Daily Current Affairs Quiz: 03 & 04 August 2026

WhatsApp Channel
WhatsApp Channel
Edit Template
Telegram Channel
Telegram Channel
Edit Template
YouTube Channel
YouTube Channel
Edit Template

Got Questions? We’ve Got Answers!
📚 Whether it’s about exams, career advice, or daily doubts, don’t hesitate—ask away!
đź’ˇ Daily Current Affairs for UPSC Quiz | Daily Quiz for UPSC
đź’ˇ Your Learning Partner Is Just a Click Away!
👉 Click here to Ask Your Question Now and get clear, reliable answers from experts.


1. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 — passed by the Lok Sabha on 3 August — raises the total strength of the Supreme Court (including the CJI) from 34 to:

A. 36
B. 37
C. 38
D. 40
E. 42

View Answer
Answer: C. 38

Explanation: The Bill (introduced by Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal, passed by voice vote) amends Section 2 of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 — judges excluding CJI: 33 → 37; total including CJI: 34 → 38. It replaces the Ordinance of 16 May 2026 with a saving clause. No constitutional amendment is needed because Article 124(1) leaves the strength to ordinary law. Rationale: 92,101 cases pending on 1 January 2026 (75,410 instituted vs 65,615 disposed in 2025), plus regular Constitution Benches. Strength progression: 8 (1950) → 11 (1956) → 14 (1960) → 18 (1977) → 26 (1986) → 31 (2009) → 34 (2019) → 38 (2026).

2. Which of the following statements about ordinances is INCORRECT?

A. Article 123 gives the President ordinance-making power
B. An ordinance lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles
C. D.C. Wadhwa (1987) barred re-promulgation of ordinances
D. Article 213 is the Governor’s equivalent power
E. An ordinance requires prior approval of the Supreme Court

View Answer
Answer: E. An ordinance requires prior approval of the Supreme Court

Explanation: There is no judicial pre-approval — ordinances are promulgated by the President (Art 123) or Governor (Art 213) on Cabinet advice and lapse six weeks after reassembly unless replaced by law; D.C. Wadhwa (1987) barred re-promulgation. Related SC facts: Art 124(3) qualifications (HC judge 5 yrs/HC advocate 10 yrs/distinguished jurist — never used); retirement at 65; Collegium system from the Second and Third Judges Cases; NJAC struck down in 2015.

3. Under the MSME Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026, MSME registration becomes:

A. Mandatory for all enterprises
B. Voluntary, with a free digital registration platform (statutory backing to Udyam)
C. Mandatory only for medium enterprises
D. Paid and annual
E. Abolished entirely

View Answer
Answer: B. Voluntary, with a free digital registration platform (statutory backing to Udyam)

Explanation: The Bill (Rajya Sabha passed it; Lok Sabha on 7 August 2026) makes registration voluntary with a free digital platform giving statutory backing to the Udyam Registration Portal. Classification uses investment + turnover criteria revisable by notification. Delayed payments: Central PSEs must settle MSME invoices via TReDS; new Section 22A requires notified entities to disclose TReDS-routed MSME invoices; States can set up multiple MSEFCs with online dispute resolution.

4. Under the MSME Amendment Bill’s decriminalisation provisions, criminal fines are replaced with graded civil penalties that may increase by what rate?

A. 5% every year
B. 10% every three years
C. 15% every five years
D. 20% every three years
E. 10% every year

View Answer
Answer: B. 10% every three years

Explanation: Penalties may increase by 10% every three years; the Development Commissioner becomes adjudicating officer, with appeals filed within 30 days and disposed of within 60 days. New enforcement tools: Section 18(6) — online dispute resolution via audio-video/electronic means; Section 18A — mediated settlements and arbitral awards recoverable as arrears of land revenue through the District Collector, and recognisable as enforceable debt under the IBC, 2016; Sections 20-21 — States may set up additional Facilitation Councils.

5. PM-SSY (₹5,070 crore floating solar scheme) is expected to attract about ₹28,500 crore investment and cut CO₂ emissions by roughly how much annually?

