RBI Grade B Memory Based Paper 2024 Answer Key

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage is explaining that U.S. is concerned about Myanmar’s patent system potentially not meeting international standards, which could “create barriers for U.S. businesses seeking to protect their IP in Myanmar, leading to higher costs and potential legal disputes.” Therefore, option (b) captures the main concern with accurate details from the text.

Analysis:
(a) The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s patent system will result in increased taxes for American
companies, making it harder for them to conduct business in the country.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention any concerns about taxes. The primary concern revolves around IP protection standards, not taxation.
  (b) The U.S. believes that it may lead to higher operational costs for U.S. businesses, as they will need to comply with different and potentially less reliable IP protection standards.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage clearly states that the U.S. is worried about the
  inconsistency between Myanmar’s patent system and international standards, which “could create
  barriers” and result in “higher costs and potential legal disputes.”
  (c) The U.S. government fears that it will make it easier for U.S. companies to register their intellectual property without facing international scrutiny, which may reduce transparency.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that Myanmar’s system
  would make it easier to register IP or reduce scrutiny. Instead, the concern is that it will be more difficult for U.S. companies to protect their IP.
  (d) Myanmar’s decision could increase the likelihood of innovative goods in the market, harming American businesses and consumers globally.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect and misleading. The passage expresses concern about counterfeit goods, not innovative goods. The risk is that weak IP protection will lead to more counterfeit products, not innovation.
  (e) The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s new patent system could limit foreign investments, as it may not offer the same legal protections provided by international IP agreements.
• Explanation: While this is a valid concern, it is a secondary issue. The primary focus in the passage is
  on the increased operational costs and legal challenges that U.S. businesses might face.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage emphasizes that “adhering to international IP agreements is essential for countries
involved in global commerce, as it ensures the protection of businesses and inventors.” This implies that
the U.S. supports these agreements to protect global trade, which is reflected in option (c).
Analysis:
(a) The U.S. sees international IP agreements as useful but believes that countries like Myanmar should
have the freedom to adapt them to their national interests without significant consequences for global
trade.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the U.S. believes
  countries should have the freedom to adapt IP agreements to their national interests. Instead, the U.S. stresses the importance of adhering to global standards.
  (b) The U.S. views international IP agreements as a barrier to innovation, which reduces the ability of
  countries to create independent IP systems.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect and contradicts the passage. The U.S. supports international IP
  agreements, seeing them as essential for protecting innovation, not a barrier to it.
  (c) The U.S. believes that they are essential for ensuring the protection of businesses and inventors involved in global commerce, thereby safeguarding trade relations and foreign investments.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage emphasizes that adhering to international IP
  agreements “ensures the protection of businesses and inventors” and is crucial for global trade,
  innovation, and investment.
• (d) The U.S. argues that international IP agreements are primarily designed to protect developing nations’ intellectual property.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention any special focus on
  developing nations. Instead, the U.S. emphasizes the global importance of IP agreements for all
  businesses and trade.
  (e) The U.S. maintains that international IP agreements are important, and they should be applied when the majority of trading partners agree to adopt them simultaneously to avoid competitive disadvantages.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention applying IP agreements
  only when most trading partners agree. The U.S. stresses consistent adherence to international IP
  frameworks, regardless of other countries’ actions.

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. The passage directly states that the U.S. is concerned about Myanmar’s actions possibly “diluting
protections provided under frameworks like Section 103,” making it harder for U.S. companies to protect
their trademarks in the country. This makes option (d) the most accurate. While (c) discusses the remedies
Section 103 provides, it does not directly capture the U.S. concern as well as (d) does. Options (a), (b), and (e) present incorrect interpretations of the passage’s message.
Analysis:
(a) The U.S. wants to promote Section 103 globally to ensure that all countries follow the same standards
for trademark and patent protection.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that the U.S. is trying to promote
  Section 103 globally. Instead, the focus is on using Section 103 as a benchmark for reliable trademark protection in Myanmar.
  (b) The U.S. believes that Section 103 offers superior protection for U.S. businesses and should be adopted by Myanmar as part of its national patent system to avoid legal conflicts.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage does not say the U.S. is advocating for the full
  adoption of Section 103 by Myanmar. The U.S. is concerned about the dilution of protections for
  trademarks rather than suggesting Myanmar should directly adopt this act.
  (c) The U.S. emphasizes Section 103 because it provides legal remedies such as injunctions, damages, and the seizure of infringing goods, which could help American businesses to perpetuate in the longer run.
• Explanation: This option is partially correct but incomplete. While Section 103 indeed provides legal
  remedies to protect trademarks, the answer does not fully address the U.S.’s specific concerns regarding Myanmar’s withdrawal from international frameworks.
  (d) The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s actions may dilute protections provided by frameworks like
  Section 103, making it harder for U.S. companies to safeguard their trademarks in the country.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage explicitly states that the U.S. fears Myanmar’s
  withdrawal from international IP agreements may “dilute protections” provided by frameworks such
  as Section 103, affecting U.S. businesses’ ability to protect their trademarks in Myanmar.
  (e) The U.S. is concerned that Section 103 gives too much power to foreign businesses, undermining the competitiveness of American companies in countries like Myanmar.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage that Section 103 gives excessive power to foreign businesses. The concern lies in the lack of protection for U.S. companies, not excessive protection for others.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage clearly states that “insufficient IP protection may lead to an increase in counterfeit goods, harming both businesses and consumers.” Option (b) accurately reflects this risk, while the other options misinterpret or contradict the negative consequences outlined in the passage. Options (a), (c), (d), and (e) either downplay the potential harm or suggest benefits where the passage indicates risks.
Analysis:
(a) U.S. businesses may benefit from reduced competition in Myanmar’s market due to less stringent IP
regulations, allowing them to operate with fewer legal restrictions and challenges from local competitors.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage discusses risks related to weak IP protections, such
  as financial losses and counterfeit goods, rather than the benefits of reduced competition for U.S.
  businesses.
  (b) Insufficient protection under Myanmar’s IP system could result in an influx of counterfeit goods,
  negatively affecting not only U.S. businesses through financial losses but also harming consumers by
  reducing the quality and reliability of available products.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage clearly states that a weak IP system in Myanmar
  “could encourage counterfeiting” and undermine the protections American companies rely on globally, harming both businesses and consumers.
  (c) The lack of alignment with global IP standards may give U.S. companies an opportunity to evade
  international scrutiny, allowing them to operate with more flexibility in protecting their intellectual property.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage emphasizes the negative consequences of weak IP protection, not that U.S. businesses would benefit from evading scrutiny.
• (d) Myanmar’s patent system could encourage greater investment in the country by lowering the costs associated with intellectual property registration and litigation, making it easier for U.S. businesses to enter the market.
• Explanation: This option contradicts the passage. The U.S. is concerned that a weak IP system could
  discourage investment, not encourage it.
  (e) A weaker IP system in Myanmar could allow U.S. businesses to dominate the market, as fewer foreign companies will be interested in investing in a country with unreliable intellectual property protection laws.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage emphasizes risks like counterfeit goods and financial losses for U.S. businesses, rather than any potential benefits of dominating the market due to reduced foreign competition.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage mentions two significant concerns:(I) U.S. companies could face legal battles and financial losses, and (II) there could be an increase in counterfeit goods, harming businesses and consumers. However, (III) is incorrect, as the passage highlights that Myanmar’s withdrawal could potentially harm trade relations rather than strengthen them. Therefore, the correct answer is (c), both (I) and (II).
Analysis:
(a) Only (I)

