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Daily Current Affairs
01 & 02 August, 2026
1. The Union Cabinet approved “Samudra Manthan” — the National Offshore Exploration Scheme — on 31 July 2026 with what approved outlay up to FY 2030-31?
A. â‚ą43,200 crore
B. â‚ą60,000 crore
C. â‚ą84,084 crore
D. â‚ą1,00,000 crore
E. â‚ą75,021 crore
View Answer
Explanation: Samudra Manthan — a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (â‚ą84,084 crore, up to FY 2030-31) — translates the PM’s Independence Day 2025 “modern-day Samudra Manthan” vision. It covers the entire offshore exploration value chain: seismic data acquisition, deepwater/ultra-deepwater drilling, scientific drilling in frontier basins, common offshore infrastructure and an Oil & Gas Manufacturing and Services Zone.
2. Under Samudra Manthan’s deepwater drilling component (â‚ą43,200 crore for 60 wells), Government support per well is up to:
A. 40% of cost or â‚ą500 crore, whichever is lower
B. 50% of eligible drilling cost or â‚ą675 crore, whichever is lower
C. 60% of cost or â‚ą720 crore, whichever is lower
D. 100% of cost capped at â‚ą675 crore
E. 50% of cost or â‚ą1,000 crore, whichever is higher
View Answer
Explanation: Component-wise outlay: deepwater exploratory drilling â‚ą43,200 crore (60 wells; support up to 50% of eligible cost or â‚ą675 crore/well, whichever is lower); offshore seismic data acquisition â‚ą28,534 crore; common offshore infrastructure hubs â‚ą10,000 crore; Oil & Gas Manufacturing and Services Zone â‚ą2,000 crore.
3. “Nipun” — India’s second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (Nistar-class) — was delivered to the Indian Navy by which shipyard?
A. Cochin Shipyard Limited
B. Hindustan Shipyard Limited, Visakhapatnam
C. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
D. Garden Reach Shipbuilders
E. Goa Shipyard Limited
View Answer
Explanation: HSL delivered Nipun (Sanskrit: “one who is adept/capable”) at Visakhapatnam on 30 July 2026 — second Nistar-class DSV, ~75% indigenous content, built to Indian Register of Shipping rules under a two-ship September 2018 contract (~â‚ą2,393 crore). DSVs enable deep-sea saturation diving, submarine rescue, salvage and SAR — reducing dependence on foreign rescue vessels. HSL: established 1941 as Scindia Shipyard, nationalised 1952, transferred to the Ministry of Defence in 2010.
4. Parliament passed the Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026, extending Section 3 protection (against preventing/disturbing singing) to which song?
A. Saare Jahan Se Achha
B. Vande Mataram
C. Jana Gana Mana (second stanza)
D. Ae Mere Watan Ke Logon
E. Sindhu Bhairavi
View Answer
Explanation: The amendment extends Section 3 of the 1971 Act (up to 3 years/fine; Section 3A minimum 1 year on repeat conviction) from the National Anthem to also cover the National Song, Vande Mataram — recalling Dr Rajendra Prasad’s 24 January 1950 declaration that Vande Mataram would be honoured equally with Jana Gana Mana. Section 2 of the Act (up to 3 years) covers disrespect to the National Flag and Constitution.
5. Vande Mataram was first published on 7 November 1875 in which Bengali literary journal?
A. Prabasi
B. Bangadarshan
C. Sambad Prabhakar
D. Bharati
E. Desh
View Answer
Explanation: Vande Mataram (“Mother, I Bow to Thee”) — composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in Sanskritised Bengali — was first published in Bangadarshan (7 Nov 1875), later included in Anandamath (1882, set against the Sanyasi Rebellion), and set to music by Rabindranath Tagore. Its first two stanzas were adopted by the Congress Working Committee in 1937. The Constitution does not explicitly mention a National Song; Article 51A(a) names only the Flag and Anthem. Jana Gana Mana (Tagore) was first sung at the Calcutta Congress session on 27 December 1911 and adopted as Anthem on 24 January 1950.
6. India’s first Telecom Manufacturing Zone at Gwalior will be governed by an SPV with what shareholding structure?
A. 50% MP Government, 50% DoT
B. 51% Government of Madhya Pradesh, 49% DoT
C. 51% DoT, 49% MP Government
D. 74% MP Government, 26% DoT
E. 100% DoT
View Answer
Explanation: The 350-acre plug-and-play TMZ (MoU signed 30 July 2026 at Vigyan Bhawan) — Phase-I ~170 acres (100 in SADA region + 70 in Gwalior IT Park) — is run by an SPV (51% MP Govt, 49% DoT), with ~â‚ą493 crore (reported as â‚ą500 crore) 100% central assistance for Phase-I core infrastructure and Phase-I land free from MP. Slogan: “Design in India, Make in India, Export from India” — targeting 5G/6G indigenous R&D and telecom equipment exports.