A. 5 million tonnes
B. 10 million tonnes
C. 15 million tonnes
D. 20 million tonnes
E. 28.8 million tonnes

View Answer
Answer: B. 10 million tonnes

Explanation: PM-SSY (MNRE nodal, SECI implementing; 5,000 MW FSPV + 10,000 MWh storage, FY27-FY31; floating solar ~700 MW → 5,700 MW) is expected to draw ~₹28,500 crore investment, cut ~10 million tonnes CO₂ annually, and create 16,000-17,000 full-time equivalent jobs. CFA ₹1 crore/MW post-commissioning bridges the ~25% higher capex; de-risking grants up to ₹50 lakh/project cover bathymetry, hydrography, solar yield and aquatic ecological studies.

6. The revamped Khelo India Scheme (FY27-FY31) plus enhanced Assistance to National Sports Federations carries a combined outlay of:

A. ₹18,000 crore
B. ₹24,500 crore
C. ₹36,441 crore
D. ₹42,000 crore
E. ₹30,000 crore

View Answer
Answer: C. ₹36,441 crore

Explanation: The Cabinet-approved ₹36,441 crore outlay is nearly eight times the previous cycle — described as India’s most ambitious sports programme since Independence, aligned with Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 and NEP 2020, supporting CWG and Olympic hosting ambitions. Khelo India was originally launched 2016-17 and restructured 2017-18 by merging the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan, Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme and National Sports Talent Search System.

7. Which two NEW school-level initiatives were introduced under the revamped Khelo India Scheme?

A. Khelo India Model Schools and Sports Gurukuls
B. Khelo India Feeder Schools (KIFS) and Khelo India Utkrishta Vidyalayas (KIUV)
C. Fit India Schools and Khel Pathshalas
D. Sports Feeder Academies and Khel Vidyalayas
E. Young Champions Schools and Udaan Vidyalayas

View Answer
Answer: B. Khelo India Feeder Schools (KIFS) and Khelo India Utkrishta Vidyalayas (KIUV)

Explanation: KIFS and KIUV embed physical education into school curricula for early talent spotting. Other features: Emerging Khelo India Athletes (E-KIAs) category expanding the athlete pool nearly ten-fold; an integrated training tier of NCOEs, KISCEs, SAI Training Centres and Armed Forces-run Youth Sports Companies; a National Coach Accreditation Board (NCAB); a unified digital sports platform; and Fit India expansion into remote/border communities.

8. The IAF’s week-long counter-drone exercise “ROTOR CLAP III” concluded on 2 August 2026 at which location?

A. Kalaikunda Air Base
B. Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer
C. Suryalanka Air Station
D. Ambala Air Base
E. Uttarlai, Barmer

View Answer
Answer: B. Pokhran Field Firing Range, Jaisalmer

Explanation: ROTOR CLAP III — the third edition of the IAF’s rotary-wing (helicopter) counter-drone exercise, themed “Counter-Unmanned Aerial Systems (Counter-UAS)” — was an exclusively Indian exercise at Pokhran (Western Desert Sector), validating operational concepts and TTPs against low-altitude drone threats in realistic desert conditions.

9. “Project SARATHI” — reviewed by Health Minister J.P. Nadda for nationwide expansion — stands for:

A. Systematic Assistance for Rapid Treatment in Hospital Institutes
B. Students’ Alliance for Responsible Action to Transform Healthcare Institutes
C. Seva and Rehabilitation Assistance Through Health Initiatives
D. Strategic Alliance for Rural and Tribal Health Improvement
E. Support and Relief Assistance for Tertiary Hospital Infrastructure

View Answer
Answer: B. Students’ Alliance for Responsible Action to Transform Healthcare Institutes

Explanation: Project SARATHI is a youth-led, volunteer-driven patient assistance initiative deploying trained student volunteers in public hospitals for non-clinical navigation, guidance and mobility help — humanising hospitals and easing non-medical loads on staff. Related: MY Bharat (Mera Yuva Bharat, launched 31 October 2023 under Youth Affairs); NSS (1969); ABHA — a 14-digit health account under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (2021, National Health Authority); PGIMER Chandigarh (Institute of National Importance, 1962).