• Explanation: This option is incorrect. While (I) is a valid concern, the passage also mentions the rise in counterfeit products (II) (b) Only (II)
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. While (II) is mentioned, the passage also discusses legal and
  financial challenges for U.S. businesses (I).
  (c) Both (I) and (II)
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage highlights that U.S. businesses may face “legal
  battles and financial losses” (I) and that a weak IP system “could encourage counterfeiting” (II).
  (d) Both (I) and (III)
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. While (I) is correct, (III) is inaccurate, as the passage does not
  suggest that Myanmar’s withdrawal would improve trade relations with the U.S. Instead, it suggests the opposite—that trade relations could be disrupted.
  (e) All (I), (II), and (III)
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because (III) is not supported by the passage. The passage does
  not indicate that Myanmar’s withdrawal would foster improved trade relations with the U.S.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is:
(a) A strong IP system attracts foreign investment by securing innovations.
This sentence logically fits the blank because the passage is discussing the importance of IP protections in
attracting foreign investments and boosting economic development. It reinforces the point that
participating in global IP agreements would help Myanmar attract investors by ensuring their innovations
are secure. The other options serve as distractors:
(b) contradicts the idea that Myanmar stepping away from global agreements poses a risk to investor
confidence.
(c) is incorrect because the passage stresses thatinvestor confidence is indeed influenced by IP protections.
(d) is not correct, as it goes against the main argument that strong IP protections attract, not repel, foreign investment.
(e), while valid, is too specific and doesn’t directly link IP protections to attracting foreign investment,
which is the main argument in this context.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage discusses how a weak IP system in Myanmar “could encourage counterfeiting and
undermine the protections that American companies rely on globally.” This would lead to financial losses
and brand damage for U.S. companies, making option (c) the correct answer.
Analysis:
(a) U.S. companies may need to collaborate with Myanmar’s government to co-develop stronger IP
protections.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention any collaboration between U.S. companies and the Myanmar government to develop stronger IP protections.
  (b) U.S. companies may benefit from reduced legal regulations, making it easier to operate in Myanmar.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage discusses the negative consequences of a weak IP
  system, such as counterfeiting and financial losses, rather than suggesting that U.S. businesses would
  benefit from reduced regulations.
• (c) U.S. businesses may face difficulties from a surge in counterfeit products, leading to monetary losses and a decline in brand credibility.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage explains that a weak IP system in Myanmar could “encourage counterfeiting,” which would harm U.S. businesses through financial losses and damage to their brands.
  (d) U.S. companies may enjoy greater freedom in Myanmar due to weaker IP enforcement, allowing them to bypass international restrictions.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage emphasizes the risks U.S. companies face
  due to weak IP protection, not greater freedom or flexibility in operations.
  (e) U.S. companies may face stricter legal penalties for failing to comply with Myanmar’s new IP system.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention stricter legal penalties for U.S. companies; the focus is on the risks posed by insufficient protection under Myanmar’s new system.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage discusses how a weak IP system in Myanmar “could encourage counterfeiting and
undermine the protections that American companies rely on globally.” This would lead to financial losses
and brand damage for U.S. companies, making option (c) the correct answer.
Analysis:
(a) U.S. companies may need to collaborate with Myanmar’s government to co-develop stronger IP
protections.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention any collaboration between U.S. companies and the Myanmar government to develop stronger IP protections.
  (b) U.S. companies may benefit from reduced legal regulations, making it easier to operate in Myanmar.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage discusses the negative consequences of a weak IP
  system, such as counterfeiting and financial losses, rather than suggesting that U.S. businesses would
  benefit from reduced regulations.
• (c) U.S. businesses may face difficulties from a surge in counterfeit products, leading to monetary losses and a decline in brand credibility.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage explains that a weak IP system in Myanmar could “encourage counterfeiting,” which would harm U.S. businesses through financial losses and damage to their brands.
  (d) U.S. companies may enjoy greater freedom in Myanmar due to weaker IP enforcement, allowing them to bypass international restrictions.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage emphasizes the risks U.S. companies face
  due to weak IP protection, not greater freedom or flexibility in operations.
  (e) U.S. companies may face stricter legal penalties for failing to comply with Myanmar’s new IP system.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage does not mention stricter legal penalties for U.S. companies; the focus is on the risks posed by insufficient protection under Myanmar’s new system.

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. This conclusion can be inferred from the passage, which discusses concerns that Myanmar’s
independent patent system might not align with international standards, potentially complicating the
protection of intellectual property for foreign companies and leading to legal challenges.
Analysis:
(a) Myanmar’s independent patent system will prevent foreign companies from facing legal challenges.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage suggests that Myanmar’s independent
  patent system could increase legal challenges for foreign companies, not prevent them.
  (b) Establishing a unique patent system may lead to more complex legal disputes for foreign businesses.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage states that Myanmar’s patent system might not
  meet international standards, leading to “higher costs and potential legal disputes” for foreign
  businesses like U.S. companies.
  (c) Countries with strong IP protection experience higher levels of IP violations.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage argues that strong IP protection reduces
  issues like counterfeiting, not increases them.
  (d) A strong IP protection system has no impact on a country’s economic losses from intellectual property
  violations.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage implies that strong IP protection is critical
  for preventing economic losses and maintaining investor confidence.
  (e) Foreign businesses will prefer to invest in countries with weaker IP protection systems.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage highlights that weaker IP protection could reduce
  foreign investment, as businesses rely on strong IP frameworks to protect their interests.

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. This conclusion is supported by the passage, which highlights concerns from the U.S. regarding
Myanmar’s decision to establish its own patent system. The U.S. fears that this move could create
inconsistencies with international standards, making it harder for foreign businesses to protect their
intellectual property and leading to potential legal and economic challenges.

Analysis:
(a) Myanmar will see an increase in foreign investments due to its unique IP framework.

• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage suggests that Myanmar’s deviation from
  international standards may discourage foreign investment, as investors rely on strong, consistent IP
  protections.
  (b) U.S. companies may find it easier to protect their intellectual property in Myanmar.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect because the passage indicates that U.S. companies would face
  greater difficulties protecting their IP in Myanmar due to inconsistent protections.
  (c) Myanmar’s move could encourage other countries to follow suit and establish their own patent systems.
• Explanation: This option is not supported by the passage, which does not suggest that other countries
  would be inspired to create their own independent patent systems as a result of Myanmar’s actions.
  (d) Foreign companies may face difficulties in protecting their trademarks and patents in Myanmar,
  potentially leading to economic and legal disputes.
• Explanation: This is the correct option. The passage explains that Myanmar’s independent patent
  system could lead to “higher costs and potential legal disputes” for U.S. companies, implying difficulties
  in protecting trademarks and patents.
  (e) Counterfeit goods will decline as Myanmar establishes its independent patent system.
• Explanation: This option is incorrect. The passage suggests the opposite: that weak IP protection in
  Myanmar could encourage an increase in counterfeit goods, not a decline.