7. MoEF&CC re-issued the fresh draft Western Ghats ESA notification proposing approximately how much area as Ecologically Sensitive Area?
A. 37,000 sq km
B. 46,825 sq km
C. 56,825.7 sq km
D. 64,000 sq km
E. 1.64 lakh sq km
View Answer
Explanation: After the previous draft expired in July 2026, MoEF&CC re-issued a fresh draft proposing ~56,825.7 sq km as ESA and extended the expert committee (headed by former DG of Forests Sanjay Kumar) until July 2027. ESAs — notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — act as buffer zones where mining, quarrying, thermal plants and polluting industries are prohibited/regulated, while agriculture, horticulture and eco-tourism continue under conditions.
8. The Western Ghats run ~1,600 km from the Tapi valley to Kanyakumari across SIX states. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Gujarat
B. Goa
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Kerala
E. Tamil Nadu
View Answer
Explanation: The six Western Ghats states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Older than the Himalayas; ~1.64 lakh sq km (Kasturirangan group); one of the world’s eight “hottest” biodiversity hotspots; UNESCO World Heritage Site (2012, 39 serial sites); highest peak Anamudi (2,695 m, Kerala); major passes — Palghat, Thal (Goa), Bhor, Shencottah gaps; source of the Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Tungabhadra and Periyar.
9. Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026 (passed by Lok Sabha 31 July), a birth/death reported more than TWO years after the event can be registered only on the order of:
A. District Magistrate
B. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
C. A Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
D. Chief Registrar
E. Registrar General of India
View Answer
Explanation: The Bill amends Section 13 of the 1969 Act into a two-tier structure: delay of 1-2 years — DM/SDM/authorised Executive Magistrate order (Section 13(3)); delay beyond 2 years — Judicial Magistrate of the First Class (new Section 13(3A)) — adding a judicial verification layer to curb fraudulent late registrations. It also aligns “executive magistrate” with the BNSS 2023. Background: the 2023 amendment (in force 1 Oct 2023) created a national database under the Registrar General (MHA) and made the birth certificate a single foundational document. The Bill was passed only by the Lok Sabha (by voice vote, without debate) — Rajya Sabha passage and presidential assent are pending.
10. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 — referred to a 31-member Joint Committee — provides for automatic removal of a Minister/CM/PM who is arrested and detained in custody for how many consecutive days on serious charges?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
E. 90 days
View Answer
Explanation: The 130th Amendment Bill (introduced by Amit Shah, 20 August 2025) amends Articles 75, 164 and 239AA: a Minister arrested and detained 30 consecutive days for an offence punishable with 5+ years is removed by the President on the PM’s advice (or Governor on CM’s advice) on the 31st day — failing such advice, they cease to hold office; a PM/CM must resign by the 31st day. Re-appointment on release is not barred. Companion Bills extend the scheme to J&K and Puducherry (the 130th itself covers Delhi).
11. The Cabinet approved the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY) with â‚ą5,070 crore outlay. What does it promote?
A. Rooftop solar on government buildings
B. Floating Solar Photovoltaic (FSPV) with co-located battery storage on water bodies
C. Solar pumps for irrigation
D. Solar parks in deserts
E. Solar-powered cold storage
View Answer
Explanation: PM-SSY (approved 31 July 2026; Central Sector Scheme; nodal MNRE, implementing agency SECI) promotes FSPV integrated with Energy Storage Systems on reservoirs, dams, lakes, irrigation tanks and industrial ponds. Targets: 5,000 MW FSPV + 10,000 MWh storage (minimum 2-hour); sanctioning window FY27-FY31; expanding floating solar from ~700 MW to 5,700 MW. Water surfaces cool the panels (better efficiency) and the plants reduce evaporation losses — avoiding land-use conflict.
12. Under PM-SSY, the Central Financial Assistance is â‚ą1 crore per MW, released post-commissioning — designed to bridge floating solar’s roughly ____ higher capital cost vs ground-mounted solar.
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 40%
E. 50%
View Answer
Explanation: CFA of â‚ą1 crore/MW (post-commissioning) bridges the ~25% higher capex of FSPV (floats, anchoring, marine-grade cabling). Other features: mandatory minimum 2-hour co-located ESS (evening peak supply, less RE curtailment); de-risking grants up to â‚ą50 lakh/project for feasibility studies (bathymetry, hydrography, solar yield, aquatic ecological impact); and an Aatmanirbhar manufacturing push across floats, mooring, PV modules and batteries.
