Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 16 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
16 June, 2026

International Affairs

1. The Planetary Climate Vital Signs Report 2026

Source: Down to Earth

Context:

A new global climate assessment released during the Bonn Climate Change Conference (SB64), 2026 warns that all major planetary climate indicators have worsened since the last IPCC assessment cycle. The Planetary Climate Vital Signs Report 2026, published in Earth System Science Data by around 70 scientists from 17 countries, provides updated measurements of key climate indicators. All 11 major climate indicators assessed recorded deterioration, with marine heatwaves showing the sharpest increase. Earth’s Energy Imbalance rose 8 per cent, human-induced warming reached 1.37°C above pre-industrial levels in 2025, and the world could exceed the Paris Agreement’s 1.5°C warming limit within approximately 4 years. The Indian Ocean is approaching a permanent marine heatwave state, threatening monsoons, cyclones, water security, and heat stress across the Indian subcontinent.

The Report

• Name: Planetary Climate Vital Signs Report 2026.
• Published in: Earth System Science Data.
• Authors: About 70 scientists from 17 countries.
• Released at: Bonn Climate Change Conference (SB64), 2026.
• Purpose: Provide real-time evidence on global warming, GHG emissions, and climate extremes between IPCC assessment cycles.

Key Findings

1. All 11 Major Climate Indicators Worsened

• Every indicator assessed recorded deterioration since the IPCC Sixth Assessment Report.
• Confirms an accelerating climate crisis.

2. Marine Heatwaves: Sharpest Increase

• Marine heatwaves increased by 1 per cent (the fastest-worsening climate indicator globally).
• Note: While 1 per cent appears small, it represents a rapid global trend.

3. Earth’s Energy Imbalance at Record Levels

• Rose by 8 per cent.
• Indicates faster heat accumulation in the climate system.

4. Global Temperatures Rising

• Maximum daily temperatures increased by 9 per cent.
• Human-induced warming reached 1.37°C above pre-industrial levels in 2025.

5. Greenhouse Gas Concentrations Hit New Highs

• Global emissions: 8 billion tonnes CO2-equivalent (all-time high).
• Largely driven by fossil fuel combustion.

6. 1.5°C Threshold Imminent

• Current trends indicate the world could exceed the Paris Agreement’s 1.5°C warming limit within approximately 4 years.

7. Land and Ocean Warming Intensifying

• Land temperatures: Rose substantially during 2016-2025.
• Ocean temperatures: Increased by 1.03°C during 2016-2025.

8. Indian Ocean Approaching Permanent Marine Heatwave State

• Indian Ocean may experience 220-250 marine heatwave days annually by 2100.
• Compared to about 20 days historically.

What is the IPCC?

• Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
• Founded: 1988 by WMO (World Meteorological Organization) and UNEP.
• Headquartered: Geneva, Switzerland.
• Function: Synthesise and assess published scientific literature on climate change.
• Six Assessment Reports so far:
  • AR1: 1990.
  • AR2: 1995.
  • AR3: 2001.
  • AR4: 2007.
  • AR5: 2014.
  • AR6: 2021-2023.
  • AR7: Currently under preparation.

What is Earth’s Energy Imbalance?

• The difference between solar energy absorbed by Earth and infrared radiation emitted back to space.
• A positive imbalance = heat accumulating in the climate system.
• Currently about 1 W/m², leading to continued global warming.

What is a Marine Heatwave?

• A prolonged period of abnormally warm ocean temperatures.
• Defined as: SST above 90th percentile for that location and time of year, lasting 5 or more days.
• Impacts:
  • Coral bleaching.
  • Mass fish die-offs.
  • Marine biodiversity loss.
  • Disrupted fisheries.
  • Coastal livelihoods affected.

What is the Paris Agreement?

• A legally binding international treaty on climate change.
• Adopted: 12 December 2015 at the COP21 in Paris.
• Entered into force: 4 November 2016.
• Parties: 195 countries + EU.
• Key goals:
  • Limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
  • Pursue efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.
  • Reach global peak emissions as soon as possible.
  • Net zero emissions by the second half of the 21st century.
• Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs): National climate action plans.

Bonn Climate Change Conference

• Bonn, Germany hosts the UNFCCC Secretariat.
• Annual mid-year sessions of:
  • Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice (SBSTA).
  • Subsidiary Body for Implementation (SBI).
• Bonn 2026: The SB64 session (64th sessions of the subsidiary bodies).
• Functions: Technical preparation for the COP (Conference of Parties).

About UNFCCC

• United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
• Adopted: 1992 at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.
• Entered into force: 1994.
• Parties: 198 (almost universal).
• Headquartered: Bonn, Germany.
• Current Executive Secretary: Simon Stiell.
• Annual COP (Conference of Parties) meetings.

Recent COPs

• COP28: Dubai, UAE, November-December 2023. First “Global Stocktake”.
• COP29: Baku, Azerbaijan, November 2024. New Climate Finance Goal.
• COP30: Belem, Brazil, November 2025. NDCs updated.
• COP31: Planned for 2026.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Planetary Climate Vital Signs Report 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The report was published in Earth System Science Data by around 70 scientists from 17 countries.
2. It was released at the Bonn Climate Change Conference (SB64), 2026.
3. All 11 major climate indicators assessed have worsened since the last IPCC assessment cycle.
4. The report shows that climate indicators have improved since AR6.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; all 11 climate indicators have WORSENED, NOT improved.)

Q2. With reference to the key findings of the report, consider the following statements:

1. Marine heatwaves recorded the sharpest increase among climate indicators.
2. Earth’s Energy Imbalance rose by 8 per cent, indicating faster heat accumulation.
3. Human-induced warming reached 1.37°C above pre-industrial levels in 2025.
4. Current trends suggest the 1.5°C Paris Agreement limit will be exceeded within approximately 4 years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to the Indian Ocean warming, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Ocean is approaching a permanent marine heatwave state.
2. Studies suggest 220-250 marine heatwave days annually by 2100, compared to about 20 days historically.
3. Warming of the Indian Ocean could disrupt monsoon systems and intensify cyclones.
4. The Indian Ocean warming has no impact on India’s agriculture or coastal communities.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Indian Ocean warming has significant impacts on India’s monsoons, agriculture, cyclones, coastal communities.)

Q4. With reference to the Paris Agreement, consider the following statements:

1. The Paris Agreement was adopted at COP21 in Paris in December 2015.
2. It entered into force on 4 November 2016.
3. The agreement aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C, with efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.
4. The Paris Agreement is a non-binding voluntary framework with no national commitments.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty with NDC commitments from each country.)

Q5. With reference to India’s climate commitments, consider the following statements:

1. India has committed to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45 per cent by 2030 from 2005 levels.
2. India aims to achieve about 50 per cent of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
3. India has committed to net zero emissions by 2070.
4. India has not made any commitments under the Paris Agreement.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has made multiple commitments under the Paris Agreement.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because all 11 climate indicators have worsened.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Indian Ocean warming has significant impacts.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Paris Agreement is legally binding.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India has made multiple climate commitments.

National News

1. Slovakia’s Highest Honour Conferred on PM Modi

Source: ET

Context

Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi was formally conferred with The Order of the White Double Cross, First Class, the highest state honour of the Slovak Republic. The honour was presented during his Slovakia visit in June 2026, the first by an Indian Prime Minister since Slovakia’s founding in 1993. The Order was instituted on 1 March 1994 to honour foreign citizens who have rendered exceptional services to the development of relations with Slovakia or have enhanced its international standing. The decoration is legally conferred exclusively by the President of the Slovak Republic.

The Award

• Name: The Order of the White Double Cross (Rad Bieleho dvojkriza).
• Class conferred: First Class (the highest).
• Country: Slovak Republic.
• Conferred on: PM Narendra Modi.
• Year: 2026.

What is the Order of the White Double Cross?

