Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 6 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
6 June, 2026

National Affairs

1. India and UK Launch Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO) in New Delhi

Source: PIB

Context

India and the United Kingdom have formally launched the Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO) in New Delhi, a bilateral intelligence platform designed to monitor global supply chains for critical minerals in real time. The Observatory was conceived during the India-UK Prime Ministers’ bilateral engagement in October 2025 and formalised through a Research Collaboration Agreement in March 2026. It operates under the umbrella of India’s National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) and the broader India-UK Technology Security Initiative, aimed at securing trusted access to strategic resources for clean energy, electric mobility, and advanced manufacturing.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Initiative	Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO)
Member nations	India and the United Kingdom
Launch venue	New Delhi
Conceived during	India-UK PMs’ bilateral engagement, October 2025
Formalised through	Research Collaboration Agreement, March 2026
Linked Indian programme	National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM)
Broader bilateral framework	India-UK Technology Security Initiative
Stakeholders involved	Ministry of Mines, Ministry of External Affairs, British High Commission, industry leaders, research institutions

Aim of the GSCO:

• To secure trusted access to critical minerals that power modern economies, advanced manufacturing, electric mobility, and clean energy transitions.
• To act as an automated mechanism to shield both democracies from:
  • Market monopolies
  • Geopolitical supply shocks
  • Critical resource shortages
• To track minerals in real time from extraction sites to industrial endpoints.

Key Features of the GSCO:

• Real-Time Supply Chain Monitoring: A data-driven tracking architecture that continuously monitors global critical mineral supply chains.
• Automated Disruption and Risk Detection: Uses predictive modelling to identify emerging supply-chain risks, logistical bottlenecks, unexpected export controls, and market chokepoints.
• Advanced Market Intelligence: Generates economic intelligence profiles on pricing patterns, stockpiles, and industrial consumption trends.
• Evidence-Based Policy Anchoring: Connects analytical data with public policy decisions on trade agreements and strategic stockpiling.
• Cross-Border Research Interoperability: Enables shared research pipelines, data pooling, and algorithmic validation between Indian and UK institutions.
• Inclusive Stakeholder Ecosystem: Brings together ministries, industry, and research institutions in continuous dialogue.

About Critical Minerals:

• Critical minerals are minerals that are essential for modern economies, including clean energy, electric vehicles (EVs), batteries, electronics, semiconductors, defence, aerospace, and renewable energy infrastructure.
• They are considered “critical” because their supply is concentrated, often in a few countries, and disruption can have severe economic and strategic consequences.
• Examples include lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, rare earth elements (REEs), copper, tungsten, gallium, germanium, indium, and platinum group metals.
• India has identified 30 critical minerals in its 2023 list, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, titanium, copper, graphite, indium, vanadium, and rare earths.

About the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM):

• Launched by the Government of India to ensure a stable and secure supply of critical minerals for the country.
• Aims to boost domestic exploration and production, promote recycling, build strategic reserves, and secure overseas assets through partnerships.
• Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) is a joint venture company that explores and acquires critical mineral assets abroad.
• The Mission is aligned with India’s 2070 net-zero target and the goal of becoming a global manufacturing and EV hub.

About the India-UK Technology Security Initiative:

• A broader bilateral framework launched to strengthen India-UK cooperation in emerging and strategic technologies, including AI, telecom, semiconductors, biotech, quantum, and critical minerals.
• The GSCO is one specific output of this Initiative.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO), consider the following statements:

1. The GSCO is a bilateral initiative of India and the United Kingdom.
2. It was conceived during the India-UK Prime Ministers’ bilateral engagement in October 2025.
3. It was formalised through a Research Collaboration Agreement in March 2026.
4. The GSCO operates under the umbrella of India’s National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) and the India-UK Technology Security Initiative.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the aims and features of the GSCO, consider the following statements:

1. The GSCO tracks critical minerals in real time from extraction sites to industrial endpoints.
2. It uses predictive modelling to detect supply-chain disruptions, logistical chokepoints, and export controls.
3. It generates economic intelligence on pricing patterns, stockpiles, and industrial consumption.
4. The GSCO is aimed at restricting trade in critical minerals between democratic countries.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the GSCO is aimed at strengthening trusted supply chains and shielding democracies from market monopolies and supply shocks, NOT at restricting trade between them.)

Q3. With reference to critical minerals and India’s policy framework, consider the following statements:

1. Lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, and rare earth elements are among the critical minerals essential for clean energy and electric mobility.
2. India identified a list of 30 critical minerals in 2023.
3. The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) aims to ensure secure supply through exploration, recycling, strategic reserves, and overseas acquisitions.
4. Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) is a public-sector entity that explores and acquires critical mineral assets abroad.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to India-UK cooperation on critical minerals, consider the following statements:

1. The India-UK Technology Security Initiative is a broader bilateral framework that covers cooperation in emerging and strategic technologies.
2. The Critical Minerals GSCO is one specific output of the India-UK Technology Security Initiative.
3. The GSCO involves stakeholders such as the Ministry of Mines, Ministry of External Affairs, British High Commission, industry leaders, and research institutions.
4. The GSCO is a multilateral platform involving all G20 countries, not just India and the United Kingdom.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the GSCO is a bilateral initiative between India and the United Kingdom, NOT a multilateral G20 platform.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the GSCO is meant to support trusted trade and shield democracies from supply shocks, not restrict trade between them.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the GSCO is a bilateral, not a multilateral, initiative.