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. Correct Sequence:
B – A – D – C
Explanation:

1. B introduces the topic by explaining that the Unified Pension Scheme aims to merge different pension
   systems into one streamlined structure.
2. A follows by describing the scheme’s goal of offering a balanced solution between retirees’ financial
   security and government fiscal responsibility.
3. D adds that the unified structure will help lower administrative costs and ensure fairer distribution of
   benefits.
4. C concludes by explaining how this approach addresses both employees’ demands for higher pensions and the government’s ability to fund the program.

S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. Correct Sequence:
A – B – D – C
Explanation:

1. A introduces the topic by stating that hydropower projects are promoted as a renewable energy solution
   for rising electricity demands.
2. B follows by highlighting the environmental and social challenges posed by these projects, such as
   ecosystem disruption and displacement.
3. D elaborates on the challenge of responsibly developing hydropower while minimizing harm.
4. C concludes by emphasizing the need to strike a balance between energy generation and environmental protection for sustainable development.

S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. The idiom “taken aback” means to be surprised or shocked, usually in an unexpected or abrupt way. It does not relate to physically stepping back or moving.

• Sentence (A) uses the idiom correctly because it expresses being surprised by sudden news of a
  promotion.
• Sentence (B) is incorrect, as it confuses “taken aback” with physically stepping back for a better view.
• Sentence (C) is also incorrect, as it mistakenly refers to being “taken aback” by strong wind, which
  implies a physical effect rather than a surprising or shocking situation.
  Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Only A.

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. The idiom “back in the saddle” means to return to doing something after a break or setback, often involving resuming a task, job, or activity that one is familiar with. It originates from horseback riding but is used figuratively.

• Sentence A is correct because it refers to someone returning to training after an injury, which fits the
  meaning of “back in the saddle.”
• Sentence B is incorrect because the idiom “back in the saddle” is about resuming work or activity after a break or setback, not relaxing on a vacation.
• Sentence C is correct because it indicates someone returning to painting after a long break, which aligns with the idiom. Therefore, the correct answer is: (c) Both A & C.

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. The idiom “keep the ball rolling” means to maintain momentum or continue progressing in an activity, task, or process. It implies sustaining an ongoing effort.

• Sentence (A) uses the idiom correctly, as it refers to maintaining focus and momentum despite a
  challenge.
• Sentence (B) is correct, referring to the entrepreneur keeping up the momentum after securing the
  first round of investment.
• Sentence (C) is also correct, as the coach is advising the team to continue their effort after a successful moment.
  Therefore, the correct answer is (d) All A, B, C.

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let’s break down the sentence and analyze the incorrect placements:
The sentence is:
“Sampoornata Abhiyan is an initiative empowerment (A) at promoting education (B) development and
aimed (C) through holistic (D), skill-building, and community welfare programs, particularly (E) in
underprivileged areas.”

Analysis of Incorrect Placements:

1. Empowerment (A):
   o Incorrect Placement:”Empowerment”is incorrectly placed. It should describe the outcome or goal
   of the initiative. The word aimed (C) should be in this position, as the initiative is aimed at
   promoting development.
   o Correct Swap: Empowerment (A) should be swapped with aimed (C), as it makes more sense to
   say the initiative is aimed at promoting development.
2. Education (B):
   o Incorrect Placement: The word “education” should be connected with holistic development,
   meaning a comprehensive approach that includes multiple aspects like education, skill-building, etc.
   o Correct Swap: Education (B) should be swapped with holistic (D) because holistic development
   is a more suitable phrase, and education fits better when paired with other aspects like skillbuilding.
   Correct Swapping:

• A-C: “Aimed” should replace “empowerment,” as it is aimed at promoting development, and
  “empowerment” should replace “aimed,” indicating a focus on empowerment.
• B-D: “Holistic development” is a more fitting phrase, so education (B) and holistic (D) should be
  swapped.
  Corrected Sentence:
  “Sampoornata Abhiyan is an initiative aimed (A) at promoting holistic (D) development and
  empowerment (C) through education (B), skill-building, and community welfare programs, particularly (E) in underprivileged areas.”
• Conclusion:
• A-C: “Aimed” is more appropriate in the first part of the sentence, and “empowerment” describes the
  initiative’s goal.
• B-D: “Holistic development” is the correct phrase, and “education” fits better in the context of skill building.
  Thus, the correct answer is option (d) A-C & B-D.

S16. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let’s analyze the sentence:
“The National Financial Reporting Authority ensures the quality (A) of financial regulating (B) by
reporting (C) and overseeing audit practices, financial (D) transparency and accountability in promoting
(E) statements.”
Analysis:

• “Quality (A)” is correctly placed as it refers to the standard or excellence the Authority ensures.
• “Regulating (B)” is incorrectly placed. The correct word should be reporting because the Authority
  ensures the quality of financial reporting.
• “Reporting (C)” is incorrectly placed in this context. The word regulating fits better here because the
  Authority regulates audit practices.
• “Financial (D)” is incorrectly placed as it describes transparency and accountability related to financial statements.
• “Promoting (E)” is incorrectly placed. The correct word here should be statements since the Authority is focused on financial statements, not promoting statements.
• Incorrect Placement and Correct Swapping:
• Regulating (B):
  o Incorrect Placement: “Regulating” is not appropriate here because the sentence refers to the
  quality of financial reporting, not the act of regulation.
  o Correct Swap: Reporting (C) should replace regulating (B) because the Authority ensures the
  quality of financial reporting. This makes B-C the correct swap.
• Promoting (E):
  o Incorrect Placement: “Promoting statements” does not make sense in this context. The correct
  word should refer to statements that are connected with transparency and accountability in
  financial processes.
  o Correct Swap: Financial (D) should replace promoting (E) because financial statements is the
  correct phrase. Therefore, D-E is the correct swap.
  Corrected Sentence:
  “The National Financial Reporting Authority ensures the quality (A) of financial reporting (B) by
  regulating (C) and overseeing audit practices, promoting (D) transparency and accountability in
  financial (E) statements.”
  Thus, the correct answer is option (a) B-C & D-E.