• The highest state decoration awarded by the Slovak Republic.
• Specifically designed to honour foreign citizens who have:
  • Rendered exceptional services to development of bilateral relations.
  • Significantly enhanced the international standing of Slovakia.

History of the Order

• Formally instituted: 1 March 1994.
• Following: The peaceful dissolution of Czechoslovakia (Velvet Divorce) in 1993.
• Created at the birth of independent Slovak Republic.

Other State Honours Conferred on PM Modi (2026)

Nation	Highest State Award
Slovak Republic	The Order of the White Double Cross, First Class
Dominica	Dominica Award of Honour
Guyana	The Order of Excellence
Barbados	Honorary Freedom of Barbados

Total Foreign State Honours to PM Modi

PM Modi has received numerous foreign state honours, making him one of the most decorated Indian leaders globally. Notable past honours include:

• Order of Zayed (UAE, 2019).
• King Hamad Order of the Renaissance (Bahrain, 2019).
• Legion of Merit (Commander) (USA, 2020).
• Russia’s Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle (2024).
• Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross (Brazil, 2024).
• Companion of the Order of Logohu (Papua New Guinea, 2023).
• Order of the Druk Gyalpo (Bhutan, 2024).
• And several others.

About Slovakia

• Capital: Bratislava.
• Currency: Euro (since 2009).
• Population: about 5.4 million.
• Government: Parliamentary republic.
• Founded: 1 January 1993 (after the Velvet Divorce that split Czechoslovakia).
• EU member: Since 2004.
• NATO member: Since 2004.
• Current PM: Robert Fico.
• Current President: Peter Pellegrini (since June 2024).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Order of the White Double Cross, consider the following statements:

1. The Order of the White Double Cross is the highest state decoration of the Slovak Republic.
2. It was formally instituted on 1 March 1994 after Slovakia’s founding in 1993.
3. The decoration is legally conferred exclusively by the President of the Slovak Republic.
4. PM Narendra Modi was conferred with the Second Class in 2026.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PM Modi was conferred with the FIRST CLASS, NOT the Second Class.)

Q2. With reference to Slovakia, consider the following statements:

1. Slovakia was founded on 1 January 1993 after the Velvet Divorce.
2. Slovakia is a member of the European Union (since 2004) and NATO (since 2004).
3. Slovakia’s national symbol is the White Double Cross.
4. Bratislava is the capital of Slovakia.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to PM Modi’s state honours in 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Slovakia’s Order of the White Double Cross, First Class.
2. Dominica Award of Honour.
3. Guyana’s The Order of Excellence.
4. Barbados’s Honorary Freedom of Barbados.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to the Velvet Divorce, consider the following statements:

1. The Velvet Divorce was the peaceful dissolution of Czechoslovakia.
2. It took effect on 1 January 1993.
3. It split Czechoslovakia into the Czech Republic and Slovakia.
4. The Velvet Divorce was a violent civil war.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Velvet Divorce was a PEACEFUL dissolution, NOT violent.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because PM Modi was conferred with the First Class.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Velvet Divorce was peaceful.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on International Relations (Slovakia, India’s foreign policy, state honours)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on International Relations, Foreign Policy
BPSC and State PCS	International Affairs, Current Affairs
Banking and NABARD	General Awareness on international affairs
SSC, Insurance, Railway	Static and Current GK on Slovakia, EU, NATO, state honours
Defence (NDA, CDS, AFCAT)	International affairs
Foreign Service	India’s foreign policy, Central Europe

2. The Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

Source: Times of India

Context

The Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced that Project Great Indian Bustard (GIB) has successfully added three more chicks to its conservation breeding programme. The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) is a large, terrestrial bird native to the Indian subcontinent and is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. Classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the species’ wild population is largely restricted to Rajasthan, particularly the Desert National Park near Jaisalmer. The leading cause of mortality is collision with high-voltage overhead power lines due to poor frontal vision.

What is the Great Indian Bustard?

• Scientific name: Ardeotis nigriceps.
• One of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
• Adult males: Weight up to 15-18 kg.
• Height: Nearly 1 metre tall.
• Flagship indicator species for grassland ecosystem health.

Habitat and Distribution

Primary Stronghold

• Rajasthan: Vast majority of wild population.
• Desert National Park near Jaisalmer: Main wild population.

Conservation Status

• IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered.
• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I (highest legal protection in India).
• CITES: Appendix I (prohibits international commercial trade).
• Wild Population: Less than 150 individuals estimated globally.

Project Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

• Launched: 2013-14 as a Central scheme.
• Aim: Conservation breeding and habitat protection of GIB.
• Conservation breeding centres: Desert National Park (Sam, Jaisalmer) and Sorsan (Kota).
• Implementing agencies: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and Rajasthan Forest Department.
• Recent successes: Multiple chicks bred in captivity since 2019.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

1. The scientific name is Ardeotis nigriceps.
2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
3. The GIB is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
4. The GIB is a marine bird found mainly in the Indian Ocean.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the GIB is a terrestrial bird native to arid grasslands, NOT a marine bird.)

Q2. With reference to the conservation status and habitat of the GIB, consider the following statements:

1. The GIB is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
2. The GIB is listed under CITES Appendix I.
3. The Desert National Park in Jaisalmer is the primary stronghold.
4. The leading cause of mortality is collision with high-voltage overhead power lines.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to the threats facing the GIB, consider the following statements:

1. Power line collisions are the leading cause of mortality due to poor frontal vision.
2. Habitat loss due to grassland conversion to agriculture and infrastructure.
3. Predation of eggs by foxes, feral dogs, crows, and snakes.
4. The GIB has a very high reproductive rate that compensates for these losses.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the GIB has a LOW reproductive rate (1 egg per year), NOT high.)

Q4. With reference to conservation institutions for GIB, consider the following statements:

1. Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
2. WII was founded in 1982 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. The Supreme Court has ordered burial of power lines and installation of bird diverters in GIB habitats.
4. Project GIB was launched in 2013-14 as a Central scheme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the GIB is a terrestrial bird.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the GIB has a low reproductive rate.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.

3. The 52nd G7 Summit

Source: News on Air

Context

Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi arrived in Evian, France to participate in the 52nd G7 Summit at the official invitation of French President Emmanuel Macron. The summit was held from 15-17 June 2026. This marks India’s 13th overall and 7th consecutive appearance as an invitee to the G7 Summit. The G7 (Group of Seven) is an annual international forum of the world’s most advanced industrialised economies. The 2026 agenda focused heavily on AI governance, geopolitical crisis resolution, and economic coordination. India, China, South Korea, Kenya, and Brazil were invited as guest countries.

The Summit

• Edition: 52nd G7 Summit.
• Host: France (under President Emmanuel Macron’s presidency).
• Location: Evian, France.
• Dates: 15-17 June 2026.
• Next host (2027): United States (rotating presidency).

India’s Participation

• 13th overall invitation to G7.
• 7th consecutive appearance as invitee.
• Reflects India’s growing global standing as the world’s 5th-largest economy and most populous nation.

What is the G7?

• G7 (Group of Seven): An annual international forum of the world’s most advanced industrialised economies.
• Function: High-level political and economic coordination to shape global responses to transnational challenges.

Members of the G7

• Canada.
• France.
• Germany.
• Italy.
• Japan.
• United Kingdom.
• United States.
• European Union (participates as a fully integrated non-enumerated member).

Invited Guest Countries for 2026 Summit

• India.
• China.
• South Korea.
• Kenya.
• Brazil.

History of the G7 Summit

Founding Era

• Originated: Mid-1970s as an informal gathering of finance ministers and leaders.
• Purpose: To coordinate solutions to global oil shocks and macroeconomic crises.
• First Summit: 1975 in Rambouillet, France.

The G8 Transformation

• EU integration: Began with London (1977) and Ottawa (1981) summits.
• Russia joined in 1998, making it G8.