13. As per the Competere Foundation’s “India’s Next Growth Frontier” report, India improved its Market Distortions Performance Index (MDPI) global ranking from 82nd in 2010 to what rank in 2023?
A. 45th
B. 50th
C. 57th
D. 62nd
E. 70th
View Answer
Explanation: India rose 25 places (82nd → 57th) on the MDPI, among the strongest structural reformers studied. The index assesses three pillars — property rights protection, domestic competition, international competition. Major reform drivers: GST, IBC, and trade facilitation (ICEGATE, SWIFT, Direct Port Delivery). Recommendations: evidence-based consumer-welfare competition policy (especially digital markets), reviewing sectoral investment restrictions, and cooperation with like-minded countries. ACMDs = government measures/regulations/private practices that distort competition and misallocate resources.
14. IRDAI’s 137th Authority Meeting (28 July 2026) introduced “perpetual registration” for intermediaries, subject to a non-refundable annual fee of:
A. Flat â‚ą10,000
B. Higher of â‚ą10,000 or 0.04% of commission and other receipts
C. Lower of â‚ą10,000 or 0.04% of commission
D. 1% of premium collected
E. Higher of â‚ą25,000 or 0.1% of commission
View Answer
Explanation: Perpetual registration (for corporate agents, brokers, IMFs, web aggregators, CPSC-SPVs) stays valid indefinitely until suspended/cancelled/surrendered — annual fee = higher of ₹10,000 or 0.04% of commission and other receipts from insurers in the preceding FY. IMF principal officers and salespersons must complete at least 25 hours of training every three years. Enhanced disclosures apply to majority foreign-owned entities (aligning with the 100% FDI framework).
15. IRDAI’s salesperson tagging mandate — requiring the name and identity of the salesperson on proposal forms and policy documents — takes effect from:
A. 1 October 2026
B. 1 January 2027
C. 1 April 2027
D. 1 July 2026
E. Immediately
View Answer
Explanation: From 1 January 2027, the name and functional identity of the salesperson (broker-qualified person, PoSP, designated person, authorised verifier etc.) plus branch contact details must appear on proposal forms, policy documents and certificates of insurance; for direct digital sales without a salesperson, the principal officer’s contact details apply. Purpose: a clear audit trail against mis-selling.
16. Under IRDAI’s eased investment norms, insurers can invest up to what limit in operational infrastructure SPVs rated AA or above?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
E. 30%
View Answer
Explanation: Eased limits: infra SPVs (AA+ rated) up to 20%; private companies + AIFs + VCFs combined — 3% (life insurers)/5% (general insurers); promoter group exposure capped at 5% of investment assets; repo and G-sec lending — 25% of available securities or ₹10,000 crore, whichever is lower. A comprehensive annual Financial Condition Report (solvency, reserves, liquidity, stress testing, ALM) is now mandatory.
17. Under the SBSR Act, 2025 (which these IRDAI reforms implement), FDI in Indian insurance companies was raised from 74% to:
A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 100%
E. It remains 74%
View Answer
Explanation: The SBSR (Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha) Act, 2025 — passed LS 16 Dec/RS 17 Dec 2025, assent 20 Dec 2025, commenced 5 Feb 2026 — raised insurance company FDI to 100% (intermediaries already 100% automatic; LIC 20%); cut foreign reinsurers’ net-owned fund from â‚ą5,000 crore to â‚ą1,000 crore; removed the â‚ą100 crore minimum for insurance co-operative societies; introduced one-time licensing and suspension (not outright cancellation); empowered IRDAI to disgorge wrongful gains; and created the PEPF under Section 16A. IRDAI (est. IRDA Act 1999, HQ Hyderabad, Malhotra Committee 1993) has designated LIC, GIC Re and New India Assurance as D-SIIs.
18. The Cabinet extended PM-KISAN from 2026-27 to 2030-31 with a total outlay of:
A. â‚ą2,15,000 crore
B. â‚ą2,75,000 crore
C. â‚ą3,15,614 crore
D. â‚ą3,60,000 crore
E. â‚ą4,00,000 crore
View Answer
Explanation: The five-year extension (FY27-FY31; ~₹3.15 lakh crore) was announced by I&B Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw. PM-KISAN — launched February 2019 (effective retrospectively from 1 December 2018); a 100% centrally funded Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture — gives ₹6,000/year per landholding farmer family in three ₹2,000 DBT instalments into Aadhaar-seeded accounts. Initially for small/marginal farmers (≤2 ha), extended to ALL landholding farmer families from 1 June 2019.