S17. Ans.(d)
Sol. The sentence is: “Tarang Shakti-2024 challenges (A) on improving strategic defense (B) capabilities and fostering collaboration between address (C) forces to armed (D) evolving security focuses (E).”
Analysis of Incorrect Placements:

1. Challenges (A):
   o Incorrect Placement: The word “challenges” does not fit well with the idea of improving
   capabilities and fostering collaboration. The word should refer to the evolving security issues,
   making “focuses” (E) more suitable here.
   o Correct Swap: Challenges (A) should be swapped with focuses (E) because Tarang Shakti focuses
   on improving capabilities and collaboration.
2. Address (C):
   o Incorrect Placement: “Address” is incorrectly placed here. The word that should describe the
   forces is armed (D), which fits better in the context of “armed forces.”
   o Correct Swap: Address (C) should be swapped with armed (D) because it makes more sense to
   “address evolving security issues.”
   Correct Swapping:

• A-E: “Challenges” and “focuses” should be swapped because Tarang Shakti focuses on improving
  capabilities and addressing challenges, not the other way around.
• C-D: “Address” and “armed” should be swapped because “armed forces” is the correct term, and
  “address” fits in describing how forces handle evolving security issues.
  Corrected Sentence:
  “Tarang Shakti-2024 focuses (A) on improving strategic defense (B) capabilities and fostering
  collaboration between armed (D) forces to address (C) evolving security challenges (E).”
  Conclusion:
• A-E: “Focuses” should be in place of “challenges.”
• C-D: “Armed forces” is the correct phrase, and “address” fits in describing the action regarding security issues.
  Thus, the correct answer is option (d) A-E & C-D.

S18. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is (b) Both (i) and (ii).
Explanation:

• Sentence (i) is grammatically correct. It correctly describes how the books are organized by genre in
  the library, making them easy to locate.
• Sentence (ii) is also correct. It properly conveys that the proposal was submitted via email to the
  supervisor, who reviewed it carefully.
• Sentence (iii) is incorrect. The phrase “Hardly the meeting had begun” is incorrect. The correct
  construction should be “Hardly had the meeting begun” to follow the correct inversion rule after words
  like “hardly,” “scarcely,” and “barely.”
  Corrected version of sentence (iii):
  “Hardly had the meeting begun when the fire alarm sounded.”
  Thus, the answer is (b) Both (i) and (ii)

S19. Ans.(d)
Sol. The statements (ii) and (iii) are grammatically and contextually correct, while (i) contains an error
(“though” should be “through”).
Analysis of each statement:

1. (i) She is working tirelessly though the night to finish the project by the deadline on Friday.
   o This sentence has a grammatical error. The phrase “though the night” should be “through the night”
   as “though” is incorrect in this context.
   o Correct version: “She is working tirelessly through the night to finish the project by the deadline on
   Friday.”
2. (ii) Seldom have we witnessed such an incredible performance, captivating the audience from
   beginning to end.
   o This sentence is correct. It uses proper inversion (“Seldom have we witnessed…”) after a negative
   adverb and is grammatically and contextually sound.
3. (iii) The list of items for the event, including decorations and food, has been finalized by the team.
   o This sentence is grammatically correct. “The list” is the subject, and the singular verb “has been”
   correctly agrees with it.

S20. Ans.(d)
Sol. Both (ii) and (iii) are grammatically incorrect.
Analysis of each statement:

1. (i) Each of the participants brought his/her own materials, ensuring that the workshop ran smoothly
   and without interruptions.
   o This sentence is grammatically correct. “Each of the participants” is singular, so “his/her” and
   “brought” are appropriately used.
2. (ii) Neither of the candidates have revealed his/her full agenda, but both promise significant reforms if
   elected.
   o This sentence is incorrect. “Neither” is singular, so the verb should be singular as well. It should be
   “has” instead of “have.”
   o Correct version: “Neither of the candidates has revealed his/her full agenda…”
3. (iii) Either the teacher or the students is responsible for ensuring the room is left clean after class.
   o This sentence is incorrect. When “either… or” is used with a singular and plural subject, the verb
   should agree with the closest subject (in this case, “students”). The verb should be “are,” not “is.”
   o Correct version: “Either the teacher or the students are responsible…

S21. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only (a) is grammatically incorrect.
Analysis of each statement:

1. (a) Not only the team completed the task ahead of time, but they also exceeded expectations.
   o This sentence is incorrect because the phrase “Not only” should be followed by an inverted sentence
   structure for it to be grammatically correct. It should be “Not only did the team complete the task
   ahead of time…” to maintain proper form.
   o Correct version: “Not only did the team complete the task ahead of time, but they also exceeded
   expectations.”
2. (b) The quality of the products and the level of customer service have greatly improved since the
   new management.
   o This sentence is correct. Both “quality” and “level” are singular, but the verb “have” correctly agrees because they are treated as a compound subject.
3. (c) Anybody who wants to participate must submit his/her application by Friday, as late entries
   will not be accepted.
   o This sentence is correct. “Anybody” is singular, and the use of “his/her” is appropriate for gender
   neutrality.
   This option is incorrect because option (a) contains an error.

S22. Ans.(a)
Sol.
(i) Despite facing numerous challenges

• Correct: This connector works well as it introduces a contrast, indicating that the team succeeded
  despite the challenges.
• Combined sentence: Despite facing numerous challenges, including budget constraints, tight
  deadlines, and unexpected technical difficulties, the project team managed to deliver an innovative
  solution that exceeded the client’s expectations.
  (ii) Given that the project team
• Incorrect: “Given that” implies a reason or condition that explains the outcome. In this case, the
  challenges would not be the reason for the team’s success, so this connector is not suitable.
  (iii) Even if the challenges
• Incorrect: “Even if” introduces a hypothetical situation. This is not appropriate because the challenges mentioned were real, not hypothetical.

S23. Ans.(d)
Sol. Both options (ii) and (iii) provide suitable connectors that logically and grammatically combine the
two sentences. Option (i) does not fit the context properly.
Analysis:
(i) With the advent of continuous update

• Incorrect: This connector does not make sense because “continuous update” is not the focus of the
  sentence. It doesn’t correctly join the two ideas in (A) and (B).
  (ii) Considering the vast array of
• Correct: This connector works well, as it introduces the reason for why companies must update their
  systems. It logically joins the sentences.
• Combined sentence: Considering the vast array of technological advancements available today,
  companies must continuously update their processes and systems to stay ahead in an ever-evolving
  digital landscape. (iii) Given the wide range of
• Correct: This is another suitable connector. It implies that the wide range of technological
  advancements is the reason for companies needing to update their processes.
• Combined sentence: Given the wide range of technological advancements available today, companies must continuously update their processes and systems to stay ahead in an ever-evolving digital landscape.

S25. Ans.(c)
Sol. The sentence requires a word that fits both blanks in the context of the subordinates trying to influence the manager’s decision by standing outside a specific area. Let’s examine the options:

1. Porch: This word refers to an area outside a building, which would fit in the second blank. However, it doesn’t make sense in the context of “to porch the manager” in the first blank. So, it doesn’t fit both blanks. (Eliminate option (a) and (b)).
2. Lobby: This word can mean both a physical area (a hallway or large open space in a building) and a
   verb (to seek to influence someone’s decision). In this case, “to lobby the manager” and “stand outside the lobby” both make sense. It fits well in both blanks. (Option (c) fits).
3. Sway: This word works for the first blank (“to sway the manager” meaning to influence him), but
   doesn’t fit the second blank (“stand outside the sway” doesn’t make sense). (Eliminate option (d) and
   (e)). Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Only (II).

S26. Ans.(e)
Sol.