The 2014 Restructuring

• Reverted to G7 in 2014.
• Russia suspended following its violation of Ukraine’s sovereignty (annexation of Crimea).

Key Functions of the G7

Economic Steering

• Works alongside G20 to synchronise international monetary actions.
• Balance macroeconomic instabilities.
• Preserve global financial predictability.

Geopolitical Crisis Resolution

• Formulates unified strategic policies on international conflicts, maritime security, peace architectures.

Setting Global Tech Standards

• Establishes international governance frameworks for emerging technologies.
• 2026 agenda focused heavily on safe deployment and ethical future of AI.

Enforcing Policies

• Issues joint ministerial declarations and communiqués.
• Politically binding on participating member states.

G7 vs G20

• G7: 7 wealthy advanced economies + EU.
• G20: 19 major economies + EU (including India, China, Russia, Brazil, etc.).
• G7 is more exclusive; G20 is more inclusive.

India’s G20 Presidency (Recap)

• India held G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023.
• G20 Summit in Delhi in September 2023.
• Major achievements:
  • African Union became permanent G20 member.
  • G20 Delhi Declaration unanimously adopted.
  • Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) promoted.
  • Climate finance emphasis.

Other International Groupings

• BRICS: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa + new members.
• QUAD: US, Japan, Australia, India.
• SCO: Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.
• OECD: Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (38 advanced economies).
• UN Security Council (UNSC).

Recent G7 Summits

• 2022: Schloss Elmau, Germany.
• 2023: Hiroshima, Japan.
• 2024: Apulia, Italy.
• 2025: Kananaskis, Canada.
• 2026: Evian, France.
• 2027: United States (planned).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the 52nd G7 Summit (2026), consider the following statements:

1. The summit was held in Evian, France, from 15-17 June 2026.
2. It was India’s 13th overall and 7th consecutive appearance as an invitee.
3. The United States will host the G7 Summit in 2027.
4. The G7 Summit invited China, South Korea, Kenya, and Brazil but not India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India was also invited as a guest country.)

Q2. With reference to the G7 (Group of Seven), consider the following statements:

1. G7 comprises Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK, USA + EU.
2. The EU participates as a fully integrated non-enumerated member.
3. G7 originated in the mid-1970s as an informal gathering of finance ministers.
4. India is a permanent member of the G7.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is NOT a permanent member of the G7; it is frequently invited as a guest.)

Q3. With reference to the history of the G7, consider the following statements:

1. The first G7 Summit was held in 1975 in Rambouillet, France.
2. Russia joined in 1998, making it G8.
3. Russia was suspended in 2014 following its annexation of Crimea, reverting the group to G7.
4. The G7 has always included Russia as a permanent member.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Russia was part of G8 only from 1998-2014, and is currently NOT a member.)

Q4. With reference to G7 vs G20, consider the following statements:

1. G7 has 7 advanced economies + EU; G20 has 19 economies + EU.
2. G7 countries account for about 45 per cent of global GDP.
3. G20 includes India, China, Russia, Brazil, and other emerging economies.
4. India has never held the G20 Presidency.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India held the G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India was also invited.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is not a permanent G7 member.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Russia was a member only from 1998-2014.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India held the G20 Presidency in 2022-23.

4. WT-MARUT: India’s First Wind Turbine Supply Chain Management Portal Launched

Source: News on Air

Context

The Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy officially launched India’s first dedicated wind turbine supply chain management portal, WT-MARUT, at the Global Wind Day Conference in Goa. WT-MARUT is India’s first indigenous, centralised digital platform for managing, tracking, and optimising the domestic wind turbine manufacturing supply chain ecosystem. The portal is launched under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) and aims to strengthen India’s domestic wind manufacturing capabilities. India has installed 56.1 GW of wind capacity but utilised only a small share of its 1,164 GW potential. The national target is 100 GW by 2030. Wind equipment exports crossed ₹12,000 crore in FY 2025-26.

The Launch

• Portal name: WT-MARUT (Wind Turbine MARUT).
• Launched by: Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy.
• Venue: Global Wind Day Conference, Goa.
• Status: India’s first dedicated wind turbine supply chain management portal.

What is WT-MARUT?

• An indigenous, centralised digital platform.
• Explicitly dedicated to managing, tracking, and optimising the domestic wind turbine manufacturing supply chain ecosystem.
• Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• Aim: Strengthen India’s domestic wind manufacturing capabilities and drive inclusion across the supply chain.

Key Features

Supply Chain Visibility and Mapping

• End-to-end operational visibility across the tier-structured wind energy component network.
• From raw processing to final assembly.

Automated ALMM Compliance

• Facilitates smooth compliance with domestic sourcing rules.
• Under the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) framework.
• Clear tracking of local content requirements.

Supplier Discovery and Qualification

• A B2B platform to help project developers find, verify, and qualify component suppliers.
• Reduces procurement times.

Cross-Sector Collaboration Hub

• Unified communication and data-sharing platform.
• Links turbine manufacturers, independent power producers, component designers, policy regulators.

Export Readiness Analytics

• Tracking mechanisms to align component specifications with international quality standards.
• Enhances global trade operations.

About ALMM (Approved List of Models and Manufacturers)

• A list maintained by the MNRE of approved solar PV modules and manufacturers.
• Extended to wind (via WT-MARUT).
• Purpose: Ensure domestic content requirements for government-sponsored projects.
• Boosts indigenous manufacturing of renewable energy components.

Key Schemes for Renewable Energy

• PM-KUSUM: Solar pumps for farmers.
• PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana: Rooftop solar for households.
• Solar Park Scheme: For large solar projects.
• Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Solar PV: For manufacturing.
• Green Hydrogen Mission (2023): ₹19,744 crore budget.
• National Wind Energy Mission (under formulation).

About Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC)

• A non-profit industry body for the wind energy sector.
• Founded: 2005.
• Headquartered: Brussels, Belgium.
• Functions: Industry advocacy, market reports, global wind energy promotion.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to WT-MARUT, consider the following statements:

1. WT-MARUT is India’s first dedicated wind turbine supply chain management portal.
2. It was launched by the Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy at the Global Wind Day Conference in Goa.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
4. WT-MARUT is a foreign portal adopted by India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; WT-MARUT is indigenous to India.)

Q2. With reference to India’s wind energy sector, consider the following statements:

1. India has installed 56.1 GW of wind capacity.
2. India’s estimated total wind potential is 1,164 GW.
3. The national target is 100 GW of wind capacity by 2030.
4. Wind equipment exports crossed ₹12,000 crore in FY 2025-26.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to ALMM (Approved List of Models and Manufacturers), consider the following statements:

1. ALMM is maintained by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
2. ALMM was initially for solar PV modules and manufacturers.
3. ALMM has been extended to wind via WT-MARUT for domestic content requirements.
4. ALMM is administered by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; ALMM is administered by MNRE, NOT the RBI.)

Q4. With reference to India’s renewable energy targets, consider the following statements:

1. India aims for 500 GW non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
2. The solar target is 280+ GW by 2030.
3. The wind target is 100 GW by 2030.
4. India aims to capture 10 per cent of global wind turbine exports by 2030 and 20 per cent by 2040.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because WT-MARUT is indigenous.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ALMM is administered by MNRE.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.

5. The ‘Dancing Girl’ of Mohenjo-daro

Source: Indian Express

Context

The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has announced that it will replace a retouched image of the iconic Mohenjo-daro Dancing Girl in its new Class 9 Art textbook. The Dancing Girl is a bronze statuette from the Indus Valley Civilisation (Harappan Civilisation), unearthed in 1926 by British archaeologist John Marshall during excavations at Mohenjo-daro (in present-day Sindh, Pakistan). The figurine is approximately 4 inches (10.5 cm) tall and dates back to about 2500 BCE. It is permanently housed in the Pre-History and Archaeology collection at the National Museum, New Delhi. The artefact demonstrates Harappan expertise in the lost-wax casting technique and advanced bronze metallurgy.