10. The Favara-UPI Cross-Border Payment Corridor (live 30 July 2026) links India’s UPI with the instant payment system of which country?

A. Sri Lanka
B. Maldives
C. Mauritius
D. Seychelles
E. Nepal

View Answer
Answer: B. Maldives

Explanation: The corridor integrates the Maldives’ Favara Instant Payment System with UPI — real-time P2P remittances initiated in Maldivian Rufiyaa (MVR) and credited in INR to UPI-enabled Indian accounts. Initial partners: Bank of Maldives and Maldives Islamic Bank (via existing mobile apps). Permitted categories: family-maintenance and gift remittances. Collaboration: MMA, RBI, NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) — building on a July 2025 NIPL-MMA agreement, operationalised in an accelerated 10-day implementation. Future phases: QR-based merchant payments.

11. UPI is now accepted in NINE countries. Which of the following is NOT among them?

A. France
B. Qatar
C. Japan
D. Cambodia
E. Bhutan

View Answer
Answer: C. Japan

Explanation: The nine UPI-accepting countries: Cambodia, Singapore, UAE, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Bhutan, Qatar and Sri Lanka — Japan is not among them.

12. The Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 exempts FIIs and which international institution from tax on interest income and capital gains from Government securities?

A. International Monetary Fund
B. Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
C. World Bank
D. Asian Development Bank
E. New Development Bank

View Answer
Answer: B. Bank for International Settlements (BIS)

Explanation: The Bill (introduced by FM Sitharaman on 4 August, LS-passed 6 August 2026; replaces the 5 June 2026 Ordinance; amends the Income-tax Act 2025, Finance Act 2026 and PSS Act 2007) exempts FIIs and the BIS from tax on G-sec interest and capital gains for income arising on/after 1 April 2026. Other provisions: rough-diamond trade exemption until 31 March 2041 in notified special zones (mining companies, sightholders, brokers, aggregators, tender/auction entities); customs-bonded-warehouse exemption for electronics components; eased safe harbour for offshore funds; REIT/InvIT unit-holder dividend exemption restored where SPV opted for the new regime.

13. The Taxation Bill also amends Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to empower whom to notify electronic payment modes on which banks cannot levy charges?

A. RBI
B. NPCI
C. Central Government
D. Ministry of Electronics and IT
E. Indian Banks’ Association

View Answer
Answer: C. Central Government

Explanation: The amendment removes Income-tax Act references from Section 10A of the PSS Act and empowers the Central Government to notify electronic payment modes on which banks and payment system providers cannot levy charges (the zero-MDR framework for prescribed modes).

14. India’s gene-edited rice variety “Pusa DST Rice 1” — set for rabi seed multiplication — was developed by ICAR-IARI using which tool, editing which gene?

A. CRISPR-Cas12a; Gn1a gene
B. CRISPR-Cas9; Drought and Salt Tolerance (DST) gene
C. TALEN; SUB1A gene
D. Zinc-finger nuclease; DREB gene
E. CRISPR-Cas9; Gn1a gene

View Answer
Answer: B. CRISPR-Cas9; Drought and Salt Tolerance (DST) gene

Explanation: Pusa DST Rice 1 (ICAR-IARI, New Delhi) — an SDN-1 mutant of the DST gene via CRISPR-Cas9 (licence with US-based Corteva; ICAR MoU expected) — from parent MTU1010, tolerant to drought, salinity and alkalinity. The second variety, DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala) from ICAR-IIRR Hyderabad, used CRISPR-Cas12a (MIT/Broad patent) on the cytokinin oxidase gene Gn1a from parent Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204) — higher yield, earlier maturity. Announced 4 May 2025 by Shivraj Singh Chouhan as the world’s first gene-edited rice varieties; gene editing rewrites native DNA without foreign genes, compressing breeding from 8-10 years to 3-5. IARI holds ~2 tonnes of seed; multilocation trials done in 2023-24; transplanting ~November 2026.