1. Burst:
   o First blank: “Heard a sudden burst of inspiration” – This works well, as “burst” refers to a sudden
   occurrence of something, like inspiration.
   o Second blank :“Caused by the burst of light from the night star” – This also fits, as “burst of light” is a common expression for sudden flashes of light.
   o So, Burst fits both blanks.
2. Blare:
   o First blank: “Heard a sudden blare of inspiration” – This doesn’t work, as “blare” refers to a loud,
   harsh sound, and it doesn’t fit with inspiration.
   o Second blank: “Caused by the blare of light” – This doesn’t work either, as “blare” is not used to
   describe light.
3. Flash:
   o First blank: “Heard a sudden flash of inspiration” – This works metaphorically, as a “flash of
   inspiration” refers to a sudden, brilliant idea.
   o Second blank: “Caused by the flash of light from the night star” – This fits perfectly, as a “flash of
   light” is a common expression.
   o So, Flash fits both blanks.
   Conclusion:
   Both Burst and Flash fit the sentence well. Therefore, the correct answer is (e) Both (I) and (III)

S27. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let’s examine how each word fits into the blanks:

• Elucidate (I): This word works well in both blanks. It means to make something clear or explain, which fits the context of explaining abstruse (difficult) concepts and the challenge of doing so without oversimplifying:
  o “The philosopher endeavored to elucidate the abstruse concepts.”
  o “It proved arduous to elucidate them without simplifying the intricate details.”
• Actuate (II): This word means to put into action or motivate, which does not fit the context of explaining concepts:
  o “The philosopher endeavored to actuate the abstruse concepts” doesn’t make sense in this context, as it implies causing something to happen rather than explaining.
• Mandate (III): This word means to command or give authority, which also doesn’t fit the context of
  explaining or clarifying:
  o “The philosopher endeavored to mandate the abstruse concepts” doesn’t make sense, as it implies
  issuing a command rather than explaining.
  Thus, the correct answer is (a) Only (I), as “elucidate” is the only word that fits both blanks.

S28. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let’s examine how each word fits into the blanks:

1. Alleviate:
   o First blank: “Sought to alleviate tensions” – This works, as “alleviate” means to reduce or ease the
   severity of something, like tensions between nations.
   o Second blank: “Hoping to alleviate a peaceful resolution” – This doesn’t fit, as “alleviate” is used to
   describe reducing a burden or stress, not creating or fostering something like a resolution.
2. Mitigate:
   o First Blank: “Sought to mitigate tensions” – This fits well, as “mitigate” means to reduce the harmful effects of something, making it appropriate for easing tensions.
   o Second blank: “Hoping to mitigate a peaceful resolution” – This doesn’t quite work, as “mitigate” is used for reducing negative effects, not achieving or fostering resolutions.
3. Ameliorate:
   o First blank: “Sought to ameliorate tensions” – This fits well, as “ameliorate” means to improve a
   situation or make it better, which is appropriate in the context of international tensions.
   o Second blank: “Hoping to ameliorate a peaceful resolution” – This also works, as “ameliorate” can
   mean to improve or foster a better outcome, which fits with a peaceful resolution.
   Conclusion:
   The word that best fits both blanks is “Ameliorate.”
   Thus, the correct answer is (e) Only (III).

S29. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let’s analyze how each word fits into the blanks:

• Undermine (I): Works well in both blanks. It means to weaken or damage something:
  o “The lawyer sought to undermine the witness’s testimony” makes sense, as it implies weakening
  the testimony by pointing out inconsistencies.
  o “Aiming to undermine the credibility of the opposing argument” also fits well, as it suggests
  weakening the credibility of the opposing argument.
• Challenge (II): Also works in both blanks. It means to question or dispute something:
  o “The lawyer sought to challenge the witness’s testimony” makes sense, as the lawyer is disputing
  the inconsistencies.
  o “Aiming to challenge the credibility ofthe opposing argument”fits well, as the lawyer is questioning
  the validity of the opposing argument.
• Sinuate (III): This word means to curve or move in a winding or indirect path, which does not fit either blank. It has no connection to questioning testimony or credibility:
  o “The lawyer sought to sinuate the witness’s testimony” does not make sense in this context.
  o “Aiming to sinuate the credibility of the opposing argument” also does not make sense.
  Thus, the correct answer is (b) Both (I) and (II), as both “undermine” and “challenge” fit well in both
  blanks.

S30. Ans.(c)
Sol. The paragraph focuses on the connection between physical activity and social interaction to promote
physical and emotional well-being. Each sentence relates to how engaging in group or community-based
physical activities can benefit health. Let’s analyze each statement:

• Sentence (a) discusses how participating in recreational sports improves physical health through
  regular exercise, fitting well with the theme of physical activity.
• Sentence (b) talks about the social aspect of exercising in groups, which enhances social bonds and
  reduces isolation, aligning with the theme of combining physical activity and social interaction.
• Sentence (c) mentions regular health checkups and medical screenings for preventing chronic
  diseases. This introduces a new focus on medical care, which, although related to health, does not tie
  into the specific theme of physical activity or social interaction.
• Sentence (d) highlights the motivational benefits of group fitness activities, which is closely related to both social interaction and staying consistent with physical activity.
• Sentence (e) points out how physical activities done in a social or community setting can reduce stress and improve emotional well-being, maintaining the theme of physical activity combined with social benefits.
  Incoherent Sentence:
  Sentence (c) is the incoherent one because it focuses on medical checkups and preventative healthcare, which, while relevant to overall health, does not align with the main theme of physical activity and social interaction. The rest of the sentences discuss the social and emotional advantages of engaging in physical activity with others.

S31. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pattern of series –
8 + (102 + 1) = 109
109 + (112 + 1) = 231
231 + (122 + 1) = 376
376 + (132 + 1) = 546
546 + (142 + 1) = 743
743 + (152 + 1) = 969

S32. Ans.(a)
Sol. Pattern of series –
100 × 2 = 200
200 × 2.4 = 480
480 × 2.8 = 1344
1344 × 3.2 = 4300.8
4300.8 × 3.6 = 15482.88
15482.88 × 4 = 61931.52

S33. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pattern of series –
2 + (73 – 7) = 338
338 + (63 – 6) = 548
548 + (53 – 5) = 668
668 + (43 – 4) = 728
728 + (33 – 3) = 752
752 + (23 – 2) = 758

S34. Ans.(b)
Sol. Pattern of series –
308 ×2-100 = 516
516 ×2-100 =932
932 ×2-100 = 1764
1764 ×2-100 = 3428
3428 ×2-100 = 6756
6756 ×2-100 = 13412

S35. Ans.(a)
Sol. Since 𝐴 is 33.33% less than 𝐵, we have:
𝐴 = 𝐵 −1/3B

𝐵 =2/3𝐵
The product of LCM and HCF of two numbers 𝐴 and 𝐵 is equal to the product of the numbers:
LCM(𝐴, 𝐵) × HCF(𝐴,𝐵) = 𝐴 × 𝐵
Given:
𝐴 × 𝐵 = 294
Substitute 𝐴 = 2x and B = 3x :
2𝑥 × 3x = 294
x = 7

