finance, NOT the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the banking licence has not been cancelled.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because co-operative banks are subject to RBI supervision.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because DICGC is a wholly-owned RBI subsidiary.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Act is administered by the RBI under the Ministry of Finance.

Exam Relevance

RBI Grade B

Core area on banking regulation, co-operative banks, DICGC

2. IRDAI Proposes Major Amendments to Insurance Registration Regulations Following 100% FDI Limit Increase

Context

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is proposing major amendments to the registration regulations for insurance companies, aimed at enhancing ease of doing business, simplifying regulatory processes, reducing compliance costs, improving operational clarity, and facilitating capital infusion. The changes relate to eligibility criteria for Indian and foreign promoters, foreign investment safeguards, Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs), approval for share transfers, amalgamation of insurance with non-insurance companies, processing fees, company names, and application procedures. The amendments come in the context of the FDI limit increase to 100 per cent in insurance, requiring updated safeguards and definitions.

The Proposed Amendments

• Eligibility criteria for Indian and foreign promoters.
• Foreign investment safeguards.
• Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs): New rules.
• Approval for transfer of shares.
• Amalgamation of insurance with non-insurance companies.
• Processing fees for applications.
• Name of insurance companies.
• Forms and application procedures.

Stated Objectives

• Enhance ease of doing business.
• Simplify regulatory processes.
• Reduce compliance costs.
• Improve operational clarity.
• Facilitate capital infusion.

The 100 per cent FDI Backdrop

• The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit in insurance from 74 per cent to 100 per cent.
• The increase was subject to certain conditions, including:
  • Investment of the entire premium in India.
  • Limits on board composition.
  • Compliance with IRDAI norms.
• The new amendments to IRDAI registration norms are aimed at operationalising the 100 per cent FDI regime with appropriate safeguards.

Key Recent Insurance Sector Reforms

• Bima Sugam: A digital insurance marketplace (under development), to be a DPI for insurance.
• Bima Vistaar: A bundled affordable insurance product for rural India.
• Bima Vahak: A women-led last-mile insurance distribution model.
• Insurance for All by 2047: IRDAI’s vision for universal insurance coverage.
• Risk-Based Capital (RBC) and Risk-Based Supervisory Framework (RBSF): Moving from factor-based to risk-based systems.
• Use and File for product launch: Faster product approvals.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent IRDAI proposed amendments to insurance registration regulations, consider the following statements:

1. The amendments aim to enhance ease of doing business, simplify regulatory processes, and reduce compliance costs.
2. The changes relate to eligibility criteria for Indian and foreign promoters, SPV rules, and share transfer approvals.
3. The amendments come in the context of the FDI limit increase to 100 per cent in insurance.
4. The amendments aim to reduce foreign capital inflow into the Indian insurance sector.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the amendments aim to facilitate capital infusion and align with 100 per cent FDI, NOT reduce foreign capital inflow.)

Q2. With reference to FDI limits in India’s insurance sector, consider the following statements:

1. FDI in insurance was first allowed at 26 per cent in 2000.
2. The FDI limit was raised to 49 per cent in 2015.
3. The FDI limit was raised to 74 per cent in 2021.
4. The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit in insurance to 100 per cent, with certain conditions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to IRDAI, consider the following statements:

1. IRDAI is a statutory body established under the IRDA Act, 1999.
2. IRDAI is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana.
3. IRDAI regulates and develops the insurance and reinsurance industry in India.
4. IRDAI is a private foundation with no statutory backing.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; IRDAI is a statutory body established under the IRDA Act, 1999, NOT a private foundation.)

Q4. With reference to India’s insurance sector indicators, consider the following statements:

1. India’s insurance penetration is about 4 per cent of GDP, lower than the global average of around 7 per cent.
2. LIC (Life Insurance Corporation of India) dominates the life insurance market with about 60 per cent share.
3. India’s insurance density is about USD 95 per capita, much lower than developed countries.
4. India’s insurance sector is fully saturated, with no room for further growth.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s insurance sector has significant room for growth with low penetration and density.)

Q5. With reference to recent insurance sector reforms in India, consider the following statements:

1. Bima Sugam is a proposed digital insurance marketplace to act as a DPI for insurance.
2. Bima Vistaar is a bundled affordable insurance product for rural India.
3. Bima Vahak is a women-led last-mile insurance distribution model.
4. IRDAI’s vision is “Insurance for All by 2047”.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the amendments aim to facilitate capital infusion.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because IRDAI is a statutory body.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India’s insurance sector has significant room for growth.
5. (d), All four statements are correct.

Facts To Remember

1. Slovakia Confers Highest State Honour on Prime Minister Narendra Modi

President of Slovakia, Peter Pellegrini, conferred the country’s highest civilian honour, The Order of the White Double Cross, First Class, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi in recognition of his contributions to strengthening bilateral relations between India and Slovakia.

2. DRDO Successfully Tests Indigenous Long-Range Land Attack Cruise Missile

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the flight test of the indigenously developed Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM) from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha. The successful trial marked a major milestone in enhancing India’s indigenous long-range precision strike capabilities.

3. Theme of International Day of Yoga 2026 Announced as “Yoga for Healthy Ageing”

Union AYUSH Minister Prataprao Jadhav announced that the theme of International Day of Yoga (IDY) 2026 will be “Yoga for Healthy Ageing.” Prime Minister Narendra Modi will lead the main national event in Kolkata on 21 June 2026.

