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Daily Current Affairs
26 & 27 July, 2026
1. The NATO Ankara Summit 2026 — the alliance’s 36th summit — was hosted by TĂĽrkiye. Which country will host the NEXT NATO summit?
A. Germany
B. Poland
C. Albania
D. Netherlands
E. Spain
View Answer
Explanation: The 36th NATO Summit (7-8 July 2026, BeĹźtepe presidential complex, Ankara) concluded with the Ankara Summit Declaration — TĂĽrkiye’s second NATO summit after Istanbul 2004; the next will be in Albania. NATO (founded by the Washington Treaty, 1949; HQ Brussels; Secretary General Mark Rutte) has 32 members — latest Finland (2023) and Sweden (2024). Article 5 (collective defence) has been invoked only once, after 9/11; Article 4 (consultations) is invoked far more often.
2. In the Henley Passport Index 2026 (20th anniversary edition), India dropped to which rank, with access to 55 destinations?
A. 75th
B. 78th
C. 81st
D. 85th
E. 90th
View Answer
Explanation: India dropped to 81st (55 destinations), down from 75th in the February 2026 edition, sharing the rank with Mauritania and Algeria. India’s weakest-ever rank was 90th in 2021. The index — compiled by Henley & Partners using IATA data, covering 199 passports and 227 destinations — counts visa-free, visa-on-arrival and eTA access (not e-visas needing prior approval).
3. Which country topped the Henley Passport Index 2026 with visa-free access to 192 destinations?
A. Japan
B. Singapore
C. UAE
D. Sweden
E. South Korea
View Answer
Explanation: Singapore topped with 192 destinations; Japan, South Korea and the UAE shared 2nd (188) — the UAE’s rise being the standout story; Sweden was 3rd (187). Afghanistan remained lowest (22 destinations), with Syria (25), Iraq (28), Pakistan (29) and Yemen (30) completing the bottom five.
4. The Securities Markets Code (SMC) Bill consolidates and replaces which three statutes?
A. SEBI Act 1992, Companies Act 2013, Depositories Act 1996
B. SEBI Act 1992, Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956, Depositories Act 1996
C. SCRA 1956, FEMA 1999, SEBI Act 1992
D. Depositories Act 1996, Banking Regulation Act 1949, SEBI Act 1992
E. SEBI Act 1992, SCRA 1956, IBC 2016
View Answer
Explanation: The SMC Bill (157 clauses; introduced in Lok Sabha by FM Nirmala Sitharaman on 18 December 2025) merges the SEBI Act 1992, SCRA 1956 and Depositories Act 1996 — following the Labour Codes model. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance (chaired by Bhartruhari Mahtab) accepted 85+ suggestions: revise the preamble to state investor protection-market development-effective regulation; delete Clause 93(g) (excessive power to SEBI to create criminal offences); list criminal offences explicitly in the Code; 120-day ombudsperson grievance timeline; SEBI surplus continues to the Consolidated Fund of India with 25% in a reserve fund.
5. “Ancient Buddhist Site, Sarnath” was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List on 25 July 2026, becoming India’s ____ World Heritage Site.
A. 43rd
B. 44th
C. 45th
D. 46th
E. 42nd
View Answer
Explanation: Sarnath was inscribed at the 48th session of the World Heritage Committee at Busan, Republic of Korea — India’s 45th WHS (6th in the world, 2nd in Asia-Pacific) and UP’s fourth (after Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, Fatehpur Sikri). The property comprises the Chaukhandi Stupa (with the octagonal Mughal tower built by Govardhan, son of Raja Todar Mal, in AD 1588 for Humayun’s visit) and the Archaeological Remains of Sarnath (Dhamek Stupa, Dharmarajika Stupa, Ashokan column). Evaluated by ICOMOS; Sarnath was on the Tentative List since 3 July 1998.
6. With Sarnath’s inscription, three of the four principal Buddhist pilgrimage sites are now World Heritage Sites. Which one remains UNINSCRIBED?