15. At the 22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships in New Delhi, who won the men’s and women’s singles titles as India took four of five golds?

A. Sharath Kamal and Manika Batra
B. Ankur Bhattacharjee and Yashaswini Ghorpade
C. Harmeet Desai and Sreeja Akula
D. Manav Thakkar and Diya Chitale
E. G. Sathiyan and Ayhika Mukherjee

View Answer
Answer: B. Ankur Bhattacharjee and Yashaswini Ghorpade

Explanation: Ankur Bhattacharjee (men’s singles) and Yashaswini Ghorpade (women’s singles) won at the 22nd Commonwealth TT Championships, New Delhi — India securing four of five golds, including women’s doubles and mixed doubles.

16. Odisha has sought UNESCO recognition for the Puri Rath Yatra under which UNESCO list?

A. World Heritage Sites
B. Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
C. Memory of the World Register
D. Creative Cities Network
E. Global Geoparks

View Answer
Answer: B. Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity

Explanation: Odisha seeks nomination of the Shree Jagannath Temple Rath Yatra (Puri) to UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, citing its cultural and religious significance.

17. Justice M.S. Liberhan, who passed away at 87 in Chandigarh, headed the commission that investigated:

A. The 1984 anti-Sikh riots
B. The Babri Mosque demolition at Ayodhya
C. The Godhra train incident
D. The Mumbai 26/11 attacks
E. The 2G spectrum allocation

View Answer
Answer: B. The Babri Mosque demolition at Ayodhya

Explanation: Justice Manmohan Singh Liberhan headed the Liberhan Commission that investigated the circumstances of the Babri Masjid demolition (6 December 1992) — one of India’s longest-running commissions of inquiry.

18. With Sarnath’s inscription at the 48th World Heritage Committee session (Busan), 25 new sites were added, taking the total number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites to:

A. 1,199 across 167 countries
B. 1,223 across 168 countries
C. 1,248 across 170 countries
D. 1,273 across 173 countries
E. 1,300 across 175 countries

View Answer
Answer: D. 1,273 across 173 countries

Explanation: The 48th session inscribed 25 new sites — including the Ancient Buddhist Site of Sarnath (India’s 45th WHS, UP’s 4th) — bringing the global total to 1,273 sites across 173 countries.

19. The Ministry of AYUSH signed an MoU with which body to promote AI-driven innovation in traditional medicine?

A. NITI Aayog
B. IndiaAI
C. C-DAC
D. Microsoft Research India
E. CSIR

View Answer
Answer: B. IndiaAI

Explanation: The AYUSH-IndiaAI MoU enables access to health research datasets, AI infrastructure and computing resources for traditional medicine — supporting research, digital health and capacity building.

20. Varsha Ashok Aglawe became the FIRST woman Director General of which 176-year-old organisation?

A. Archaeological Survey of India
B. Geological Survey of India
C. Survey of India
D. Botanical Survey of India
E. Zoological Survey of India

View Answer
Answer: B. Geological Survey of India

Explanation: Varsha Ashok Aglawe assumed charge as the 54th Director General of the GSI — the first woman to head it in its 176-year history — with focus on critical minerals, mineral security and offshore exploration.

21. Former Chief of Army Staff General Vishwa Nath Sharma, who passed away at 91, served as India’s ____ COAS (May 1988 – June 1990).

A. 12th
B. 13th
C. 14th
D. 15th
E. 16th

View Answer
Answer: C. 14th

Explanation: General Vishwa Nath Sharma (AVSM, PVSM) served as the 14th Chief of Army Staff from May 1988 to June 1990; he passed away at 91 in New Delhi. Also in obituaries: Italian football legend Franco Baresi (AC Milan one-club captain — 6 Serie A titles, 3 European Cups) died at 66; Hindi writer and 2026 Padma Shri awardee Kailash Chandra Pant died at 90 in Bhopal.