2. India’s First Flex-Fuel Passenger Vehicle Launched by Maruti Suzuki

Source: News on Air

Context:

The Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas has launched India’s first Flex-Fuel Passenger Vehicle, developed by Maruti Suzuki, in New Delhi. A Flex-Fuel Vehicle (FFV) is an advanced car with an internal combustion engine that can run on different petrol-ethanol blends, from E20 (20 per cent ethanol) all the way to E100 (100 per cent ethanol). The launch is being seen as a new chapter in India’s energy transition, supporting ethanol-blended fuels, lower emissions, and reduced crude oil imports.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Vehicle	India’s first Flex-Fuel Passenger Vehicle
Developer	Maruti Suzuki
Launched by	Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas
Launch venue	New Delhi
Fuel range supported	From E20 (20 per cent ethanol) to E100 (100 per cent ethanol)
Mono-fuel standard for FFVs in India	E85 (identified by NITI Aayog and BIS)
Classification of high-blend ethanol FFVs	Zero-Emission Vehicles (per NITI Aayog)
Ethanol feedstock sources in India	Broken grains, agricultural waste, bamboo, and seaweed

About Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs):

• An FFV is a vehicle that can run on multiple fuel blends without any need for separate tanks or engine changes.
• It uses a specialised fuel composition sensor to detect the exact ethanol-to-petrol ratio in the tank.
• The Engine Control Unit (ECU) then automatically adapts the engine settings (fuel injection timing, volume, spark plug ignition) to optimise combustion.
• Because ethanol has lower energy density but higher octane rating than petrol, the ECU adjusts the engine to maintain power and efficiency regardless of the blend.
• FFVs are widely used in countries like Brazil, the United States, Sweden, and Canada.

How an FFV Works (Simple Steps)?

• Fuel intake: The driver fills any approved blend, from E20 to E100, into a single tank.
• Sensing: A fuel composition sensor continuously analyses the fuel mix.
• ECU adaptation: The ECU adjusts the engine’s timing and fuel injection based on the ethanol percentage.
• Combustion: The engine continues to run smoothly and efficiently without knocking or power loss.

About India’s Ethanol-Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme:

• The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was launched in 2003 by the Government of India, encouraging the blending of ethanol with petrol.
• The target was to reach 20 per cent ethanol blending (E20) by 2025-26, which India has been rapidly approaching.
• India already achieved E10 blending earlier and has scaled up sharply since then.
• The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, amended in 2022, broadened the basket of feedstocks and advanced the E20 target from 2030 to 2025-26.
• Ethanol is produced from sugarcane molasses, broken rice, damaged foodgrains, maize, and agricultural waste.
• The launch of FFVs is the next stage of this programme, allowing higher-than-20-per-cent ethanol blends.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to India’s first Flex-Fuel Passenger Vehicle, consider the following statements:

1. It has been developed by Maruti Suzuki and launched in New Delhi.
2. The vehicle can run on any petrol-ethanol blend from E20 to E100.
3. It uses a fuel composition sensor and an Engine Control Unit (ECU) to optimise combustion for different ethanol blends.
4. The launch is part of India’s broader energy transition push.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to how a Flex-Fuel Vehicle works, consider the following statements:

1. A specialised fuel composition sensor detects the exact ethanol-to-petrol ratio in the fuel.
2. The ECU adapts the engine’s timing, fuel injection, and ignition based on the ethanol percentage.
3. Ethanol has a lower energy density but a higher octane rating than petrol.
4. The vehicle requires two separate fuel tanks, one for petrol and one for ethanol.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; Flex-Fuel Vehicles use a single, unified fuel tank for all blends from E20 to E100.)

Q3. With reference to ethanol-blended petrol and India’s policy, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme was launched in 2003.
2. The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, was amended in 2022 to broaden the feedstock basket and advance the E20 target.
3. Ethanol in India is produced from sugarcane molasses, broken rice, maize, and damaged foodgrains.
4. The EBP programme aims to reduce India’s dependence on crude oil imports and lower vehicular emissions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to the FFV ecosystem in India, consider the following statements:

1. NITI Aayog and the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) have identified E85 as the mono-fuel standard specification for certified Flex-Fuel Vehicles.
2. NITI Aayog classifies high-blend ethanol FFVs, such as those running on E85, as Zero-Emission Vehicles.
3. The government plans to expand FFV-ready retail stations to about 5,000 across major cities by the end of 2027.
4. Indigenous ethanol feedstock sources include broken grains, agricultural waste, bamboo, and seaweed.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Flex-Fuel Vehicles use a single, unified fuel tank.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper III on Science and Technology, Environment, Energy (Biofuels, FFVs, NITI Aayog, BIS)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper III on Indian Economy, Energy Security, Environment, Sustainable Development
BPSC and State PCS	Science and Technology, Environment, Current Affairs
Banking and NABARD	General Awareness on energy and rural economy
NABARD Grade A	Bioethanol, rural feedstocks, sustainable agriculture