B = 21 and A = 14
6𝐴 − 20 = 6 × 14 − 20 = 84 − 20 = 64
3𝐵 − 7 = 3 × 21 − 7 = 63 − 7 = 56
Now, find the LCM of 64 and 56. The prime factorizations are:
64 = 2/6
56 = 2/3 × 7
The LCM is the product of the highest powers of all primes:
LCM(64,56) = 2
6 × 7 = 64 × 7 = 448
So, Quantity I > Quantity II

S36. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the monthly income of Rohit be Rs 100a
Amount spend on rent = 40a
Amount spend on groceries = (100𝑎 − 40𝑎) ×1/3= 𝑅𝑠 20𝑎
Amount invested in scheme B = (100𝑎 − 40𝑎 − 20𝑎) ×3/10= 𝑅𝑠 12𝑎
Amount invested in scheme C = (100𝑎 − 40𝑎 − 20𝑎) ×5/10= 𝑅𝑠 20𝑎
Given, 20a -12a = 4000
8a = 4000
a = 500
The monthly income of Rohit = 100a = Rs 50000
Quantity I: Required difference = 50000 – 20a= 50000 – 10000 = Rs 40000
So, Quantity I < Quantity II

S37. Ans.(a)
Sol. The profit sharing ratio of A, B and C
= 𝑃 × 4 + 0.6𝑃 × 8 ∶ (𝑃 + 5000) × 12 ∶ 6000 × 8
= 2.2P : 3P+15000 : 12000
The profit share of C =60/343× 17150 = 𝑅𝑠 3000
ATQ,
12000/2.2𝑃+3𝑃+15000

3000/14150
14150× 4 = 5.2P+15000
41600 = 5.2P
8000 = 𝑃
The profit sharing ratio of A, B and C= 2.2P : 3P+15000 : 12000
= 17600 : 39000 : 12000
= 88 : 195 : 60
Required profit = 17150 ×195/343
= 𝑅𝑠 9750

S38. Ans.(a)
Sol. Cumulative compound interest = (20 + 20 +20×20/100 ) % = 44%
ATQ,
𝑃 ×44/100 − (𝑃 ×20/100 × 2) = 260/44𝑃
100 −40𝑃
100 = 260
𝑃 = 6500

Quantity I: Required interest = (6500 ×3/4×6/100× 4)
= 1170 Rs
So, Quantity I > Quantity II

S39. Ans.(b)
Sol. Amount invested in scheme A and B together = 6X/3 = 2X
Amount invested in post office = (6𝑋 − 2𝑋) − 2100 = 𝑃
= 4X – 2100 = P
Given, X : P=3:5
Let X and P be 3a and 5a respectively
4(3a) – 2100 = 5a
12a – 5a = 2100
a = 300
X = 3a = 900
P = 5a = 1500
So, Amount invested in scheme A and B together = 2X = 1800
Amount invested in scheme A = 1800 ×1/8
= 225 𝑅𝑠
Amount invested in scheme B = 1800 ×7/8
= 1575 𝑅𝑠
Amount invested in post office = Rs 1500
From I. Amount invested in scheme B is more than the amount invested in post office. (it is correct)
From II. Amount spend on maid is more than the amount spend on scheme A (it is correct)
III. Amount invested in scheme B is less than Amount spend on maid (it is incorrect)
So, Both I & II

S40. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let the height and the radius of the cylindrical vessel be h and r cm respectively.
From I. 75/100×22/7× 𝑟
2 × ℎ = 1155𝑟
2 × ℎ = 490 … (𝑖)
And2 ×22/7× 𝑟 × ℎ = 440
𝑟 × ℎ = 70
ℎ =70/𝑟
h value put in (i)
𝑟2 =70/𝑟
= 490
𝑟 = 7 cm
And h = 70/7 = 10 cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 10 + 10 = 20 cm
Length of the rectangle = 4 + 7 = 11 cm
Area of the rectangle = 20× 11 = 220 cm2
So, I is not possible to fill all the respective fillers

From II. 75/100×22/7× 𝑟
2 × ℎ = 3696/𝑟
2 × ℎ = 1568 …(𝑖)
And
2 ×22/7× 𝑟 × ℎ = 704
𝑟 × ℎ = 112
ℎ =112/𝑟
h value put in (i)
𝑟2=112/𝑟
= 1568
𝑟 = 14 cm
And h = 112/14 = 8 cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 10 + 8 = 18 cm
Length of the rectangle = 4 + 14 = 18 cm
Area of the rectangle = 18× 18 = 324 cm2
So, II is possible to fill all the respective fillers

From III. 75/100×22/7× 𝑟
2 × ℎ = 1386/𝑟
2 × ℎ = 588 … (𝑖)
And
2 ×22/7× 𝑟 × ℎ = 528
𝑟 × ℎ = 84
ℎ =84/𝑟
h value put in (i)
𝑟2=84/𝑟
= 588
𝑟 = 7cm
And h = 84/7 = 12 cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 10 + 12 = 22 cm
Length of the rectangle = 4 + 7 = 11 cm
Area of the rectangle = 11× 22 = 242 cm2
So, III is possible to fill all the respective fillers

S41. Ans.(c)
Sol. Speed of the bus 2X km/hr
Given, 672+2𝑋/3
= 2𝑋
672 + 2𝑋 = 6𝑋
168 = 𝑋
New speed of the car = 168 ×3/4
= 126 km/hr
Car reached point B in 7 hours
Total distance between points A and B = 7X = 7× 168 = 1176 km
Time taken by the car with new speed (taking halt for 10 minutes) =
1176/126

• 10 minutes
  = 9 hours 30 minutes
  Required time = 9 hours 30 minutes – 7 hours = 2 hours 30 minutes

S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. Speed of the boat in still water = 5 × 4 = 20 km/hr
ATQ,
𝐷/20 − 5−𝐷/20 + 5
= 10
𝐷/15 −𝐷/25 = 10
5𝐷 − 3𝐷 = 75 × 10
2𝐷 = 750
𝐷 = 375
Quantity I: Required time =
𝐷−75/20+5

375−75/25
=12 hours
Quantity I: Required time =𝐷+45/20−5

375+45/15
= 28 hours
So, Quantity I < Quantity II

Solutions (43–48): Let total number of type B pencil manufactured by all three companies= 500x
So, total number of type A pencil manufactured in all three companies = 500x ×60/100= 300𝑥
Total type B pencil manufactured by Z = 500x ×3/10= 150𝑥
Total number of pencils manufactured by X = (500x+300x) ×1/2= 400𝑥
Let number of type A pencil manufactured in Z = number of type A pencil manufactured by Y = y
And, let total number of type B pencil manufactured by Y = z
So, total number of type A pencil manufactured males in X = y+z
And total number of type B pencil manufactured in X = 400x – (y+z)

Companies	Total Type A pencil manufactured	Total type B pencil manufactured
X	y+z	400x-y-z
Y	y	z
Z	y	150x
Total	300x	500x

So, 3y + z = 300x ——–(i)
Also, 550x – y = 500x
y = 50x
Now, z = 300x – 3× 50𝑥
z = 150x