22. World Wide Web Day (1 August) commemorates Sir Tim Berners-Lee, who launched the world’s first website in which year?

A. 1989
B. 1990
C. 1991
D. 1993
E. 1995

View Answer
Answer: C. 1991

Explanation: Berners-Lee developed the first web server and browser in 1990 and launched the world’s first website in 1991. World FinTech Day is also observed on 1 August — highlighting fintech’s role in modernising finance and expanding financial inclusion.

23. Tamil Nadu’s four MoUs for Global Capability Centres and R&D include the India campus of which foreign university in Chennai?

A. University of Melbourne
B. University of Western Australia
C. Deakin University
D. University of Southampton
E. Monash University

View Answer
Answer: B. University of Western Australia

Explanation: The four MoUs cover GCCs, R&D facilities and the University of Western Australia’s India campus in Chennai — expected to attract significant investment and generate ~2,920 jobs.

Popular Online Live Classes

Popular Bundle & Interview Guidance

How to Prepare for NABARD & IBPS AFO Together?

RBI GRADE B PHASE II Smart Strategy | How to consolidate Prep in 30 Days

Most Recent Posts

  • All Posts
  • Agri Business
  • Agriculture
  • AIC
  • Answer Key
  • Banking/Finance
  • Bill and Amendment
  • Blog
  • Current Affairs
  • Cut-off Mark
  • Daily English Editorial Analysis (DEEA)
  • Daily Quiz
  • Economy
  • Fact To Remember
  • General
  • International Affairs
  • International Relationships of India
  • IRDAI
  • Job Notification
  • NABARD Grade A
  • National Affairs
  • News
  • NICL
  • Organization
  • PFRDA
  • Preparation Tips
  • Previous Year Question Papers (PYQ)
  • RBI Grade A
  • RBI Grade B
  • Recruitment Notification
  • Result
  • Scheme & Yojna
  • Sci & Tech
  • SEBI
  • Study Material
  • Syllabus & Exam Pattern
  • UIIC
  • UPSC Exam
    •   Back
    • DEEA August 2025
    •   Back
    • RBI Previous Year Question Papers (RBI PYQ)
    • SEBI Previous Year Question Papers (SEBI PYQ)
    • IRDAI Previous Year Question Papers (IRDAI PYQ)
    • NABARD Previous Year Question Papers (NABARD PYQ)
    • SIDBI Previous Year Question Papers (SIDBI PYQ)

Category

Read More....

  • All Posts
  • Agri Business
  • Agriculture
  • AIC
  • Answer Key
  • Banking/Finance
  • Bill and Amendment
  • Blog
  • Current Affairs
  • Cut-off Mark
  • Daily English Editorial Analysis (DEEA)
  • Daily Quiz
  • Economy
  • Fact To Remember
  • General
  • International Affairs
  • International Relationships of India
  • IRDAI
  • Job Notification
  • NABARD Grade A
  • National Affairs
  • News
  • NICL
  • Organization
  • PFRDA
  • Preparation Tips
  • Previous Year Question Papers (PYQ)
  • RBI Grade A
  • RBI Grade B
  • Recruitment Notification
  • Result
  • Scheme & Yojna
  • Sci & Tech
  • SEBI
  • Study Material
  • Syllabus & Exam Pattern
  • UIIC
  • UPSC Exam
    •   Back
    • DEEA August 2025
    •   Back
    • RBI Previous Year Question Papers (RBI PYQ)
    • SEBI Previous Year Question Papers (SEBI PYQ)
    • IRDAI Previous Year Question Papers (IRDAI PYQ)
    • NABARD Previous Year Question Papers (NABARD PYQ)
    • SIDBI Previous Year Question Papers (SIDBI PYQ)

C4S Courses is one of India’s fastest-growing ed-tech platform, dedicated to helping students prepare for premier entrance exams such as NABARD Grade A and RBI Grade B.

Exam

RBI Grade B
NABARD Grade A

Download Our App

Copyright © 2024 C4S Courses. All Rights Reserved.