3. Cabinet Approves ₹10,000 Crore Price Stabilization Fund for ATF

Source: News on Air

Context:

The Union Cabinet has approved a one-time budgetary support package of up to ₹10,000 crore to establish a Price Stabilization Fund for Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF), in response to unprecedented global fuel volatility triggered by the West Asia crisis. International ATF prices surged 2.5 times, from ₹60.50 per litre in March 2026 to ₹142 per litre in May 2026. The fund will offer interest-free advances to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs), shield Scheduled Indian Airlines from extreme fuel costs, and protect passenger fares and air connectivity.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Fund name	Price Stabilization Fund for Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF)
Approving authority	Union Cabinet
Budgetary support	Up to ₹10,000 crore (one-time, interest-free)
Routing	Demands for Grants of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
Beneficiaries	All willing Scheduled Indian Airlines (domestic and international flight paths)
Trigger	West Asia crisis and global ATF price spike
MoU signatories	Participating airlines, OMCs, Ministry of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
Monitoring Committee composition	Ministry of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, and Department of Expenditure

About the Aim of the Fund:

• To provide price stability and structural predictability for fuel procurement by airlines.
• To shield domestic carriers and OMCs from severe financial losses caused by extreme global ATF price swings.
• To maintain India’s air connectivity networks, stabilise passenger ticket fares, and protect the broader civil aviation ecosystem.

Key Features:

• Interest-Free Advance to OMCs: Up to ₹10,000 crore to offset OMC losses when the international Import Parity Price (IPP) exceeds the fund’s benchmark.
• Recovery and True-Up Mechanism: When ATF prices drop below the threshold, the differential is recovered from OMCs and returned to the Consolidated Fund of India until the advance is fully settled.
• Universal Flight Operations Coverage: Available to all willing Scheduled Indian carriers for both domestic and international flight paths.
• Fixed-Price Fuel Arrangement: Eliminates daily ATF price volatility for airlines and gives clear cost predictability.
• Exclusive OMC Sourcing Lock-In: Through a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU), airlines must buy ATF exclusively from participating OMCs for up to 3 years.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recently approved Price Stabilization Fund for Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF), consider the following statements:

1. The Union Cabinet has approved a one-time budgetary support of up to ₹10,000 crore for the fund.
2. The fund will be routed through the Demands for Grants of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
3. The fund offers interest-free advances to OMCs to offset losses when international ATF prices spike above a benchmark.
4. The fund will permanently subsidise ATF prices irrespective of global oil prices.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the fund operates on a revolving, non-deficit model, with true-up recovery when prices fall, and is not a permanent subsidy.)

Q2. With reference to the structure and operation of the fund, consider the following statements:

1. When global ATF rates drop below the threshold, the differential is recovered from OMCs and returned to the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The fund is available to all willing Scheduled Indian carriers for both domestic and international flight paths.
3. Airlines participating in the scheme commit to sourcing ATF exclusively from participating OMCs for up to three years.
4. The fund is slated to remain active for 36 months, with annual reviews and a possible extension or early closure.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) and India’s policy backdrop, consider the following statements:

1. ATF, or jet fuel, typically accounts for 30 to 40 per cent of an Indian airline’s operating costs.
2. ATF prices in India are influenced by global crude oil prices, refining margins, the rupee-dollar exchange rate, and state and central taxes.
3. The recent fund was triggered by an unprecedented rise in ATF prices from ₹60.50 per litre in March 2026 to ₹142 per litre in May 2026.
4. ATF prices in India are entirely insulated from global crude oil market movements.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; ATF prices are closely linked to global crude oil prices and the Import Parity Price (IPP) mechanism.)

Q4. With reference to oversight and governance of the ATF Price Stabilization Fund, consider the following statements:

1. The Monitoring Committee includes the Ministry of Civil Aviation, the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, and the Department of Expenditure.
2. The fund is implemented through a formal Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed by participating airlines, OMCs, and the concerned ministries.
3. The Monitoring Committee will mandate strict independent audits to verify claims.
4. The Reserve Bank of India is the lead authority for verifying and disbursing claims under the fund.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the fund is overseen by the tri-ministerial Monitoring Committee, NOT the RBI.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the fund is a revolving, non-deficit mechanism, not a permanent subsidy.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ATF prices in India are strongly linked to global crude oil markets.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the fund is overseen by the tri-ministerial committee, not the RBI.

4. Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary (Surha Tal), Ballia, Becomes India’s 100th Ramsar Site on World Environment Day

Source: TOI

Context:

The Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary, also known as Surha Tal, located in Ballia district, Uttar Pradesh, has been designated as India’s 100th Ramsar Site on World Environment Day (5 June 2026). It is Uttar Pradesh’s 13th Ramsar Site. Surha Tal is a freshwater wetland in the middle stretch of the Ganga River basin, recognised for its ecological importance and role as a bird habitat.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
New Ramsar Site	Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary (Surha Tal)
Location	Ballia district, Uttar Pradesh
Type of wetland	Freshwater wetland in the middle stretch of the Ganga River basin
India’s Ramsar Site count	100 (Surha Tal is the 100th)
Uttar Pradesh’s Ramsar Site count	13 (Surha Tal is UP’s 13th)
Date of designation	5 June 2026, World Environment Day
Underlying treaty	Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, 1971

About Surha Tal (Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary):

• A freshwater wetland in Ballia district, eastern Uttar Pradesh.
• Lies in the middle stretch of the Ganga River basin.
• Named after Jai Prakash Narayan (JP), the iconic Indian freedom fighter and social reformer.
• Known for being a bird habitat, especially for migratory and resident wetland birds.
• A state-protected wildlife sanctuary even before the Ramsar designation.