A. Lumbini
B. Bodh Gaya
C. Sarnath
D. Kushinagar
E. Rajgir
View Answer
Explanation: The four principal sites: Lumbini (birth, Nepal — 1997), Bodh Gaya (enlightenment, Bihar — Mahabodhi Temple 2002), Sarnath (first sermon, UP — 2026) and Kushinagar (mahaparinirvana, UP — still uninscribed). At Sarnath (ancient Mrigadava/Deer Park, Rishipattana, Isipatana), the Buddha delivered the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta (Four Noble Truths, Eightfold Path) to his first five disciples, founding the Sangha. The Ashokan Pillar here bears the Lion Capital — India’s National Emblem (1950).
7. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, investigations must be completed within how many days?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 180 days
View Answer
Explanation: The Amendment Bill (circulated among MPs on 25 July 2026) mandates: investigation within 60 days (the three-month timeline applies to TRIAL completion after chargesheet filing); fines up to â‚ą10 crore for organised networks; Union Government may constitute Special Task Forces; States/UTs may designate Courts of Session as Special Fast Track Courts with day-to-day trials; new Sections 12A & 12B restrict adjournments beyond the next day except for recorded exceptional reasons; appeals to a Division Bench filed within 30 days (max 90-day condonation) and disposed of within 3 months; pending 2024-Act cases transferred to Special FTCs; Special Public Prosecutors appointed under BNSS, 2023.
8. The right to a speedy trial was read into Article 21 (right to life) in which landmark Supreme Court case?
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979)
C. Brij Mohan Lal v. Union of India
D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
E. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
View Answer
Explanation: Hussainara Khatoon (1979) read the right to speedy trial into Article 21. Fast-Track Court framework: Article 14 requires reasonable classification; Article 247 empowers Parliament to establish additional courts; in Brij Mohan Lal (2012) the SC directed States to run FTCs permanently or phase them out. Evolution: 11th Finance Commission funded 1,734 FTCs; 14th FC recommended 1,800; Fast Track Special Courts (Oct 2019) — a CSS partly funded by the Nirbhaya Fund — cover rape and POCSO cases; BNSS 2023 requires sexual-offence trials to finish within two months of chargesheet.
9. As per a NABARD study, what share of rural households reported borrowing from fintech entities?
A. Less than 2%
B. Around 5%
C. Around 10%
D. Around 15%
E. Around 25%
View Answer
Explanation: The NABARD study found less than 2% of rural households borrow from fintech lenders — despite India being the world’s third-largest fintech ecosystem (after the US and UK; projected to exceed $400 billion by 2028-29). Main barriers: trust, awareness and suitability (not digital infrastructure) — thin-file/no-file borrowers, no collateral recognition, rates far above the 7% KCC credit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme, loan-app scandals and remote grievance redressal. Rural borrowers prefer PACS functioning as Common Service Centres.
10. Which of the following institutional measures is NABARD strengthening as an alternative to fintech credit in rural areas?
A. PACS computerisation with ~â‚ą2,516 crore outlay covering ~1 lakh PACS
B. eKisanCredit (eKCC) digital loan origination for cooperative banks and RRBs
C. Converting PACS into multipurpose societies (CSC services, Jan Aushadhi, PM-KUSUM)
D. Working with RBI on National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2.0
E. All of the above
View Answer
Explanation: All are underway: ERP-based PACS computerisation (~â‚ą2,516 crore, ~1 lakh functional PACS); PACS as multipurpose societies delivering CSC services, fair price shops, PM-KUSUM and Jan Aushadhi Kendras; eKisanCredit (eKCC) integrating land records, Aadhaar, eKYC and core banking (NABARD acquired a 10% stake in developer 24Ă—7 Moneyworks in 2025); and NABARD-RBI collaboration on the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2.0.
11. As per the Nature Food study, India’s irrigated paddy fields release approximately how much methane annually?
A. 1.5 million tonnes
B. 2.6 million tonnes
C. 3.9 million tonnes
D. 5.2 million tonnes
E. 7.8 million tonnes
View Answer
Explanation: India — the world’s top rice producer at 154 million tonnes (2025-26) — releases ~3.9 million tonnes of methane annually from irrigated paddy; Eastern India is a global methane hotspot (Odisha’s paddy contributes most to that state’s GHG emissions). Globally, paddy GHG emissions doubled since the 1960s to 1.1 billion tonnes COâ‚‚e annually (2011-2020, +90.4% over 1961-80). Continuous flooding creates anaerobic conditions producing methane; ~half the emission increase links to soil organic carbon loss. India has NOT joined the Global Methane Pledge, and agriculture is excluded from India’s NDC mitigation targets.
12. Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) in paddy cultivation can reduce methane emissions by what range?
A. 10–20%
B. 30–70%
C. 80–90%
D. 5–10%
E. 20–25%
View Answer
Explanation: AWD (periodic drying of fields) can cut methane 30-70% and save 15-30% irrigation water, but needs reliable irrigation infrastructure. Other mitigation options: Direct Seeded Rice (less methane/water/labour, but weed challenges), System of Rice Intensification (young seedlings, wider spacing, intermittent irrigation — labour-intensive), crop diversification to millets/pulses/oilseeds (limited by MSP-procurement-power subsidies favouring paddy), nano/neem-coated urea, PM-PRANAM, biochar and carbon credits. The Odisha Millet Mission (2017, with PDS/mid-day meal inclusion) is the standard example of procurement-backed diversification working.
13. Mirabai Chanu won India’s first gold at the Glasgow 2026 Commonwealth Games in the women’s 48 kg category, completing a hat-trick of CWG golds. What was her record total lift?
A. 185 kg
B. 190 kg
C. 196 kg
D. 201 kg
E. 210 kg
View Answer
Explanation: Mirabai Chanu set new Games records — snatch 85 kg, clean & jerk 105 kg, total 190 kg — completing her CWG gold hat-trick after Gold Coast 2018 and Birmingham 2022. Chanambam Rishikanta Singh won silver in men’s 60 kg. Glasgow 2026 (23 July – 2 August) is the XXIII CWG — a scaled-back edition after Victoria (Australia) withdrew in 2023; Scotland hosts for the fourth time (Edinburgh 1970 & 1986, Glasgow 2014), with 74 nations/territories under Commonwealth Sport.
14. U Mumba TT retained the Ultimate Table Tennis (UTT) Season 7 title by defeating which team 8-5 in the final at Panaji, Goa?
A. Chennai Lions
B. Dabang Delhi TTC
C. Dempo Goa Challengers
D. Jaipur Patriots
E. Puneri Paltan TT
View Answer
Explanation: U Mumba TT beat Dempo Goa Challengers 8-5 in the UTT Season 7 final at Panaji — ending Goa’s unbeaten run, with Manush Shah delivering crucial performances. Separately, the CPCB told the Supreme Court there is no consensus on commercial production of next-generation green firecrackers (concerns over a banned chemical), leaving the decision to the SC.
15. Banks and insurance companies will launch which upgraded KYC system in August 2026, allowing retrieval of verified KYC records via OTP-based consent?
A. e-KYC Plus
B. CKYC 2.0
C. DigiKYC
D. UniKYC
E. Video-KYC 2.0
View Answer
Explanation: Central KYC (CKYC) 2.0 launches for banks and insurers in August 2026 (mutual funds later) — institutions can retrieve verified KYC records from a central registry after OTP-based customer consent, eliminating repeated submission of PAN, Aadhaar or address proof.
16. India’s first drone-based transport of freshly harvested tea leaves was introduced in Idukki, Kerala, by Harrisons Malayalam Limited in collaboration with which company?
A. Garuda Aerospace
B. Tropoworks
C. ideaForge
D. Skylark Drones
E. Marut Drones
View Answer
Explanation: Harrisons Malayalam Limited (HML) with Tropoworks introduced India’s first drone-based transport of tea leaves from plantations to processing centres in Idukki, Kerala — reducing transport time, fuel costs and improving plantation logistics.
17. The CCEA approved the 3rd and 4th railway lines on the Ballari-Guntakal section (~â‚ą1,264 crore) spanning which two states?