19. Ladakh notified 23 heritage sites as Protected Monuments under which law?
A. AMASR Act, 1958
B. Jammu & Kashmir Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1920
C. Indian Treasure Trove Act, 1878
D. Ladakh Heritage Act, 2024
E. Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972
View Answer
Explanation: Ladakh UT notified 23 heritage sites as Protected Monuments under the J&K Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1920 — giving statutory protection to archaeological, historical and cultural sites across Leh, Nubra, Sham, Zanskar and Kargil.
20. IN-SPACe issued new guidelines under the Indian Space Policy 2023 to regulate what activity by private entities?
A. Satellite broadband services
B. Planned re-entry of space objects
C. Space tourism
D. Lunar mining
E. Ground station operations
View Answer
Explanation: IN-SPACe’s guidelines mandate prior authorisation, safety assessments, liability compliance and insurance for planned spacecraft re-entry by private entities — ensuring safe and accountable operations. Separately, IIT Gandhinagar signed an MoU with IAIRO (Indian Artificial Intelligence Research Organisation) for AI research, and NSDC partnered with AVPL International for 350 Advanced Drone Skill Centres over three years.
21. The 2nd edition of the Candere Hurun India Women Leaders List 2026 recognised how many women achievers?
A. 100 across 10 categories
B. 117 across 12 categories
C. 125 across 15 categories
D. 150 across 12 categories
E. 111 across 11 categories
View Answer
Explanation: The list honoured 117 women across 12 categories — including Roshni Nadar, Priya Nair, Avani Lekhara and Sudha Murty — for contributions in business, sports and social impact.
22. Saudi Arabia and 13 other countries launched a Multinational Maritime Defence Alliance to safeguard shipping across which waters?
A. Persian Gulf and Strait of Hormuz
B. Red Sea, Gulf of Aden and Bab el-Mandeb Strait
C. Mediterranean and Suez Canal
D. Arabian Sea and Gulf of Oman
E. South China Sea
View Answer
Explanation: The 14-nation alliance protects freedom of navigation and global trade routes across the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden and Bab el-Mandeb. Separately, Venezuela formally notified the UN of its withdrawal from the Rome Statute — exiting the ICC effective after one year, without affecting ongoing investigations initiated before withdrawal.
23. RBI deferred the implementation of the revised Basel Pillar III disclosure framework by six months to which date?
A. 1 October 2026
B. 1 January 2027
C. 1 April 2027
D. 1 July 2027
E. 1 April 2028
View Answer
Explanation: RBI postponed the revised Basel Pillar III disclosure framework by six months to 1 April 2027 after stakeholder feedback — giving banks more time to align with the Expected Credit Loss (ECL) framework. Separately, ADB approved a USD 1 billion loan for India’s Urban Challenge Fund — strengthening municipal governance, infrastructure, municipal financing and digital urban management.
24. The theme of World Day Against Trafficking in Persons 2026 (30 July) was:
A. Leave No Victim Behind
B. Trapped Behind the Scam
C. Every Child Counts
D. End Modern Slavery
E. Use and Abuse of Technology
View Answer
Explanation: The 2026 theme “Trapped Behind the Scam” highlights the growing misuse of online scams for human trafficking. World Ranger Day (31 July) followed with theme “Rangers: Guardians of a Changing Planet” — honouring rangers protecting wildlife and remembering those who died in the line of duty.
25. Odisha signed a tripartite agreement worth â‚ą3,384.82 crore with Digital Bharat Nidhi and BSNL under the amended BharatNet programme to connect approximately how many villages with optical fibre?
A. 25,000
B. 35,000
C. 50,000
D. 60,000
E. 75,000
View Answer
Explanation: The â‚ą3,384.82-crore tripartite agreement (Odisha-Digital Bharat Nidhi-BSNL) under the amended BharatNet programme targets optical fibre connectivity to ~50,000 villages. Separately, Tamil Nadu signed four MoUs for Global Capability Centres, R&D facilities and the University of Western Australia’s India campus in Chennai — expected to generate ~2,920 jobs.
26. Ajinkya Rahane, who retired from international cricket, captained India to the historic 2020-21 Border-Gavaskar Trophy win in Australia. He represented India in how many international matches?
A. 175
B. 185
C. 195
D. 205
E. 215
View Answer
Explanation: Rahane retired after a distinguished 12-year career — 195 international matches, 12 Test centuries (8 overseas), and the iconic stand-in captaincy of the 2020-21 Border-Gavaskar Trophy triumph in Australia.