About the Ramsar Convention:

• The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty signed in 1971 in the city of Ramsar, Iran, and entered into force in 1975.
• It is the first modern global environmental treaty.
• It provides a framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
• India became a party to the Ramsar Convention on 1 February 1982.
• The Convention covers all wetland types, including lakes, rivers, marshes, peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas, tidal flats, near-shore marine areas, mangroves, coral reefs, and human-made wetlands like reservoirs and rice paddies.

About India’s Ramsar Sites:

• India now has 100 Ramsar Sites with the designation of Surha Tal.
• The first Ramsar Sites in India were designated in 1981: Chilika Lake (Odisha) and Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan).
• The State with the most Ramsar Sites in India is Tamil Nadu, followed by Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, and Punjab.
• India also has a few of the world’s most important wetland ecosystems, including Sundarbans, Kolleru Lake, Wular Lake, Loktak Lake, Sambhar Lake, and Chilika Lake.

About World Environment Day:

• Observed annually on 5 June since 1973, as established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972 following the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment.
• The 2026 theme focuses on ecological restoration and biodiversity (specifics may vary by host country).
• Coordinated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.

Key Terms (Simple):

• Wetland: An area where water covers the land or is present at or near the surface for most of the year. Wetlands include marshes, swamps, lakes, rivers, mangroves, and coastal areas.
• Ramsar Site: A wetland designated under the Ramsar Convention as being of international importance for biodiversity, water security, climate, or human livelihoods.
• Migratory Birds: Birds that travel long distances seasonally between their breeding and wintering grounds, often using wetlands as stopover sites.
• Bird Sanctuary: A protected area under Indian wildlife law, primarily aimed at protecting bird habitats and species.
• Ganga River Basin: The catchment area of the Ganga River, covering large parts of northern India and Bangladesh, and supporting rich biodiversity along its upper, middle, and lower stretches.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent Ramsar designation, consider the following statements:

1. Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary (Surha Tal) has been designated as India’s 100th Ramsar Site.
2. Surha Tal is located in Ballia district, Uttar Pradesh.
3. It is Uttar Pradesh’s 13th Ramsar Site.
4. The designation was announced on World Environment Day (5 June 2026).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements:

1. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty signed in 1971 in the city of Ramsar, Iran.
2. The Convention entered into force in 1975.
3. India became a party to the Ramsar Convention on 1 February 1982.
4. The Ramsar Convention is administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO).

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Ramsar Convention is an independent intergovernmental treaty and is NOT administered by the WTO.)

Q3. Consider the following statements about wetlands and Ramsar Sites:

1. Ramsar Sites can include lakes, rivers, marshes, mangroves, and even human-made wetlands like reservoirs and rice paddies.
2. Chilika Lake in Odisha and Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan were among India’s first Ramsar Sites, designated in 1981.
3. Wetlands are important for biodiversity, water security, flood control, and climate regulation.
4. Wetlands have no significance for migratory birds and are excluded from major bird conservation strategies.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; wetlands are extremely important for migratory birds and are key parts of major bird conservation strategies globally.)

Q4. With reference to World Environment Day, consider the following statements:

1. World Environment Day is observed annually on 5 June.
2. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972, following the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment.
3. The day has been observed globally since 1973.
4. World Environment Day is coordinated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Ramsar Convention is not administered by the WTO.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because wetlands are highly significant for migratory birds.
4. (d), All four statements are correct.

Banking/Finance

1. RBI MPC Holds Repo Rate at 5.25 %

Source: The Hindu

Context

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has unanimously voted to hold the policy repo rate at 5.25 per cent under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and continue with the neutral stance. The decision was driven by a deteriorating global environment, with the West Asia conflict, extended supply-chain disruptions, elevated energy prices, and uncertainty over the south-west monsoon and El Niño. The MPC has cut its real GDP growth projection for 2026-27 to 6.6 per cent (from 6.9 per cent) and raised the CPI inflation projection to 5.1 per cent (from 4.6 per cent, that is, 50 bps higher).