A. Karnataka and Telangana
B. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka and Maharashtra
E. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
View Answer
Explanation: The 46-km Ballari-Guntakal multitracking project (â‚ą1,264 crore, target 2028-29) spans Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, improving connectivity to ~99 villages with ~7 lakh population. Separately, CSIR’s Technology Transfer Event (CSIR-CSIO) saw four technologies transferred and â‚ą1.67 crore earned in royalties, with BEL receiving licensed defence technologies.
18. Bihar and MSDE announced a permanent National Skill Training Institute for Women (NSTI-W) campus at which location?
A. Patna
B. Bihta
C. Muzaffarpur
D. Gaya
E. Darbhanga
View Answer
Explanation: The permanent NSTI-W campus will come up at Bihta (â‚ą99.97 crore) and a Skill India International Centre (SIIC) in Patna (â‚ą7 crore) — promoting women’s skilling and global employment opportunities.
19. ICAR-CMFRI launched the “DeepDATA” mobile app — providing verified information on deep-sea fish species — under which mission?
A. Blue Revolution
B. Deep Ocean Mission
C. PMMSY
D. Sagarmala
E. Samudrayaan only
View Answer
Explanation: DeepDATA, launched by ICAR-CMFRI under the Deep Ocean Mission, offers scientifically verified information on deep-sea fish species and enables citizen participation in documenting marine biodiversity — supporting marine research, conservation and sustainable fisheries management.
20. Who assumed charge as the Interim President of FIDE (International Chess Federation) — the first Indian to lead the body?
A. D. Gukesh
B. Viswanathan Anand
C. Pentala Harikrishna
D. Nigel Short
E. Arkady Dvorkovich
View Answer
Explanation: Five-time World Champion Viswanathan Anand — FIDE Deputy President since 2022 — became Interim President after Arkady Dvorkovich suspended his duties, the first Indian to lead FIDE in an interim capacity.
21. Infosys appointed whom as CEO-Designate (effective 1 April 2027), succeeding Salil Parekh?
A. Nandan Nilekani
B. Ashiss Kumar Dash
C. Ravi Kumar S
D. Mohit Joshi
E. Pravin Rao
View Answer
Explanation: Ashiss Kumar Dash — an Infosys veteran with 30+ years’ experience — was appointed CEO-Designate effective 1 April 2027 for a five-year term (2027-2032), subject to shareholders’ approval, succeeding Salil Parekh.
22. ZSI scientists discovered two new spider species — “Simonia lawbah” and “Hamataliwa papikonda” — from which two states respectively?
A. Assam and Odisha
B. Meghalaya and Andhra Pradesh
C. Kerala and Karnataka
D. Nagaland and Telangana
E. Sikkim and Tamil Nadu
View Answer
Explanation: Simonia lawbah (Meghalaya) marks the first Indian record of the genus Simonia; Hamataliwa papikonda (Andhra Pradesh) is the first record of Hamataliwa in AP. Separately, Argentina’s Nicolás Otamendi retired from international football after 17 years — 139 matches, the 2022 FIFA World Cup and two Copa AmĂ©rica titles, retiring after the 2026 World Cup final.
23. World IVF Day (25 July) commemorates the 1978 birth of the world’s first IVF baby. Who was she?
A. Marie Curie
B. Louise Brown
C. Emma Wren
D. Durga (India’s first)
E. Elizabeth Carr
View Answer
Explanation: World IVF Day / World Embryologist Day (25 July) marks the 1978 birth of Louise Brown, the world’s first IVF baby, promoting awareness of IVF and Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).
24. The International Day for Judicial Well-being (25 July) commemorates the adoption of which 2024 declaration?
A. Geneva Declaration on Judicial Ethics
B. Nauru Declaration on Judicial Well-being
C. Hague Declaration on Judges’ Rights
D. Bangalore Principles Declaration
E. Vienna Judicial Charter
View Answer
Explanation: The day (proclaimed by the UNGA in 2025) commemorates the Nauru Declaration on Judicial Well-being (2024), promoting the mental, emotional and physical well-being of judges and magistrates. Also on 25 July: the International Day of Women and Girls of African Descent — 2026 theme “Right to Health – A Fundamental Right Still Denied”.