What is the Dancing Girl?

• A bronze statuette from the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Height: Approximately 4 inches (10.5 cm).
• Material: Bronze (copper-tin alloy).
• Period: About 2500 BCE (broader period: 2700-2100 BCE).
• Cultural status: One of the most recognisable symbols of the Indus Valley Civilisation.

Discovery and History

• Discovered: 1926 by John Marshall.
• Location: Mohenjo-daro (in present-day Sindh, Pakistan).
• Marshall was British archaeologist and Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (1902-1928).

Naming Origin

• John Marshall coined the term “Dancing Girl” because:
  • Her asymmetrical stance reminded him of contemporary nautch girls (female dancers in traditional Indian courts).

Current Repository

• National Museum, New Delhi.
• Pre-History and Archaeology collection.
• Permanently displayed.

Physical Characteristics

Contrapposto Stance

• Feet apart, body weight distributed unevenly, resting on right leg.
• Natural, fluid posture known in art history as contrapposto.

Arm Placement

• Right arm: Bent at elbow, clenched fist propped against back of hip.
• Left arm: Elongated, hangs loosely, holding a small vessel.

Asymmetrical Ornamentation

• Left arm: Almost completely covered with 24 bangles.
• Right arm: Only 4 bangles + 1 bracelet.
• Cowry-shell necklace.

Facial Features and Hair

• Tight bun at the nape of neck.
• High forehead, large eyes, wide nose, full lips.
• Face tilted upward with confident, defiant demeanour.

About the Indus Valley Civilisation (Harappan Civilisation)

• One of the world’s oldest urban civilisations.
• Period: about 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.
• Mature phase: 2600-1900 BCE.
• Spread: From Afghanistan, Pakistan, and northwest India.
• Key sites:
  • Harappa (Punjab, Pakistan): First excavated, gives the name Harappan.
  • Mohenjo-daro (Sindh, Pakistan): Largest site.
  • Dholavira (Gujarat, India).
  • Lothal (Gujarat, India).
  • Rakhigarhi (Haryana, India).
  • Kalibangan (Rajasthan, India).
  • Banawali (Haryana, India).
  • Surkotada (Gujarat, India).

Mohenjo-daro

• Means “Mound of the Dead Men” in Sindhi.
• Located in Larkana District, Sindh, Pakistan.
• Excavated primarily in the 1920s by John Marshall, Ernest Mackay, Rakhal Das Banerji.
• UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1980.
• Key features:
  • Great Bath.
  • Granary.
  • Citadel area.
  • Lower town.
  • Sophisticated drainage system.

Famous Indus Valley Artefacts

• Dancing Girl (Mohenjo-daro, bronze).
• Pashupati Seal (Mohenjo-daro, depicting Shiva-like figure).
• Priest-King (Mohenjo-daro, soapstone).
• Mother Goddess figurines (terracotta).
• Unicorn seals.
• Steatite seals with Indus script.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro, consider the following statements:

1. The Dancing Girl is a bronze statuette discovered at Mohenjo-daro in 1926 by John Marshall.
2. It dates back to approximately 2500 BCE.
3. It is approximately 4 inches (10.5 cm) tall.
4. The original artefact is housed in the British Museum, London.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the original artefact is at the National Museum, New Delhi, NOT the British Museum.)

Q2. With reference to the physical characteristics of the Dancing Girl, consider the following statements:

1. The figure stands in a contrapposto stance.
2. Her left arm is covered with 24 bangles, while her right arm has only 4 bangles and 1 bracelet.
3. The statuette is made of bronze using lost-wax casting technique.
4. The Dancing Girl is made of terracotta, like most other Harappan figures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Dancing Girl is made of BRONZE, NOT terracotta. Most Harappan figures are terracotta, but the Dancing Girl is a notable exception.)

Q3. With reference to the Indus Valley Civilisation, consider the following statements:

1. The Indus Valley Civilisation flourished from about 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.
2. Mohenjo-daro and Harappa are the two largest known sites.
3. Indian sites include Dholavira, Lothal, Rakhigarhi, Kalibangan, and Banawali.
4. The Indus script has been fully deciphered.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Indus script remains undeciphered.)

Q4. With reference to NCERT, consider the following statements:

1. NCERT was founded in 1961.
2. NCERT is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education.
3. NCERT develops school curriculum and textbooks.
4. NCERT is a private foundation with no government affiliation.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; NCERT is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the original is at the National Museum, New Delhi.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Dancing Girl is bronze, not terracotta.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Indus script remains undeciphered.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because NCERT is under the Ministry of Education.

Banking/Finance

1. Central Banks to Raise Gold Reserves Over One Year: WGC 2026 Survey

Source: BL

Context

The World Gold Council’s (WGC) 2026 Central Bank Gold Reserves (CBGR) survey indicates that central banks around the world would continue accumulating gold in the future. Over the past 4 years, central banks have accumulated an average of 1,000 tonnes of gold annually, double the 500-tonne average of the preceding decade. Indian gold prices have risen by about 40 per cent in 12 months, driven by central banks’ buying and rupee’s depreciation against the US dollar. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been aggressively expanding its gold reserves, with total holdings rising from 822.1 tonnes in FY24 to 879.58 tonnes in FY25, and marginally to 880.52 tonnes in FY26. The survey was conducted 5 February to 19 May 2026, with most responses coming after the West Asia conflict began.

The Survey

• Released by: World Gold Council (WGC).
• Edition: 2026 Central Bank Gold Reserves (CBGR) survey.
• Survey period: 5 February to 19 May 2026.
• Most responses: Received after the West Asia conflict began.

Key Findings

• Central banks remain very positive on gold.
• Gold’s role: Reflects significance amid volatile geopolitical and economic environment.
• Continuation of multi-year trend: Central banks see gold making up a growing share of reserve portfolios.

India’s Gold Reserves

Period	RBI’s Gold Reserves
FY24	822.1 tonnes
FY25	879.58 tonnes
FY26	880.52 tonnes
FY24 to FY26 increase	~58.4 tonnes

Why Are Central Banks Buying Gold?

• Diversification away from US dollar reserves.
• Hedge against inflation and currency depreciation.
• Hedge against geopolitical risks and sanctions.
• Lessons from Russia’s frozen reserves (2022).
• Distrust of Western financial system by some EMs.
• Long-term store of value.

About the World Gold Council (WGC)

• A global market development organisation for the gold industry.
• Founded: 1987.
• Headquartered: London, UK.
• Members: Over 30 leading gold mining companies.
• Functions:
  • Market intelligence and research.
  • Industry promotion.
  • Investment products (e.g., SPDR Gold Shares ETF).
  • Central bank engagement.
• Key publications:
  • Gold Demand Trends (quarterly).
  • Central Bank Gold Reserves Survey.

Global Top 10 Gold-Holding Central Banks (Approximate, Mid-2026)

Rank	Country	Approximate Reserves (Tonnes)
1	United States	8,133
2	Germany	3,352
3	IMF (international body)	2,814
4	Italy	2,452
5	France	2,437
6	Russia	2,332
7	China	2,279+ (rising)
8	Switzerland	1,040
9	India	880.52 (FY26)
10	Japan	846

Why is Gold a Reserve Asset?

• Universal acceptance.
• No counter-party risk (unlike fiat currencies or bonds).
• Historical store of value over 5,000+ years.
• Liquid market.
• Hedge against inflation and currency debasement.
• Politically neutral asset.

Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB)

• Launched in 2015 by the Government of India through the RBI.
• Tenure: 8 years, with early exit after 5 years.
• Interest rate: 2.5 per cent per annum (in addition to gold price appreciation).
• Tax benefits: Capital gains tax exemption if held to maturity.
• Issuance paused in FY25 and FY26 due to high government cost.

Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS, 2015)

• Allows households to deposit physical gold with banks and earn interest.
• Aim: To mobilise idle gold in Indian households (estimated 25,000-30,000 tonnes).
• Three categories: Short-term, medium-term, long-term deposits.

Why Did RBI Increase Gold Reserves?

• Diversification of forex reserves.
• Hedge against US dollar depreciation.
• Reduce dependence on single-currency assets.
• Boost reserve quality.
• Geopolitical hedge following Russia’s frozen reserves.
• Long-term store of value.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the WGC’s 2026 Central Bank Gold Reserves Survey, consider the following statements:

1. Central banks have accumulated an average of 1,000 tonnes of gold annually over the past 4 years.
2. This is double the 500-tonne average of the preceding decade.
3. India’s gold reserves rose from 822.1 tonnes in FY24 to 880.52 tonnes in FY26.
4. The survey shows central banks are negative on gold and plan to reduce holdings.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; central banks remain VERY POSITIVE on gold and plan to increase holdings.)

Q2. With reference to the World Gold Council (WGC), consider the following statements:

1. WGC is a global market development organisation for the gold industry.
2. It was founded in 1987 and is headquartered in London, UK.
3. WGC’s members include over 30 leading gold mining companies.
4. WGC publishes Gold Demand Trends (quarterly) and Central Bank Gold Reserves Survey (annual).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to India’s gold reserves and forex reserves, consider the following statements:

1. India’s gold reserves were 880.52 tonnes at the end of FY26.
2. India’s forex reserves are over USD 700 billion.
3. Gold’s share in India’s forex reserves is about 9-10 per cent.
4. India does not hold any gold in its forex reserves.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India holds 880.52 tonnes of gold in its forex reserves.)

Q4. With reference to Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB), consider the following statements:

1. SGBs were launched in 2015 by the Government of India through the RBI.
2. The tenure is 8 years with an early exit option after 5 years.
3. SGBs offer 2.5 per cent annual interest in addition to gold price appreciation.
4. Capital gains tax is exempt if SGBs are held to maturity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q5. With reference to India’s position in global gold consumption and reserves, consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s 2nd-largest gold consumer, after China.
2. India’s annual gold demand is about 750-800 tonnes.
3. India ranks among the top 10 gold-holding central banks globally.
4. Gold has no cultural or religious significance in India.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; gold has deep cultural and religious significance in India.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because central banks remain very positive on gold.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India holds 880.52 tonnes of gold.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because gold has deep cultural significance.

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, RBI reserves, gold, forex, SGB, GMS
RBI Grade B	Core area on monetary policy, forex management, gold
NABARD Grade A	General awareness on financial sector

2. Marine Insurance

Source: Business Standard

Context

Marine war-risk insurance premiums, which had already started normalising following the launch of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP), could soften further if the proposed US-Iran agreement leads to a sustained reopening of the Strait of Hormuz and a reduction in regional tensions. The war-risk premiums had shot up during the US-Iran conflict and the maritime blockade, but are now easing with the diplomatic resolution. The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP) is India’s indigenous mechanism to provide war-risk cover to Indian-flag shipping during geopolitical crises, reducing dependence on foreign reinsurance.

The Recent Trend

• Marine war-risk premiums had already started easing following the BMIP launch.
• Could soften further with:
  • Sustained reopening of the Strait of Hormuz.
  • Reduction in regional tensions.
  • Implementation of US-Iran deal.

What is the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP)?

• An indigenous mechanism to provide war-risk cover to Indian-flag shipping during geopolitical crises.
• Aims:
  • Reduce dependence on foreign reinsurance.
  • Provide cost-effective war-risk cover.
  • Strengthen India’s maritime sovereignty.
• Launched in 2025-26 by the Government of India through the General Insurance Council (GIC) of India and other Indian insurers.
• Backers: General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re), public and private general insurers, and government support.

What is War-Risk Insurance?

• A specialised marine insurance policy that covers losses arising from:
  • War, hostilities, civil war.
  • Strikes, riots, civil commotions.
  • Detention, seizure, capture.
  • Mines, torpedoes, bombs.
• NOT covered by standard hull and machinery (H&M) marine insurance policies.
• Premiums are highly sensitive to geopolitical risk.
• Premiums can rise 10-20 times during active conflicts.

Marine Insurance Categories

• Hull Insurance: Covers damage to the vessel itself.
• Cargo Insurance: Covers damage to cargo during transit.
• War-Risk Insurance: Covers war and political risk losses.
• Protection and Indemnity (P&I) Insurance: Covers third-party liability (collision damage, pollution, crew injury).
• Loss of Hire Insurance: Covers loss of charter income during repairs.

India’s Marine Insurance Market

• Major Indian marine insurers:
  • GIC Re (Reinsurer).
  • The New India Assurance.
  • United India Insurance.
  • Oriental Insurance.
  • National Insurance.
  • ICICI Lombard.
  • HDFC ERGO.
  • Bajaj Allianz General Insurance.
  • Tata AIG.
• Total marine insurance premium: about ₹3,500-4,000 crore annually.

About GIC Re (General Insurance Corporation of India)

• India’s only reinsurer.
• Founded: 1972.
• Headquartered: Mumbai.
• Public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Finance.
• Functions:
  • Reinsurance for domestic and international markets.
  • Lead reinsurer for Indian general insurance market.
• One of the top 10 reinsurers globally by premium.

About IRDAI

• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India.
• Statutory body under the IRDA Act, 1999.
• Headquartered: Hyderabad.
• Functions:
  • Regulate insurance industry.
  • Protect policyholder interests.
  • Promote orderly growth of insurance.
• Current Chairperson: Ajay Seth (since January 2025).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to marine war-risk insurance trends, consider the following statements:

1. Marine war-risk premiums had been rising due to the US-Iran conflict and maritime blockade.
2. Premiums have started normalising following the launch of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP).
3. Further softening is expected with the US-Iran preliminary agreement and Strait of Hormuz reopening.
4. War-risk insurance is the same as standard hull insurance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; war-risk insurance is a separate, specialised policy that covers risks not included in standard hull insurance.)

Q2. With reference to the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMIP), consider the following statements:

1. BMIP is an indigenous mechanism to provide war-risk cover to Indian-flag shipping.
2. BMIP reduces dependence on foreign reinsurance during geopolitical crises.
3. BMIP is backed by GIC Re and Indian general insurers with government support.
4. BMIP is a foreign mechanism imposed on Indian shipping.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; BMIP is an indigenous Indian mechanism, NOT a foreign one.)

Q3. With reference to marine insurance categories, consider the following statements:

1. Hull insurance covers damage to the vessel itself.
2. Cargo insurance covers damage to cargo during transit.
3. P&I insurance (Protection and Indemnity) covers third-party liability.
4. War-risk insurance is part of standard hull and machinery (H&M) marine insurance.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; war-risk insurance is a SEPARATE specialised policy that covers risks NOT included in standard H&M marine insurance.)

Q4. With reference to GIC Re, consider the following statements:

1. GIC Re is India’s only reinsurer.
2. GIC Re was founded in 1972 and is headquartered in Mumbai.
3. GIC Re is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Finance.
4. GIC Re is the world’s largest reinsurer.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; GIC Re is one of the top 10 reinsurers globally, NOT the largest. The world’s largest reinsurer is typically Munich Re or Swiss Re.)

Q5. With reference to India’s shipping and maritime sector, consider the following statements:

1. About 90 per cent of India’s EXIM trade is by sea.
2. India has about 2,50,000 seafarers working globally.
3. The Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030 is a 10-year roadmap for port and maritime sector development.
4. India’s shipping sector is fully self-sufficient and does not rely on global infrastructure or markets.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s shipping sector is significantly integrated with global infrastructure (ports, insurance, reinsurance, fuel, etc.), NOT self-sufficient.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because war-risk insurance is a separate, specialised policy.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because BMIP is an indigenous Indian mechanism.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because war-risk insurance is separate from standard H&M.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because GIC Re is among the top 10 reinsurers, not the largest.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India’s shipping sector is significantly integrated with global infrastructure.