Key Facts

• Repo rate unchanged: The policy repo rate stays at 5.25 per cent, the rate at which the RBI lends short-term money to banks.
• Other rates: The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate stays at 5.00 per cent, and both the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate stay at 5.50 per cent.
• Stance: The MPC continues with a neutral stance, meaning it is neither tightening nor easing, but watching the data.
• Vote: The decision was unanimous.
• GDP growth for FY27 cut to 6.6 per cent from the earlier 6.9 per cent, reflecting a drag from global supply constraints and elevated energy prices.
• Quarter-wise GDP growth for FY27: Q1 at 6.6 per cent, Q2 at 6.3 per cent, Q3 at 6.5 per cent, Q4 at 6.8 per cent.
• CPI inflation for FY27 raised to 5.1 per cent, which is 50 bps higher than the earlier 4.6 per cent projection.
• Quarter-wise CPI for FY27: Q1 at 4.2 per cent, Q2 at 5.1 per cent, Q3 at 5.9 per cent, Q4 at 5.4 per cent.
• Core CPI projected at 4.7 per cent for FY27.
• CPI to firm up to the upper tolerance level in Q3 of 2026-27, with the impact of the supply shock waning from Q4.
• Crude oil prices (Indian basket) averaged about USD 110 per barrel during April-May 2026, much higher than assumed in the April policy.
• Risk factors: West Asia conflict, supply-chain disruptions, sub-normal south-west monsoon forecast, El Niño, and second-round effects on wages and inflation expectations.
• Mitigating factors: Programmes for crop diversification, water harvesting and conservation, climate-resilient practices, and short-duration crops.
• MPC’s reasoning to hold rates: Although risks of higher inflation have amplified, it was felt prudent to wait for greater clarity to emerge. Decisions will remain data-dependent.

Key Terms (Simple)

• Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the RBI lends short-term money to commercial banks against government securities. The main policy rate.
• Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): A facility for banks to park surplus money with the RBI without collateral, at a rate slightly below the repo rate.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility for banks to borrow overnight from the RBI in emergencies, at a rate slightly above the repo rate.
• Bank Rate: A rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks without collateral, usually aligned with the MSF rate.
• Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): The RBI’s main toolkit to manage short-term liquidity in the banking system, including repo, reverse repo, SDF, and MSF.
• Neutral Stance: A monetary policy stance that does not commit to either tightening or easing, giving the MPC flexibility to respond as data evolves.
• CPI Inflation: The rate of change in retail prices of a representative basket of goods and services, as measured by MoSPI’s CPI (Combined).
• Core CPI: CPI inflation excluding food and fuel, considered a measure of underlying inflation.
• Tolerance Band: India’s inflation target is 4 per cent with a band of plus or minus 2 percentage points, so the upper tolerance is 6 per cent, and the lower tolerance is 2 per cent.
• Pass-through: How much of a change in input prices (like crude oil) flows into retail prices of goods and services.
• Second-round Effects: When initial price rises (like fuel or food) feed into wages and inflation expectations, making inflation more persistent.
• El Niño: A periodic warming of the eastern Pacific Ocean, often linked to weaker monsoons and droughts in India.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI MPC’s latest decisions, consider the following statements:

1. The MPC kept the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25 per cent.
2. The standing deposit facility (SDF) rate stands at 5.00 per cent, and the MSF rate and bank rate stand at 5.50 per cent.
3. The MPC voted unanimously and continued with the neutral stance.
4. The MPC has reduced India’s CPI inflation projection for 2026-27.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the MPC has raised the CPI projection for 2026-27 to 5.1 per cent, which is 50 bps higher than the earlier projection.)

Q2. Consider the following statements about the RBI’s revised projections for 2026-27:

1. Real GDP growth for 2026-27 has been revised down to 6.6 per cent from 6.9 per cent.
2. CPI inflation for 2026-27 has been raised to 5.1 per cent.
3. The quarter-wise GDP growth projections are 6.6 per cent for Q1, 6.3 per cent for Q2, 6.5 per cent for Q3, and 6.8 per cent for Q4.
4. CPI inflation is projected to firm up to the upper tolerance level in Q3 of 2026-27.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to the institutional framework of India’s monetary policy, consider the following statements:

1. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a six-member committee of the RBI under the inflation-targeting framework.
2. CPI inflation is the official target for monetary policy, with a tolerance band of 4 per cent plus or minus 2 percentage points.
3. The standing deposit facility (SDF) rate forms the lower bound of the LAF corridor, while the MSF rate forms the upper bound.
4. The bank rate is the rate at which commercial banks lend to retail customers and is not set by the RBI.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the bank rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks and is set by the RBI, not by banks themselves.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about the global and domestic backdrop influencing the MPC’s decision:

1. The MPC noted that the global environment has deteriorated since the last policy meeting due to a lingering conflict and elevated energy prices.
2. The MPC flagged concerns about a sub-normal south-west monsoon forecast and El Niño risks.
3. The MPC emphasised that despite global shocks, CPI inflation has so far remained below the target due to limited pass-through.
4. The MPC has indicated that India’s monetary policy will be conducted entirely independently of global supply-chain conditions.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the MPC explicitly discussed global supply chains and conflict spillovers in its reasoning, which means monetary policy is closely connected to global conditions.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the MPC has raised, not reduced, the CPI projection for 2026-27.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the bank rate is set by the RBI, not by commercial banks.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the MPC’s reasoning shows monetary policy is closely tied to global supply-chain conditions.

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, MPC decisions, rates, inflation framework
RBI Grade B	Core area, Economic and Social Issues, Finance and Management

2. RBI to Release Updated List of Upper Layer NBFCs Soon

Context:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will soon release the updated list of Upper Layer NBFCs (NBFC-UL), Governor Sanjay Malhotra said at the post-policy press conference. The central bank has not released a list of Upper Layer NBFCs for the financial year ended March 2026. Meanwhile, Tata Sons, the holding company of the Tata Group, has sought to de-register as an Upper Layer NBFC, which would exempt it from the mandatory listing requirement (deadline was September 2025). The RBI has said the matter is under examination, with the process for finalising the revised list underway.