4. ISRO and Department of Atomic Energy Collaborate on Advanced Lunar Lander Technology

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) have collaborated to develop an advanced artificial heating system for future lunar landers. The technology aims to protect spacecraft from the Moon’s extreme freezing temperatures and support long-duration lunar missions.

5. India Post Launches Drone-Based Mail Transmission Service in Himachal Pradesh

Union Minister of Communications Jyotiraditya Scindia announced the launch of a drone-based mail transmission service in Himachal Pradesh. The initiative aims to improve postal connectivity and reduce delivery times in remote and difficult terrain areas.

6. NTA Launches ‘Pariksha Karmayogi’ Programme for Examination Officials

The National Testing Agency (NTA) launched the Pariksha Karmayogi: Capacity-Building Programme for Examination Officials on the iGOT Karmayogi Bharat platform. The initiative is designed to strengthen the skills, efficiency, and professionalism of examination officials across India.

7. Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth Appointed as Chief of Army Staff

The Government of India appointed Lieutenant General Dhiraj Seth as the next Chief of the Army Staff with effect from 30 June 2026. He is currently serving as the Vice Chief of the Army Staff and will succeed General Upendra Dwivedi.

8. DRDO Demonstrates Multi-Layered Ballistic Missile Defence Capability

DRDO successfully conducted three consecutive flight tests demonstrating India’s multi-layered Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) capability. The trials validated the system’s ability to intercept long-range and medium-range ballistic missile threats and included the maiden flight test of the indigenous Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Medium Range (NASM-MR).

9. Centre Signs Historic Tripartite MoU with Assam and Nagaland for Oil and Gas Exploration

The Government of India signed a historic tripartite Memorandum of Understanding with the Governments of Assam and Nagaland for the exploration and production of crude oil and natural gas. The agreement is expected to boost energy development and strengthen economic cooperation in the Northeast region.

10. Government Launches ‘Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra’ WhatsApp-Based AI Advisory Service

The Government introduced Oilseeds Kisaan Mitra, a WhatsApp-based AI advisory platform that provides farmers with research-based guidance on oilseed cultivation in their preferred language. The initiative aims to support farmers during the kharif season through timely and accessible agricultural advice.

11. India and Nepal Launch UPI-NPI Cross-Border Remittance Facility

India and Nepal launched a peer-to-peer cross-border remittance mechanism by linking India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with Nepal’s National Payments Interface (NPI). The initiative enables seamless and real-time money transfers between the two countries.

12. NIUA Celebrates 50 Years of India’s Urban Transformation Journey

The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) celebrated its golden jubilee under the theme “Resilient Urban India @2047” in New Delhi. The event featured the launch of several publications and the National Urban Learning Platform to strengthen urban governance and capacity building.

13. Ministry of Defence Commissions First Batch of NDA-Trained Women Officers

The Ministry of Defence commissioned the first batch of 17 women cadets trained at the National Defence Academy (NDA) into the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. The milestone marks a significant step in advancing gender inclusion and equal opportunity within India’s armed forces.

14. QCI and FDDI Sign MoU to Strengthen Leather and Footwear Sector

The Quality Council of India (QCI) and Footwear Design and Development Institute (FDDI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding to enhance quality standards, certification, testing infrastructure, and skill development in India’s leather and footwear sector.

15. Oil India Signs Clean Energy Research Pact with Canada’s PTRC

Oil India Limited signed a collaboration framework with Petroleum Technology Research Centre (PTRC) to jointly explore carbon capture, geothermal energy, and other clean energy technologies. The partnership aims to advance sustainable energy research and innovation.

16. Jharkhand and Assam Receive New GI Tags for Traditional Products

The Geographical Indications Registry granted GI tags to 11 traditional products from Jharkhand and four products from Assam. The recognition aims to preserve regional heritage, promote local artisans, and enhance market opportunities for traditional products.

17. Sudarsan Pattnaik Becomes First Indian to Win Russia Grand Sand Master Cup

Padma Shri awardee Sudarsan Pattnaik became the first Indian to win the Russia Grand Sand Master Cup 2026. His award-winning sculpture highlighted the themes of climate change, global warming, and environmental conservation.

18. Lewis Hamilton Secures First Ferrari Victory at Barcelona-Catalunya Grand Prix

Lewis Hamilton won the 2026 Barcelona-Catalunya Grand Prix, securing his first Formula One victory for Scuderia Ferrari. The triumph marked the 106th race win of his Formula One career.

19. Renowned Mand Folk Singer Gavri Devi Passes Away

Renowned Mand folk singer Gavri Devi passed away at the age of 98 in Rajasthan. She was widely celebrated for popularising the iconic folk song Kesariya Balam and for preserving Rajasthan’s rich musical heritage.

20. World Blood Donor Day 2026 Observed on 14 June

World Blood Donor Day was observed on 14 June 2026 with the campaign theme “One Drop of Humanity. Give Blood. Save Lives.” The day recognises voluntary blood donors and promotes awareness about the importance of safe and adequate blood supplies worldwide.

21. World Elder Abuse Awareness Day 2026 Observed on 15 June

World Elder Abuse Awareness Day was observed on 15 June 2026 under the theme “Beyond Awareness: Making Elder Abuse Prevention Work.” The observance aims to raise awareness about elder abuse and promote the dignity, rights, and well-being of older persons worldwide.