Exam Relevance

IRDAI Grade A

Very high importance, BMIP, marine insurance, GIC Re, reinsurance

3. RBI Lowers Capital Requirement on ECLGS 5.0 Exposures

Source: Business Standard

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed lenders to assign a zero-risk weight to a significant portion of loans guaranteed under the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) 5.0, reducing capital requirements and potentially supporting credit growth under the programme. Exposures under ECLGS 5.0 will attract zero per cent risk weight for up to 75 per cent of the guaranteed portion. Crisil Ratings has said ECLGS 5.0 could increase the debt levels of rated corporates by around 10 per cent, as firms tap the facility to meet higher working capital requirements arising from the ongoing West Asia conflict.

The RBI’s Move

• Allows lenders to assign zero per cent risk weight for up to 75 per cent of the guaranteed portion of ECLGS 5.0 loans.
• Reduces capital requirements for banks lending under the scheme.
• Aims to support credit growth under the programme.

What is ECLGS?

• Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS).
• A central government scheme that provides a 100 per cent guarantee to lenders (banks and NBFCs) on emergency loans to businesses affected by crises.
• Administered by: National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
• Originally launched: May 2020 during the COVID-19 pandemic.

ECLGS Evolution

Version	Launched	Purpose	Coverage
ECLGS 1.0	May 2020	COVID-19 relief, MSMEs and businesses	Loans up to ₹3 lakh crore guarantee
ECLGS 2.0	November 2020	Expanded to 26 stressed sectors and healthcare	Increased coverage
ECLGS 3.0	March 2021	Covered hospitality, travel, tourism	Tenure increased to 6 years
ECLGS 4.0	April 2021	Healthcare sector for oxygen, vaccines	Specific to medical infra
ECLGS 5.0	2026	West Asia conflict relief for affected businesses	New iteration for current crisis

Why ECLGS 5.0 Now?

• West Asia conflict has disrupted:
  • Oil and gas imports through Strait of Hormuz.
  • Maritime trade routes.
  • Fertiliser imports.
  • Supply chains for chemicals, electronics, food items.
• Firms face higher working capital needs to manage these disruptions.
• ECLGS 5.0 provides government-guaranteed credit to affected businesses.

About NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company)

• Founded: 2014.
• Headquartered: Mumbai.
• A wholly-owned company of the Government of India.
• Function: Acts as a trustee to manage and operate various credit guarantee schemes under the Department of Financial Services (DFS).

What is a Risk Weight?

• A percentage applied to a bank’s asset to determine its risk-weighted assets (RWAs).
• Used in calculating capital adequacy under Basel III norms.
• Higher risk weight = more capital needed to hold against the asset.
• Examples:
  • Government bonds: Typically 0 per cent risk weight.
  • Residential mortgages: 35-75 per cent.
  • Corporate loans: 20-150 per cent depending on rating.
  • NBFC exposures: 20-150 per cent depending on rating.

What is Basel III?

• A global regulatory framework for bank capital, liquidity, and leverage.
• Issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS).
• Three pillars:
  • Pillar 1: Minimum capital requirements.
  • Pillar 2: Supervisory review process.
  • Pillar 3: Market discipline (disclosures).
• Key metrics:
  • CET1 (Common Equity Tier 1): Minimum 4.5 per cent.
  • Tier 1 Capital: Minimum 6 per cent.
  • Total Capital Ratio: Minimum 8 per cent (with buffers, 10.5 per cent).
  • Leverage Ratio: 3 per cent.
  • LCR (Liquidity Coverage Ratio): 100 per cent.
  • NSFR (Net Stable Funding Ratio): 100 per cent.

About Crisil Ratings

• Credit rating agency in India.
• Founded: 1987 (as Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited).
• Headquartered: Mumbai.
• Majority owned by: S&P Global.
• Functions:
  • Credit ratings for corporates, financial instruments, and sovereigns.
  • Risk assessment and research.
  • Other credit-related advisory services.
• One of India’s three major credit rating agencies along with ICRA and CARE Ratings.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s recent decision on ECLGS 5.0 exposures, consider the following statements:

1. The RBI allows lenders to assign zero per cent risk weight for up to 75 per cent of the guaranteed portion of ECLGS 5.0 loans.
2. The move reduces capital requirements for banks lending under the scheme.
3. The change is intended to support credit growth under the programme.
4. The RBI requires 100 per cent risk weight on all ECLGS 5.0 exposures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RBI allows zero per cent risk weight for up to 75 per cent of guaranteed exposure, NOT 100 per cent risk weight.)

Q2. With reference to ECLGS, consider the following statements:

1. ECLGS was originally launched in May 2020 during the COVID-19 pandemic.
2. ECLGS provides 100 per cent guarantee to lenders on emergency loans to businesses.
3. ECLGS is administered by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
4. ECLGS 5.0 is specifically designed for the West Asia conflict context.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to Basel III norms in India, consider the following statements:

1. CRAR for Indian banks is 9 per cent minimum + 2.5 per cent Capital Conservation Buffer = 11.5 per cent total.
2. Basel III is issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS).
3. Basel III has three pillars: Minimum capital, Supervisory review, and Market discipline.
4. India does not implement Basel III norms.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has implemented Basel III norms.)

Q4. With reference to NCGTC, consider the following statements:

1. NCGTC stands for the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company.
2. NCGTC was founded in 2014.
3. NCGTC is a wholly-owned company of the Government of India.
4. NCGTC operates various credit guarantee schemes including ECLGS, CGSSD, CGS-MFI, and CGSEL.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q5. With reference to credit rating agencies in India, consider the following statements:

1. Crisil is a credit rating agency founded in 1987.
2. Crisil is majority owned by S&P Global.
3. India has multiple credit rating agencies including Crisil, ICRA, CARE Ratings, and India Ratings.
4. Crisil is a government-owned body under the RBI.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Crisil is a private credit rating agency majority owned by S&P Global, NOT a government body.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the RBI allows zero per cent risk weight for 75 per cent of guaranteed exposure.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India implements Basel III norms.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Crisil is a private agency owned by S&P Global.

Exam Relevance

RBI Grade B

Core area on banking regulation, capital adequacy

4. SEBI Allows AIFs to Retain Proceeds Beyond Fund Life: Introduces “Inoperative Fund” Framework

Source: Business Standard

Context

Markets regulator SEBI has issued guidelines to permit Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to retain liquidation proceeds beyond their permissible fund life under specified circumstances. The regulator has also introduced an “Inoperative Fund” framework for wound-up funds with residual obligations. The move follows amendments to the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations on 18 April 2026, aimed at providing operational flexibility to AIFs during the winding-up process and surrender of registration. Under the new framework, AIFs may retain proceeds if they receive litigation notices, obtain 75 per cent investor consent for anticipated liabilities, or need to meet residual operational expenses (capped at 3 years from the end of permissible fund life).

The Guidelines

• Issued by: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• Date: 16 June 2026.
• Subject: AIFs’ liquidation proceeds retention beyond fund life.
• Builds on: Amendments to SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 18 April 2026.

Three Circumstances When AIFs Can Retain Proceeds

1. Litigation Notices or Regulatory Demands

• Communications can include notices from:
  • Tax authorities.
  • Regulators.
  • Law enforcement agencies.
  • Courts.
  • Investors or counterparties.
• Liabilities need not have crystallised.

2. Anticipated Liabilities (with Investor Consent)

• 75 per cent of investors by value must consent.
• Fund managers must disclose:
  • Amount proposed to be retained.
  • Estimated duration of retention.