About the Scale-Based Regulation (SBR) for NBFCs:

• The RBI introduced a new Scale-Based Regulation (SBR) framework for NBFCs, effective 1 October 2022.
• Under this framework, NBFCs are classified into four layers, depending on size, activity, and perceived systemic risk:
  • Base Layer (NBFC-BL): Mainly non-deposit-taking NBFCs with assets below ₹1,000 crore, and specified categories. They face the lightest regulation.
  • Middle Layer (NBFC-ML): Deposit-taking NBFCs, larger non-deposit-taking NBFCs (above ₹1,000 crore in assets), and specific categories like standalone primary dealers, infrastructure finance companies, and housing finance companies. They face tighter regulation.
  • Upper Layer (NBFC-UL): NBFCs identified by the RBI as systemically significant, based on size, interconnectedness, complexity, and supervisory inputs. They face the strictest regulation, close to bank-like norms, and are required to be listed within 3 years.
  • Top Layer (NBFC-TL): A reserved layer that the RBI can populate if it finds certain NBFCs in the Upper Layer pose extreme systemic risk. Currently empty.

About the Upper Layer NBFCs and Listing Requirement:

• The RBI identifies Upper Layer NBFCs annually, based on scoring methodology that includes size, leverage, interconnectedness, complexity, and supervisory factors.
• Once identified, Upper Layer NBFCs face additional regulatory requirements:
  • Higher capital adequacy norms.
  • Larger exposure limits and tighter governance norms.
  • Common Equity Tier 1 capital requirements similar to banks.
  • Mandatory listing within 3 years of identification (deadline for the current batch was September 2025).
• Tata Sons was identified as an Upper Layer NBFC in the initial list of 2022-23, which would have required it to be listed by September 2025.
• Tata Sons has been seeking to de-register as an Upper Layer NBFC, which would allow it to avoid the listing requirement, but the request remains under RBI examination.

About NBFCs:

• Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that lend money, invest in securities, and offer financial services, but cannot accept demand deposits (current and savings accounts) like a bank.
• They are regulated by the RBI under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• Different types of NBFCs include Loan Companies, Investment Companies, Asset Finance Companies, Microfinance Institutions (MFIs), Infrastructure Finance Companies, and Housing Finance Companies.
• NBFCs play a critical role in financial inclusion, especially for MSMEs, consumers, vehicle finance, and underserved geographies.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s announcement on Upper Layer NBFCs, consider the following statements:

1. The RBI Governor said that the list of Upper Layer NBFCs will be released soon.
2. The RBI has not released a list of Upper Layer NBFCs for the financial year ended March 2026.
3. Tata Sons has sought to de-register as an Upper Layer NBFC, which would exempt it from the mandatory listing requirement.
4. The matter of Tata Sons’ application is under examination by the RBI.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the Scale-Based Regulation (SBR) framework for NBFCs, consider the following statements:

1. The SBR framework became effective on 1 October 2022.
2. It classifies NBFCs into four layers: Base Layer, Middle Layer, Upper Layer, and Top Layer.
3. Upper Layer NBFCs face stricter regulation, including a mandatory listing requirement within three years.
4. The Top Layer is reserved for NBFCs posing extreme systemic risk and is currently empty.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. NBFCs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India under the RBI Act, 1934.
2. NBFCs can lend money, invest in securities, and offer financial services.
3. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits like current and savings accounts.
4. NBFCs play a significant role in financial inclusion, especially for MSMEs and underserved geographies.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to Tata Sons and Upper Layer NBFC classification, consider the following statements:

1. Tata Sons is the holding company of the Tata Group.
2. Tata Sons was identified as an Upper Layer NBFC in the initial list released by the RBI under the SBR framework.
3. The mandatory listing deadline for the current batch of Upper Layer NBFCs was September 2025.
4. The RBI has confirmed that it has formally accepted Tata Sons’ application for de-registration.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RBI has said that Tata Sons’ application is under examination, NOT that it has been formally accepted.)

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the RBI has only said the application is under examination, not that it has been accepted.

3. PFRDA Launches “StAR NPS” Platform for Digital Onboarding

Source: BS

Context:

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), a statutory body under the Ministry of Finance, has launched the “StAR NPS” platform in June 2026, a digital onboarding solution developed by BSE Technologies Private Limited (BTPL) to simplify subscriber registration for the National Pension System (NPS). PFRDA has also introduced a Regulatory Sandbox Framework, effective from 2 June 2026, to allow controlled testing of innovative pension-sector solutions before they are rolled out more widely.