Companies	Total type A pencil manufactured	Total type B pencil manufactured
X	200x	200x
Y	50x	150x
Z	50x	150x

S43. Ans.(e)
Sol. 200x – 150x = 300
50x = 300
x = 6
Required sum = (150+200) × 6 = 2100

S44. Ans.(d)
Sol. ATQ, 350𝑥/2
= 1050
350x = 2100
x = 6
Total number of pencils manufactured by N = 400 × 6 ×
125/100
= 3000
Number of type B pencils manufactured by Z & number of type A pencils manufactured by Y together = 150× 6 + 50 × 6 = 1200
Required difference = 3000 – 1200 = 1800

S45. Ans.(c)
Sol. Total pencils manufactured by M = 4 × (200𝑥 + 50𝑥) = 1000𝑥
Total type B pencils manufactured by all three companies = 500x
ATQ, 1000x – 500x = 2000
x = 4
Required value = (500+300)× 4 = 3200

S46. Ans.(a)
Sol. Required ratio = 150x: 200x = 3:4

S47. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required answer (A) =500𝑥/200𝑥× 100 = 250%

S48. Ans.(a)
Sol. D = 150x – 50x = 100x
Required percentage =100𝑥/150𝑥× 100 = 66.66%

S49. Ans.(c)
Sol. Equation (I):
I. 2𝑥/2 − 11𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0
Put x = 2
2×4-22+ p = 0
8 – 22 + p = 0
p = 14
Now,
2𝑥/2 − 11𝑥 + 14 = 0
2×2 – 7x – 4x + 14 = 0
x(2x-7)-2(2x-7) = 0
(2x – 7)(x – 2) = 0
x =7/2, 2
II. 2𝑦2 − 15𝑦 + 𝑞 = 0
Put y = 2×3 = 6
2×36 – 90 + q =0
72 – 90 + q =0
q = 18

2𝑦2 − 15𝑦 + 18 = 0
2y2 – 12y – 3y + 18 = 0
2y(y – 6) – 3(y – 6) = 0
y = 6, 3/2
Required product = 14 × 18 = 252

S50. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let 100x = Y
ATQ,
100𝑥 ×160/100×75/100
= 100𝑥 + 40
20𝑥 = 40
𝑥 = 2
Quantity I: Marked price of product = 160x = Rs.320
Quantity II: Cost price of the article = 100𝑥 ×160
100×75/100
= 120x Rs
Given, x = 2
So, selling price of the article = 120 ×2 × 4/3 = 320 Rs
So, Quantity I = Quantity II

Solutions (51–55): For shop A, Total glasses sold =50/100× 968 = 484
Total plats sold = 968 – 484 = 484
For shop C, Total utensils (Glass and Plats) sold =100/56× 504 = 900
Total glasses sold = 900 – 504 = 396

S51. Ans.(a)
Sol. Multiple of 8 = 8, 16, 24, 32
Odd place multiple is 8 and 24.
Percentage range = 8<X<30
X = 24%
Number of plats sold by shop D = (100 – 24)/100 × 900 = 684

S52. Ans.(e)
Sol. Number of plats sold by B = 146 + 3 × (968 − 900) = 350
Required answer = 900 + 350 ×65/35
=900 + 650 = 1550

S53. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total number utensils (Glass and Plats) sold in Y = 3×484=1452
Number of plats sold by Y = 3/4×1452=1089
Required sum (1452 – 1089) + 396 = 759

S54. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total number glasses sold by B =968+900/2− 414
=934 – 414 = 520
Total number of plats sold by shop B =35/65× 520 = 280

S55. Ans.(e)
Sol. Total number of students in Q = 822 × 4 – (900+900+968)
= 3288 – 2768 = 520
Number plats sold by shop B =35/100× 520 = 182

S56. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let total number of people in A and B be a & b respectively.
ATQ –
a ×(100−60)/100×75/100
= 1800
3𝑎/10= 1800
a = 6000
Also, b ×40/100×3/10
= 600
b = 5000
Required percentage =
6000−5000/5000× 100 = 20%

S57. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let total number of people in B = x
ATQ –
x ×/(100−40)/100×60/100= 2880
9𝑥/25= 2880
x = 8000
Total males not attending the seminar from B = 8000 ×40/100×2/5= 1280
Let total number of people in C = y
So,
y ×45/100×58/100− 𝑦 ×55/100×30/100= 384
y = 4000
Total males not attending the seminar from C = 4000 ×45/100×42/100= 756
Required difference = 1280 – 756 = 524

S58. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let total number of people in D = z
ATQ –
z ×(100−55)100×50/100= 2250
9𝑧/40= 2250
z = 10000
Required difference = 10000 ×55/100× (7−3/10 ) = 2200

S59. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let total number of people in A = n/n ×(100−60)100× (75−25/100 ) = 1200
𝑛/5= 1200
n = 6000
Let total number of people in D= m/m ×(100−55)100×50/100= 2700
9𝑚/40= 2700
m = 12000
Total people not attending the seminar from D = 12000 ×55/100= 6600
Required ratio = 6600 : 6000 = 11 : 10

S60. Ans.(c)
Sol. Total number of people in A be 2y
So, total number of people in C = 2y ×3/2= 3𝑦
3y ×(100−45)/100×(100−30)/100– 2y ×(100−60)/100×(100−25)/100= 4440
231𝑦/200−3𝑦/5= 4440
231𝑦−120𝑦/200= 4440
111𝑦/200= 4440
y = 8000
Total males attending the seminar from both the cities = 16000 ×40/100×25/100

• 24000 ×55/100×30/100= 1600 + 3960 = 5560
  Required average =5560/2= 2780

Solutions (61-65): Final Arrangement is here:

Floors	Persons	Fruits	Countries
6	F	Watermelon	Chile
5	E	Gauva	Japan
4	C	Mango	Canada
3	B	Grapes	Norway
2	D	Apple	Italy
1	A	Pineapple	Brazil

S61. Ans.(c)
S62. Ans.(b)
S63. Ans.(c)
S64. Ans.(b)
S65. Ans.(d)

Solutions (66-70): Logic here is:
Words: The words with maximum number of letters are taken and placed in extreme left end in each step.
Numbers: The smallest number is taken and if that number is an even number 11 is added to that number and if it is an odd number 11 is subtracted from that number then after the applying all the operations the number is placed in extreme right end.
In step 6 the numbers are arranged in ascending order after the words.
Input: speed 56 bike 23 increasing 34 of 49 rapidly 76
Step 1: increasing speed 56 bike 34 of 49 rapidly 76 12
Step 2: rapidly increasing speed 56 bike of 49 76 12 45
Step 3: speed rapidly increasing 56 bike of 76 12 45 38
Step 4: bike speed rapidly increasing of 76 12 45 38 67
Step 5: of bike speed rapidly increasing 12 45 38 67 87
Step 6: of bike speed rapidly increasing 12 38 45 67 87

S66. Ans.(a)
S67. Ans.(e)
S68. Ans.(c)
S69. Ans.(d)
S70. Ans.(c)

Solutions (71-75): Final Arrangement is here:

S71. Ans.(b)
S72. Ans.(e)
S73. Ans.(c)

S74. Ans.(b) Sol. Except G, all the others sit on the middle of the sides of table.