3. Residual Winding-Up Operational Expenses

• Retention period: Cannot exceed 3 years from the end of permissible fund life.
• The Standard Setting Forum for AIFs to formulate implementation standards for eligible operational expense heads in consultation with SEBI.

Introduction of “Inoperative Fund” Status

• New status for AIFs that:
  • Have completed liquidation of all investments.
  • But continue to hold retained proceeds.
  • OR remain registered pending outcome of litigation.
• Provides structured framework for dormant funds.

What is an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)?

• Privately pooled investment vehicles that collect funds from sophisticated investors (Indian or foreign) to invest as per a defined investment policy.
• Regulated by: SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012.
• NOT covered under: SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations or other SEBI regulations.
• Three categories:

Category I AIFs

• Invest in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure.
• Sub-categories:
  • Venture Capital Funds (VCFs).
  • Angel Funds.
  • SME Funds.
  • Social Venture Funds.
  • Infrastructure Funds.

Category II AIFs

• Invest in debt or equity of companies not covered under Category I or III.
• Examples: Private Equity Funds, Debt Funds.
• No specific incentives or concessions from the government.

Category III AIFs

• Invest in listed and unlisted derivatives, use complex trading strategies (including leverage).
• Examples: Hedge Funds.

About SEBI

• Securities and Exchange Board of India.
• Established: 1988, became statutory in 1992.
• Headquartered: Mumbai.
• Functions:
  • Regulate capital markets.
  • Protect investor interests.
  • Promote development of capital markets.
• Current Chairperson: Tuhin Kanta Pandey (since February 2025).

SEBI’s Regulatory Framework for AIFs

• SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012: The principal regulation.
• Master Circular for AIFs: Periodic updates.
• Standard Setting Forum for AIFs: Industry body for implementation standards.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to SEBI’s recent guidelines on AIFs, consider the following statements:

1. AIFs may retain liquidation proceeds beyond their permissible fund life under specified circumstances.
2. Litigation notices, regulatory demands, or anticipated liabilities can justify retention.
3. For retention against anticipated liabilities, 75 per cent of investors by value must consent.
4. Retention for residual operational expenses can extend indefinitely.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; retention for residual operational expenses CANNOT exceed 3 years from the end of permissible fund life.)

Q2. With reference to AIFs in India, consider the following statements:

1. AIFs are privately pooled investment vehicles regulated by SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012.
2. AIFs have three categories: Category I, II, and III.
3. Category I AIFs invest in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, and infrastructure.
4. Category III AIFs are open to all retail investors with no minimum investment.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Category III AIFs require minimum investment of ₹1 crore and are for sophisticated investors, NOT retail investors.)

Q3. With reference to the “Inoperative Fund” framework, consider the following statements:

1. It is introduced by SEBI for wound-up AIFs with residual obligations.
2. It applies to AIFs that have completed liquidation of all investments but continue to hold retained proceeds.
3. It also applies to AIFs that remain registered pending the outcome of litigation.
4. The Inoperative Fund framework allows AIFs to operate as new investment vehicles.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Inoperative Fund framework is for wound-up funds, NOT for new investment activity.)

Q4. With reference to the AIF industry in India, consider the following statements:

1. India has over 1,400 registered AIFs as of mid-2026.
2. Cumulative commitments raised by AIFs are about ₹13-14 lakh crore.
3. The industry has grown about 5x in AUM over the past 5 years.
4. AIFs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; AIFs are regulated by SEBI, NOT the RBI.)

Q5. With reference to SEBI, consider the following statements:

1. SEBI was established in 1988 and became statutory in 1992.
2. SEBI is headquartered in Mumbai.
3. The current SEBI Chairperson (as of 2026) is Tuhin Kanta Pandey.
4. SEBI regulates AIFs under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because retention for residual operational expenses cannot exceed 3 years.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Category III AIFs are for sophisticated investors with minimum ₹1 crore investment.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the framework is for wound-up funds.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because AIFs are regulated by SEBI.
5. (d), All four statements are correct.

Exam Relevance

SEBI Grade A

Very high importance, core area on SEBI, AIFs, capital markets

Agriculture

1. ANNAM.AI and Syngenta Partnership for AI-Driven Climate-Smart Agriculture

Source: Business Line

Context

At the Bharat Innovates platform in France, inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi and French President Emmanuel Macron, IIT Ropar’s ANNAM.AI and Syngenta announced a strategic collaboration to advance AI-powered climate-smart agriculture in India. The partnership aims to develop accurate crop health, pest forecasting, and heat-stress models, alongside AI-driven decision-support solutions to enable Indian farmers to make more informed, resilient, and data-driven decisions. ANNAM.AI is a Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Artificial Intelligence in agriculture hosted at IIT Ropar. Syngenta, a global agritech leader, brings deep agronomic expertise to the partnership. The announcement reflects the India-France Innovation Roadmap 2030, highlighting industry-academia partnerships for next-generation agricultural technologies.

The Announcement

• Platform: Bharat Innovates in France.
• Inaugurators: PM Narendra Modi and French President Emmanuel Macron.
• Partners: ANNAM.AI (IIT Ropar) and Syngenta (global agritech).
• Theme: AI-powered climate-smart agriculture.

Focus Areas of the Partnership

• Crop health monitoring.
• Pest forecasting.
• Heat-stress models.
• AI-driven decision-support solutions.
• Improved productivity, resilience, and sustainability.

ANNAM.AI’s Showcased Innovations

• Hyperlocal weather systems: Next-generation smart weather stations monitoring key environmental parameters.
• Agri-advisory farmer chatbot: Delivers timely, hyperlocal agricultural advice, weather updates, and market insights.
• Digital decision-support system: Uses an intelligence layer for crop identification, crop damage assessment, and pest management.

What is ANNAM.AI?

• A Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Artificial Intelligence in Agriculture.
• Hosted at: IIT Ropar (Punjab).
• Project Director: Pushpendra Singh.
• Focus:
  • AI applications in agriculture.
  • Crop health monitoring.
  • Pest detection.
  • Weather and climate intelligence.
  • Farmer advisory systems.

About Syngenta

• A global agricultural technology company.
• Founded: 2000 (via merger of Novartis Agribusiness and Zeneca Agrochemicals).
• Headquartered: Basel, Switzerland.
• Owned by: ChemChina (China) since 2017.
• Products: Seeds, crop protection chemicals, biotechnology, digital agriculture.
• CEO: Jeff Rowe.

What is Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)?

• An integrated approach to agricultural land management that addresses the interlinked challenges of:
  • Food security.
  • Climate change.
  • Sustainable development.
• Three pillars:
  • Sustainably increasing agricultural productivity and incomes.
  • Adapting and building resilience to climate change.
  • Reducing or removing greenhouse gas emissions.
• Promoted by: FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization).

About Bharat Innovates Platform

• A flagship Indian initiative to showcase Indian innovations abroad.
• Bharat Innovates 2026 held in France, alongside PM Modi’s visit to Nice.
• Other recent editions: Bharat Innovates at major G20 summits, Davos, etc.

India-France Cooperation on Agriculture

• Part of the India-France Innovation Roadmap 2030 (covered earlier).
• ANNAM.AI-Syngenta partnership is one of the outcomes.
• Other cooperation: Sustainable farming, biotechnology, climate-smart agriculture.
• France has a strong agricultural research base, especially in INRA/INRAE and other institutions.

Allied Indian Schemes Supporting AI in Agriculture

• PM-KISAN: Direct income transfer to farmers, leveraging digital infrastructure.
• PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana): Crop insurance with technology-based assessment.
• PMKSY (Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana): For micro-irrigation.
• National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF).
• Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
• AgriStack: India’s DPI for agriculture.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the ANNAM.AI-Syngenta partnership, consider the following statements:

1. The partnership was announced at the Bharat Innovates platform in France, inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi and French President Emmanuel Macron.
2. ANNAM.AI is a Centre of Excellence for Artificial Intelligence in Agriculture, hosted at IIT Ropar.
3. The partnership focuses on AI-powered climate-smart agriculture, including crop health, pest forecasting, and heat-stress models.
4. Syngenta is an Indian company headquartered in New Delhi.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Syngenta is a global agritech company headquartered in Basel, Switzerland, owned by ChemChina, NOT an Indian company.)

Q2. With reference to Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA), consider the following statements:

1. CSA is an integrated approach addressing food security, climate change, and sustainable development.
2. The three pillars are sustainably increasing agricultural productivity, adapting to climate change, and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
3. CSA is promoted by the FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization).
4. CSA is irrelevant to Indian agriculture.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; CSA is highly relevant to Indian agriculture given climate vulnerability.)

Q3. With reference to IIT Ropar, consider the following statements:

1. IIT Ropar was founded in 2008 as one of the 8 new IITs announced that year.
2. IIT Ropar is located in Rupnagar, Punjab.
3. IIT Ropar is an Institute of National Importance under the IIT Act.
4. IIT Ropar is a private university with no government affiliation.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; IIT Ropar is an Institute of National Importance under the IIT Act.)

Q4. With reference to India’s AI in Agriculture ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. IndiaAI Mission (2024) includes agriculture as one of the focus areas.
2. Digital Agriculture Mission (DAM) supports digital transformation of agriculture.
3. Agri Stack is India’s digital public infrastructure (DPI) for agriculture.
4. India has no centre of excellence for AI in agriculture.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; ANNAM.AI at IIT Ropar is India’s CoE for AI in Agriculture.)

Q5. With reference to India’s agricultural sector context, consider the following statements:

1. About 50 per cent of India’s workforce is in agriculture.
2. Agriculture contributes about 18 per cent of India’s GDP.
3. About 86 per cent of Indian farmers are small and marginal (less than 2 hectares).
4. About 52 per cent of India’s net sown area is irrigated, not rainfed.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; about 52 per cent of India’s net sown area is RAINFED, NOT irrigated.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Syngenta is a Swiss company.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because CSA is highly relevant to India.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because IIT Ropar is an Institute of National Importance.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ANNAM.AI is India’s CoE for AI in Agriculture.
5. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because about 52 per cent of India’s net sown area is rainfed.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

Very high importance, AI in agriculture, climate-smart agriculture

Facts To Remember

1. India’s Rainfall Deficit Reaches 35%; Centre Orders Contingency Plans

India’s nationwide monsoon rainfall deficit widened to 35% in June 2026 as monsoon progress stalled across several regions. Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan directed states to prepare crop-wise contingency plans, monitor rainfall-deficit districts, and encourage cultivation of cotton and pulses. Around 150–200 districts have been placed under priority monitoring.

2. IIT Hyderabad to Establish India’s First Nuclear Engineering Design Centre

Indian Institute of Technology Hyderabad will establish CODENE (Centre for Design and Engineering in Nuclear Energy), India’s first Nuclear Engineering Design Centre. The facility will focus on next-generation reactor technologies, nuclear safety systems, computational modelling, advanced materials, and workforce development for India’s nuclear energy sector.

3. BHASHINI and GeM Partner for Multilingual Public Procurement

Digital India BHASHINI Division and Government e-Marketplace (GeM) signed an MoU to enable multilingual access to public procurement services. The initiative will support voice-based governance, AI-powered translation, multilingual procurement tools, and services across 22 official Indian languages.

4. ASI and Denmark Sign MoU for Underwater Survey of Historic Oresund Shipwreck

The Archaeological Survey of India and Denmark’s National Museum signed an MoU to conduct a non-invasive underwater survey near Karaikal, Puducherry, to locate and document the wreck of the Danish ship Oresund, which reached India in 1619. The project aims to strengthen Indo-Danish cooperation in maritime heritage research.

5. NBA Reconstitutes Agrobiodiversity Expert Committee

The National Biodiversity Authority reconstituted its Expert Committee on Agrobiodiversity with Padma Shri awardee Dr. P. L. Gautam as Chairperson. The committee will advise on biodiversity integration in agriculture, sustainable farming practices, seed-sector issues, and international collaborative research involving biological resources.

6. Indian Army Receives 106 Peacekeeper (Agniveg) Kamikaze Drones

The Indian Army received 106 jet-powered Peacekeeper (Agniveg) loitering munitions from SMPP Limited. The drones are designed for long-range precision strikes, feature a range of 180 km, speeds up to 450 kmph, and can operate effectively in GPS-denied and electronic warfare environments.

7. Jio Platforms Enters WIPO Global Top 20 Patent Rankings

Jio Platforms became the only Indian company to enter the World Intellectual Property Organization’s Global Top 20 Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) rankings for 2025. India ranked 12th globally with 3,070 PCT applications, while China topped the list with 73,718 filings.

8. SEBI Revises ETF Trading Framework

SEBI introduced a revised trading framework for Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), effective from 1 September 2026. The new framework replaces fixed price bands with dynamic price bands for equity, debt, and commodity ETFs, while also introducing a pre-open call auction mechanism for commodity ETFs.

9. Lt Vishal Kumar Receives Sword of Honour at IMA Passing Out Parade

President Droupadi Murmu awarded the Sword of Honour and President’s Gold Medal to Lieutenant Vishal Kumar at the Indian Military Academy Passing Out Parade 2026. He secured first position in the overall Order of Merit and emerged as the best all-round officer cadet.

10. Sarvam AI Becomes India’s 130th Unicorn

Sarvam AI became India’s 130th unicorn after raising USD 234 million in a Series B funding round. The funding raised the company’s valuation to USD 1.5 billion, making it India’s only AI startup to achieve unicorn status in 2026.

11. DRDO Successfully Tests Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile

DRDO successfully conducted the flight-test of the indigenously developed Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM) from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha. The missile, with an expected range of up to 1,500 km, successfully validated propulsion, guidance, navigation, control, and warhead delivery technologies.

12. Vice President Releases Book ‘Agatthiyar – The Unifier’

Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan released the book Agatthiyar – The Unifier, authored by O. Shama Bhat and Dr. M. N. Sudha. The book highlights the life, teachings, and contributions of sage Agatthiyar to language, medicine, spirituality, and cultural integration.

13. Global Wind Day 2026 Observed

Global Wind Day was observed on 15 June 2026 with the theme “Our Wind, Our Community.” The day promotes awareness about wind energy as a clean, renewable, and sustainable source of power.

14. ASEAN Dengue Day 2026 Observed

ASEAN Dengue Day was observed on 15 June 2026 with the theme “ASEAN United: Zero Dengue Deaths – A Future We Build Together by 2030.” The observance focuses on strengthening regional cooperation against dengue through prevention, research, and public awareness.

15. Indian Army and Bharti Airtel Sign MoU for Connectivity in Arunachal Pradesh

The Indian Army signed an MoU with Bharti Airtel to expand mobile communication infrastructure in Arunachal Pradesh. The initiative aims to improve access to education, healthcare, financial inclusion, e-governance services, and military communication in border areas.

16. Kerala Launches ‘Priyadarshini’ Free Bus Travel Scheme

Kerala launched the ‘Priyadarshini’ scheme, providing free travel for women and transgender persons on 3,125 Kerala State Road Transport Corporation buses. The initiative aims to improve mobility, reduce transportation costs, and promote social and economic inclusion.

17. World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought observed globally to raise awareness on land degradation

World Day to Combat Desertification and Drought is being observed globally today. 

18. Indian Railways approves ₹755 crore Champa-Korba Third Line Project of SECR

Indian Railways has approved the Champa-Korba Third Line Project of South East Central Railway (SECR) of 42 kilometres at an estimated cost of 755 crore rupees.