Key Facts

Indicator	Detail
Launching authority	PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority)
Ministry	Ministry of Finance
Platform name	StAR NPS
Developer	Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Technologies Private Limited (BTPL)
Channel for onboarding	Points of Presence (PoPs) and their network of pension agents
Eligibility (StAR NPS)	Resident Indians aged 18 to 85 years
Sandbox framework effective date	2 June 2026
Sandbox eligibility	PFRDA-registered intermediaries and eligible non-registered entities including fintech firms
Minimum net worth for non-registered applicants	₹10 lakh
Restriction on non-registered sandbox participants	Their innovations must not handle subscriber contributions, funds, or any other data

About the StAR NPS Platform:

• A technology-enabled assisted onboarding platform for NPS subscribers.
• Onboarding happens through Points of Presence (PoPs) and their network of pension agents.
• Aims to streamline and simplify the subscriber registration process for the National Pension System.
• Eligible to Resident Indian individuals aged 18 to 85 years (under the current framework).

About the Regulatory Sandbox Framework:

• Allows controlled testing of innovative pension-sector solutions before wider adoption.
• Open to:
  • PFRDA-registered intermediaries.
  • Eligible non-registered entities including fintech firms.
• Non-registered applicants must have a minimum net worth of ₹10 lakh.
• Non-registered participants are only eligible if their innovations do not handle subscriber contributions, funds, or any other data.
• Enables safe, time-bound experimentation with a limited user set.

About PFRDA:

• Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.
• A statutory body under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• Established as a regulator through the PFRDA Act, 2013.
• Headquartered in New Delhi.
• Regulates and supervises the National Pension System (NPS) and the Atal Pension Yojana (APY).

About the National Pension System (NPS):

• A voluntary, defined-contribution retirement savings scheme.
• Introduced for central government employees in 2004 (excluding armed forces) and made available to all citizens from 2009.
• Regulated by PFRDA.
• Two types of accounts: Tier-I (mandatory retirement account, with withdrawal limits) and Tier-II (voluntary, more flexible).
• Subscribers get a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN).
• Investment options include equity, government securities, corporate bonds, and alternative assets.
• Offers tax benefits under Sections 80CCD(1), 80CCD(1B), and 80CCD(2) of the Income Tax Act.

About Points of Presence (PoPs):

• Banks, NBFCs, and other PFRDA-authorised entities that act as the first interface for NPS subscribers.
• They handle subscriber registration, contributions, account servicing, and grievance redressal.

About Regulatory Sandbox:

• A regulator-supervised, controlled environment that allows firms to test new financial products and services with real users but under defined limits (number of users, duration, exposure).
• Pioneered globally by UK’s Financial Conduct Authority (FCA).
• In India, RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and now PFRDA have established sectoral regulatory sandboxes.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the launch of the StAR NPS platform, consider the following statements:

1. The platform has been launched by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
2. It has been developed by Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Technologies Private Limited.
3. The platform provides technology-enabled assisted onboarding for NPS subscribers through Points of Presence (PoPs) and pension agents.
4. The platform is currently open to all foreign nationals working in India, regardless of age.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the platform is currently open to Resident Indian individuals aged 18 to 85 years, NOT all foreign nationals.)

Q2. With reference to the new Regulatory Sandbox Framework introduced by PFRDA, consider the following statements:

1. The Regulatory Sandbox Framework became effective on 2 June 2026.
2. PFRDA-registered intermediaries and eligible non-registered entities, including fintech firms, can apply to test new solutions.
3. Non-registered entities applying as independent applicants must have a minimum net worth of ₹10 lakh.
4. Non-registered sandbox participants are restricted from handling subscriber contributions, funds, or other data.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q3. With reference to PFRDA and the National Pension System (NPS), consider the following statements:

1. PFRDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Finance, established by the PFRDA Act, 2013.
2. The NPS is regulated by PFRDA and is open to all Indian citizens from 2009.
3. The NPS uses a Tier-I (mandatory) and Tier-II (voluntary) account structure, with each subscriber assigned a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN).
4. The NPS provides tax benefits under Sections 80CCD(1), 80CCD(1B), and 80CCD(2) of the Income Tax Act.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q4. With reference to the concept of a Regulatory Sandbox in India, consider the following statements:

1. A regulatory sandbox is a regulator-supervised, controlled environment to test innovative financial products and services.
2. The concept was pioneered globally by the United Kingdom’s Financial Conduct Authority (FCA).
3. In India, regulatory sandboxes have been established by sector regulators including RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA.
4. A regulatory sandbox typically operates without any user limits, time limits, or exposure caps.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

(Statement 4 is wrong; a regulatory sandbox is designed with defined limits on users, duration, and exposure.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because StAR NPS is open to Resident Indians aged 18 to 85 years, not foreign nationals.
2. (d), All four statements are correct.
3. (d), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because a regulatory sandbox operates with clear limits.

Facts To Remember

1. CCEA Approves Four National Highway Projects Worth Rs.24,249 Crore Across Four States

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved four major National Highway projects worth over Rs.24,249 crore across Odisha, Telangana, Bihar, and Madhya Pradesh. Covering more than 700 kilometres, the projects aim to improve regional connectivity, reduce travel time, ease congestion, and strengthen logistics infrastructure under the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan. The projects include a coastal highway in Odisha, highway upgrades in Madhya Pradesh and Bihar, and four-laning of key highway corridors in Telangana.