S75. Ans.(d)

S76. Ans.(b)
Sol. MALNOURISHED = LBKMPVQJRGFC
VRQPMLKJGFCB
Nine letters are there between G and Q.

Solutions (77-81): Final Arrangement is here:

Years	Ages	Persons	Things
1972	52	T	Chains
1975	49	U	Lock
1976	48	R	Stapler
1982	42	Q	Keys
1987	37	S	Locket
1993	31	V	Pins
2005	19	P	Glass

S77. Ans.(d)
S78. Ans.(d)
S79. Ans.(b)
S80. Ans.(e)

S81. Ans.(c)
Sol. Except T, ages of all the other persons are an odd number.

Solutions (82-84):
Final Arrangement is here:

S82. Ans.(c)
S83. Ans.(d)

S84. Ans.(e)
Sol. Except F-R, in all the other options first point is south-east of the second point.

Solutions (85-88):
S85. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement (I) – True. In remote areas, people lack access to banking services, which could cause them
to feel left out.

S86. Ans.(a)
Sol. Statement (I) – True. The scheme directly transferred subsidies into bank accounts, which likely
reduced the role of intermediaries.
Statement (II) – True. Since the scheme required bank accounts, many people in rural areas without access to banks might have been left out.
Statement (III) – False. The statement doesn’t provide specific information about urban areas benefiting
more from the scheme.

S87. Ans.(e)
Sol. Statement (I) – True. If people still rely on agents, it contradicts the goal of reducing intermediaries.
Statement (II) – True. Lack of access to mobile phones could hinder the use of digital banking.
Statement (III) – True. Delays due to technical issues would also challenge the scheme’s effectiveness.

S88. Ans.(e)
Sol. Statement (I) – True. If beneficiaries received their subsidies on time, it supports the efficiency of the
scheme.
Statement (II) – True. An increase in bank account openings indicates more people are gaining access to
the scheme.
Statement (III) – True. Transparency in subsidy distribution aligns with the scheme’s motive.

S89. Ans.(c)

Sol:

S92. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement (III) – True: Evidence of marine animals dying due to plastic directly supports the need for
regulations.
S93. Ans.(b)
Sol. Statement (III) – True: This weakens the argument of businesses to continue using plastic.
S94. Ans.(a)
Statement (I) – True: Governments are taking action as mentioned in the environmentalists’ demands for
stricter regulations.
Statement (II) – True: The debate revolves around the environmental and economic implications of plastic
use.
Statement (III) – False: While many businesses are concerned about costs, it is not stated that most are
entirely against regulations.
S95. Ans.(b)
Statement (I) – True: Businesses may transfer the cost burden to consumers.
Statement (II) – True: A reduction in plastic use could have a positive environmental impact.
Statement (III) – False: The passage doesn’t suggest that alternatives will necessarily lead to reduced costs
in the long term.

S96. Ans.(c)
Sol. From Statement I and III:

Days	Persons
Monday	U
Tuesday	V
Wednesday	S
Thursday	W
Friday	R
Saturday	T

R booked movie ticket on Friday.

S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. From Statement I:

C sits immediately to the left of E

S98. Ans.(d)
Sol. From Statement I, II and III:

Words	Code
Process	my
is	op
fast	ur
systematically	vu
initiated	tv
legal	ts
matters/officials	mk/ik
slowly	mi
the/system	pi/kl

The code for process initiated is “my tv”.

S99. Ans.(b)
Sol. From Statement I and II:

S is the grandmother of M.

Solutions (100-103):
Final Arrangement is here:

S100. Ans.(c)
S101. Ans.(c)
S102. Ans.(d)
S103. Ans.(e)

S104. Ans.(d)
Sol. Using the second, fourth, sixth, and ninth letters of the word “ABANDONED” the meaningful word
formed is: BOND

Solutions (105-108):
Final Arrangement is here:
F > G > B (126Kg) > E > A > C > D

S105. Ans.(a)
S106. Ans.(c)
S107. Ans.(e)
S108. Ans.(a)

S109. Ans.(b)
Sol. Statement(I)– True – Urbanization without proper planning leads to resource overconsumption, which
is clearly mentioned in the passage.
Statement (II) – True – The passage mentions that the lack of sustainable practices is contributing to
environmental problems.
Statement (III) – False – The passage focuses on urban areas, but it does not state that rural population
increases have no impact.

S110. Ans.(a)
Sol. Statement (I) – True – The passage mentions that sustainable urban development practices are crucial
for reducing environmental degradation.
Statement (II) – False – Reducing population growth in urban areas is not suggested in the passage.
Statement (III) – False – Enhancing deforestation for urban expansion would further contribute to
environmental degradation.

S111. Ans.(c)
Sol. Statement (I) – True – The passage suggests that urbanization without planning leads to environmental issues such as pollution.
Statement (II) – True – Overconsumption of resources is a key consequence mentioned in the passage.
Statement (III) – False – The passage does not discuss better access to healthcare or education as a
consequence of unplanned urbanization.

S112. Ans.(c)
Sol. Statement (I) – False – The passage suggests that the problem still exists due to the lack of sustainable practices.
Statement (II) – True – The passage focuses on urban expansion as a cause of environmental degradation,
not rural deforestation.
Statement (III) – True – The passage implies that urbanization has increased pollution, not reduced it.

Solutions (113-115):
Final Arrangement is here:

S113. Ans.(d)
S114. Ans.(e)
S115. Ans.(d)

S116. Ans.(d)
Sol. 64376759247 = 86158537465
8+1+8+3+4+5 = 29

S117. Ans.(d)
Statement (I) – True: Higher cost of production can indeed be a factor.
Statement (II) – True: The passage mentions financial constraints and lack of infrastructure as major
obstacles.
Statement (III) – False: The passage clearly states that governments are focused on renewable energy, so
this is incorrect.

S118. Ans.(b)
Statement (I) – True: The passage emphasizes financial and infrastructure challenges.
Statement (II) – True: Investing in research and development is a logical course of action to improve
renewable energy production.
Statement (III) – False: Hybrid energy solutions are not mentioned in the passage, so we cannot assume
this.

S119. Ans.(c)
Statement(I)– True: The passage mentions the rise in renewable energy production but states that it is still
insufficient.
Statement (II) – False: Financial constraints are a major reason but not the only one; infrastructure is also
a factor.
Statement (III) – True: It is reasonable to infer that the cheaper production costs of fossil fuels contribute
to their dominance.

S120. Ans.(a)
Statement (I) – True: If renewable energy has surpassed fossil fuels in some regions, it weakens the
argument that fossil fuels dominate globally.
Statement (II) – True: The decreasing cost of renewable energy undermines the idea that financial
constraints are the primary obstacle.
Statement (III) – False: The passage focuses on financial and infrastructure challenges, not political will, so
this does not weaken the argument.