2. India Joins Anthropic’s Project Glasswing for Advanced Cybersecurity Capabilities

India joined Anthropic’s global cybersecurity initiative, Project Glasswing, gaining access to Claude Mythos AI, an advanced artificial intelligence platform designed to identify software vulnerabilities and strengthen cyber defences. The initiative aims to enhance cybersecurity resilience and protect critical infrastructure by enabling large-scale vulnerability detection, security auditing, and automated remediation across complex software systems.

3. India–UK Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory Launched

Union Minister G. Kishan Reddy and United Kingdom Foreign Secretary Yvette Cooper jointly launched the India–UK Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO) in New Delhi. The initiative seeks to strengthen cooperation in critical minerals, support clean energy transitions, and enhance supply chain resilience. The observatory is jointly led by TEXMiN at IIT (ISM) Dhanbad and the University of Cambridge to provide supply-chain intelligence and support evidence-based policymaking.

4. PFRDA Launches ‘StAR NPS’ Platform and Regulatory Sandbox Framework

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) launched the ‘StAR NPS’ platform to simplify digital onboarding of National Pension System (NPS) subscribers through Points of Presence and pension agents. Alongside, PFRDA introduced a Regulatory Sandbox Framework to allow controlled testing of innovative pension-sector solutions by fintech firms and registered intermediaries before large-scale implementation.

5. Dr. Jitendra Singh Announces ANRF-Backed Research and Innovation Portal

Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh announced a new digital portal supported by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) to strengthen India’s research and innovation ecosystem. The portal will provide training and support in research paper writing, scientific publishing, patent filing, intellectual property protection, and innovation management for researchers, students, startups, and innovators across the country.

6. 17 Projects Selected for National Awards for e-Governance 2026

The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) announced the winners of the 29th National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026, selecting 17 projects across seven categories. The awards recognize excellence in digital governance, innovation, and technology-driven public service delivery by central ministries, states, union territories, districts, organizations, and Gram Panchayats.

7. Major Prabhat Mishra Wins Two Prestigious Awards at US Army CGSOC

Major Prabhat Mishra of the Indian Army received the Birrer-Brookes Award for Outstanding Master of Military Arts and Science Thesis and the General Douglas MacArthur Military Leadership Writing Award at the United States Army Command and General Staff College (CGSOC). He became the first Indian officer to win both honours simultaneously and secured fourth rank among 1,185 officers in the programme.

8. Neelkanth Mishra Appointed Executive Director of the World Bank

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the appointment of economist Neelkanth Mishra as Executive Director of the World Bank for a three-year term. Currently serving as Chief Economist at Axis Bank, he will succeed Parameswaran Iyer and represent India at the World Bank.

9. India Launches First Flex-Fuel Passenger Vehicle

Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri launched India’s first passenger Flex-Fuel Vehicle (FFV), the Maruti Suzuki Wagon R, capable of operating on ethanol-petrol blends ranging from E20 to E100. The launch marks a significant step towards ethanol-based mobility and cleaner transportation. Simultaneously, Hero MotoCorp introduced its first flex-fuel motorcycles to support India’s biofuel adoption goals.

10. KS Bharat Announces Retirement from International Cricket

Indian wicketkeeper-batter Kona Srikar Bharat, popularly known as KS Bharat, announced his retirement from international cricket. He represented India in seven Test matches between 2023 and 2024 and was part of the 2023 World Test Championship Final squad. He will now pursue opportunities in overseas T20 leagues.

11. Former Lok Sabha Secretary-General Subhash C. Kashyap Passes Away

Renowned constitutional expert, author, and former Lok Sabha Secretary-General Subhash C. Kashyap passed away at the age of 97. A Padma Bhushan awardee, he authored over 100 books on the Indian Constitution, parliamentary procedures, and political systems, making significant contributions to constitutional studies and parliamentary affairs.

12. Former CBFC Chairman Pahlaj Nihalani Passes Away

Veteran film producer and former CBFC Chairman Pahlaj Nihalani passed away at the age of 76. He was known for producing several successful Hindi films and served as Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification from 2015 to 2017.

13. International Day for the Fight Against Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated Fishing 2026 Observed on June 5

The United Nations observed the International Day for the Fight Against Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) Fishing on 5 June 2026. The day aims to raise awareness about the harmful impact of illegal fishing on marine ecosystems, fisheries sustainability, and global food security, while promoting implementation of the Port State Measures Agreement.

14. International Level Crossing Awareness Day 2026 Observed on June 5

International Level Crossing Awareness Day (ILCAD) was observed globally on 5 June 2026 with the slogan “Alert Today, Safe Tomorrow”. The observance promotes safe behaviour at railway level crossings and aims to reduce accidents involving road and rail transport intersections.

15. Tamil Nadu Signs Rs.18,600 Crore Investment Pact with Larsen & Toubro

The Government of Tamil Nadu signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Larsen & Toubro for investments worth Rs.18,600 crore across three major projects. The projects include expansion of a data centre in Kancheepuram, establishment of an electronics manufacturing facility in Coimbatore, and expansion of the Kattupalli shipyard in Tiruvallur district, generating thousands of employment opportunities and strengthening the state’s industrial ecosystem.

16. Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit to be next Vice-Chief of Air Staff

Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit, a distinguished fighter pilot and test pilot, has been appointed the next Vice-Chief of the Air Staff (VCAS) and will assume office on July 1. He succeeds Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor.