Directions (1-9): Read the following passage to answer the given question.
The ongoing intellectual property (IP) dispute between the United States and Myanmar has drawn
attention, particularly concerning trademark laws and patent rights. Myanmar’s decision to step back from international IP agreements and build its own patent system has raised concerns in the U.S., which stresses the importance of aligning with global standards for intellectual property protection.
The U.S. has voiced its apprehension over Myanmar’s withdrawal from established IP frameworks,
particularly those that support trademarks and patents. Intellectual property rights play a crucial role in
global trade and innovation. Adhering to international IP agreements is essential for countries involved in
global commerce, as it ensures the protection of businesses and inventors. The U.S. maintains that
Myanmar’s move could disrupt trade relations, complicate the protection of American business interests,
and create a less favorable environment for foreign investment.
Myanmar’s decision to create its own patent system, rather than adhering fully to global agreements like
the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), is a key point of contention. While national patent
systems are common, the U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s system might not meet international standards. This inconsistency could create barriers for U.S. businesses seeking to protect their IP in Myanmar, leading to higher costs and potential legal disputes. Furthermore, a weak IP system in Myanmar could encourage counterfeiting and undermine the protections that American companies rely on globally.
A significant legal framework relevant to this dispute is Section 103 of The Trade Marks Act, 1999, which
governs trademark protection in many countries adhering to international standards. Section 103
addresses trademark infringement, registration, and penalties for violations. It offers legal remedies like
injunctions, damages, and the seizure of infringing goods, thus safeguarding the rights of trademark
owners. The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s actions may dilute protections provided under frameworks
like Section 103, affecting the ability of U.S. companies to safeguard their trademarks in the country.
American businesses depend on legal protections such as those outlined in Section 103 to ensure their IP
is respected abroad. If Myanmar’s patent system fails to offer the same level of protection, U.S. companies
could face challenges, including legal battles and financial losses. Moreover, insufficient IP protection may
lead to an increase in counterfeit goods, harming both businesses and consumers.
The U.S. also emphasizes that Myanmar’s participation in global IP agreements is critical to its economic
development. _________________. By stepping away from international agreements and establishing
its own patent framework, Myanmar risks losing investor confidence and limiting its economic growth.
In conclusion, the ongoing intellectual property dispute between the United States and Myanmar highlights the complexities of international trade and the importance of intellectual property protections in fostering economic growth and innovation. The concerns raised by the U.S. regarding Myanmar’s decision to establish its own patent system and the potential implications for trademark protection under frameworks like Section 103 of The Trade Marks Act, 1999, underscore the need for collaboration and alignment with global IP standards.
Q1. What is the primary concern of the United States regarding Myanmar’s decision to create its own patent system?
(a) The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s patent system will result in increased taxes for American
companies, making it harder for them to conduct business in the country.
(b) The U.S. believes that it may lead to higher operational costs for U.S. businesses, as they will need to
comply with different and potentially less reliable IP protection standards.
(c) The U.S. government fears that it will make it easier for U.S. companies to register their intellectual
property without facing international scrutiny, which may reduce transparency.
(d) Myanmar’s decision could increase the likelihood of innovative goods in the market, harming American businesses and consumers globally.
(e) The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s new patent system could limit foreign investments, as it may not offer the same legal protections provided by international IP agreements.
Q2. How does the United States view the role of international intellectual property (IP) agreements
in global trade?
(a) The U.S. sees international IP agreements as useful but believes that countries like Myanmar should
have the freedom to adapt them to their national interests without significant consequences for global
trade.
(b) The U.S. views international IP agreements as a barrier to innovation, which reduces the ability of
countries to create independent IP systems.
(c) The U.S. believes that they are essential for ensuring the protection of businesses and inventors involved in global commerce, thereby safeguarding trade relations and foreign investments.
(d) The U.S. argues that international IP agreements are primarily designed to protect developing nations’
intellectual property.
(e) The U.S. maintains that international IP agreements are important, and they should be applied when
the majority of trading partners agree to adopt them simultaneously to avoid competitive disadvantages.
Q3. Why does the U.S. highlight Section 103 of The Trade Marks Act, 1999, in the context of the
dispute with Myanmar?
(a) The U.S. wants to promote Section 103 globally to ensure that all countries follow the same standards
for trademark and patent protection.
(b) The U.S. believes that Section 103 offers superior protection for U.S. businesses and should be adopted by Myanmar as part of its national patent system to avoid legal conflicts.
(c) The U.S. emphasizes Section 103 because it provides legal remedies such as injunctions, damages, and
the seizure of infringing goods, which could help American businesses to perpetuate in the longer run.
(d) The U.S. is concerned that Myanmar’s actions may dilute protections provided by frameworks like
Section 103, making it harder for U.S. companies to safeguard their trademarks in the country.
(e) The U.S. is concerned that Section 103 gives too much power to foreign businesses, undermining the competitiveness of American companies in countries like Myanmar.
Q4. What is one potential risk highlighted in the passage if Myanmar’s intellectual property
protection system does not meet international standards?
(a) U.S. businesses may benefit from reduced competition in Myanmar’s market due to less stringent IP
regulations, allowing them to operate with fewer legal restrictions and challenges from local competitors.
(b) Insufficient protection under Myanmar’s IP system could result in an influx of counterfeit goods,
negatively affecting not only U.S. businesses through financial losses but also harming consumers by
reducing the quality and reliability of available products.
(c) The lack of alignment with global IP standards may give U.S. companies an opportunity to evade
international scrutiny, allowing them to operate with more flexibility in protecting their intellectual
property.
(d) Myanmar’s patent system could encourage greater investment in the country by lowering the costs
associated with intellectual property registration and litigation, making it easier for U.S. businesses to enter
the market.
(e) A weaker IP system in Myanmar could allow U.S. businesses to dominate the market, as fewer foreign
companies will be interested in investing in a country with unreliable intellectual property protection laws.
Q5. What are the possible aftermaths of Myanmar’s withdrawal from established IP frameworks, as
mentioned in the passage?
(I) U.S. businesses may encounter legal challenges and financial setbacks due to insufficient intellectual
property protection.
(II) The prevalence of counterfeit products could rise, negatively impacting both businesses and
consumers.
(III) Myanmar’s withdrawal might lead to improved trade relations with the U.S. by fostering a more
independent national IP system.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Q6. Which of the following sentence should be used to fill the given blank?
(a) A strong IP system attracts foreign investment by securing innovations.
(b) Myanmar’s independent IP system will promote greater innovation within the country.
(c) Investor confidence is rarely influenced by intellectual property protections.
(d) Foreign companies are more likely to invest in countries with weak IP protections.
(e) Participation in international agreements ensures Myanmar’s IP system aligns with global standards.
Q7. According to the passage, how might a weak intellectual property system in Myanmar affect U.S.
companies?
(a) U.S. companies may need to collaborate with Myanmar’s government to co-develop stronger IP
protections.
(b) U.S. companies may benefit from reduced legal regulations, making it easier to operate in Myanmar.
(c) U.S. businesses may face difficulties from a surge in counterfeit products, leading to monetary losses
and a decline in brand credibility.
(d) U.S. companies may enjoy greater freedom in Myanmar due to weaker IP enforcement, allowing them
to bypass international restrictions.
(e) U.S. companies may face stricter legal penalties for failing to comply with Myanmar’s new IP system.
Q8. Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(a) Myanmar’s independent patent system will prevent foreign companies from facing legal challenges.
(b) Establishing a unique patent system may lead to more complex legal disputes for foreign businesses.
(c) Countries with strong IP protection experience higher levels of IP violations.
(d) A strong IP protection system has no impact on a country’s economic losses from intellectual property
violations.
(e) Foreign businesses will prefer to invest in countries with weaker IP protection systems.
Q9. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following would most likely
occur if Myanmar continues to deviate from international IP agreements and implements its own
independent patent system?
(a) Myanmar will see an increase in foreign investments due to its unique IP framework.
(b) U.S. companies may find it easier to protect their intellectual property in Myanmar.
(c) Myanmar’s move could encourage other countries to follow suit and establish their own patent systems.
(d) Foreign companies may face difficulties in protecting their trademarks and patents in Myanmar,
potentially leading to economic and legal disputes.
(e) Counterfeit goods will decline as Myanmar establishes its independent patent system.
Directions (10-11): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below
Q10. (A) The scheme is designed to offer a balanced solution, ensuring both retirees’ financial security and
the government’s fiscal responsibility.
(B) The Unified Pension Scheme seeks to merge different pension systems into a single, streamlined
structure.
(C) This approach addresses employees’ demands for higher pensions while safeguarding the
government’s capacity to finance the program.
(D) Additionally, the unified structure aims to lower administrative expenses and promote a more equitable
distribution of pension benefits.
(a) CDBA
(b) BACD
(c) BDAC
(d) CBDA
(e) BADC
Q11. (A) Hydropower projects are often promoted as a renewable energy source that can help meet the growing demand for electricity.
(B) However, these projects can have significant environmental impacts, such as altering river ecosystems and displacing communities.
(C) Striking a balance between energy generation and environmental protection is crucial to ensure sustainable development.
(D) The challenge lies in developing hydropower responsibly, while minimizing harm to ecosystems and local populations.
(a) CDBA
(b) ABCD
(c) ABDC
(d) CBDA
(e) ACDB
Directions (12-14): In the provided questions, an idiom is presented, followed by three statements.
Identify the statements that correctly use the given idiom.
Q12. Taken aback
(A) She was taken aback by the sudden news of her promotion and couldn’t believe it.
(B) He took a step back and was taken aback to get a better view of the painting.
(C) They were taken aback by the strong wind as they walked along the beach.
(a) Both A & C
(b) Only A
(c) Both B & C
(d) Only C
(e) All A, B, C
Q13. Back in the saddle
(A) After recovering from her injury, the sportswoman was back in the saddle, training harder than ever.
(B) After the meeting, she was back in the saddle, enjoying her vacation by the beach.
(C) After taking a long break, she decided to get back in the saddle and start painting again.
(a) Both A & B
(b) Only C
(c) Both A & C
(d) Only B
(e) All A, B, C
Q14. Keep the ball rolling
(A) Despite the setback, the leader motivated everyone to keep the ball rolling and not lose focus on the
final goal.
(B) After gaining the initial investment, the entrepreneur worked hard to keep the ball rolling by seeking
more funding.
(C) The coach told the team to keep the ball rolling after they scored the first goal to secure the win.
(a) Only A
(b) Both A & B
(c) Both B & C
(d) All A, B, C
(e) Only C
Directions (15-17): In each of the questions given below few words are given in bold. These words
may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the
correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should be
interchanged.
Q15. Sampoornata Abhiyan is an initiative empowerment (A) at promoting education (B) development
and aimed (C) through holistic (D), skill-building, and community welfare programs, particularly (E) in
underprivileged areas.
(a) A-E
(b) A-E & B-C
(c) B-C
(d) A-C & B-D
(e) No interchange required
Q16. The National Financial Reporting Authority ensures the quality (A) of financial regulating (B) by
reporting (C) and overseeing audit practices, financial (D) transparency and accountability in promoting
(E) statements.
(a) B-C & D-E
(b) A-C
(c) D-E
(d) B-D & C-E
(e) No interchange required
Q17. Tarang Shakti-2024 challenges (A) on improving strategic defense (B) capabilities and fostering
collaboration between address (C) forces to armed (D) evolving security focuses (E).
(a) B-D and A-C
(b) A-D
(c) A-E
(d) A-E & C-D
(e) No interchange required
Directions (18-19): In the following question, identify the statement which is grammatically and
contextually correct.
Q18. (i) The books on the shelves in the library are organized by genre, making them easier to locate.
(ii) The proposal was submitted by email to the supervisor, who reviewed it carefully before giving
feedback.
(iii) Hardly the meeting had begun when the fire alarm sounded, causing everyone to evacuate the building.
(a) only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All are correct
Q19. (i) She is working tirelessly though the night to finish the project by the deadline on Friday.
(ii) Seldom have we witnessed such an incredible performance, captivating the audience from beginning to
end.
(ii) The list of items for the event, including decorations and food, has been finalized by the team.
(a) only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All are correct
Directions (20-21): In the following questions, identify the statement that is grammatically
incorrect.
Q20. (i) Each of the participants brought his/her own materials, ensuring that the workshop ran smoothly and
without interruptions.
(ii) Neither of the candidates have revealed his/her full agenda, but both promise significant reforms if
elected.
(iii) Either the teacher or the students is responsible for ensuring the room is left clean after class.
(a) only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All are incorrect
Q21. (a) Not only the team completed the task ahead of time, but they also exceeded expectations.
(b) The quality of the products and the level of customer service have greatly improved since the new
management.
(c) Anybody who wants to participate must submit his/her application by Friday, as late entries will not be
accepted.
(a) only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All are incorrect
Directions (22-24): In the following question, two sentence are provided. Choose the most suitable
connector to adjoin the sentences to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
Q22. (A) There are numerous challenges, including budget constraints, tight deadlines, and unexpected technical
difficulties.
(B) the project team managed to deliver an innovative solution that exceeded the client’s expectations.
(i) Despite facing numerous challenges
(ii) Given that the project team (iii) Even if the challenges
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All (i) (ii) (iii)
Q23. (A) There has been a vast array of technological advancements available today.
(B) Companies must continuously update their processes and systems to stay ahead in an ever-evolving
digital landscape.
(i) With the advent of continuous update
(ii) Considering the vast array of
(iii) Given the wide range of
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All (i) (ii) (iii)
Q24. (A) The government pushed forward with its reform plans in the face of intense public scrutiny.
(B) The government remained determined to bring about change.
(i) In light of widespread criticism,
(ii) In the face of intense public scrutiny,
(iii) Amid growing criticism,
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All (i) (ii) (iii)
Q25. In the event to _ the manager the subordinates stand outside the ___ to bring the
manager decision in their favor.
(I) Porch
(II) Lobby
(III) Sway
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Only (III)
Q26. While she was working, she heard a sudden _ of inspiration outside, which was caused by
the __ of light from the night star.
(I) Burst
(II) Blare
(III) Flash
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Both (I) and (III)
Q27. The philosopher endeavored to _ the abstruse concepts during his lecture, though it proved
arduous to _ them without simplifying the intricate details.
(I) Elucidate
(II) Actuate
(III) Mandate
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) Only (III)
Q28. The diplomat sought to _ tensions between the two nations, hoping to _ a peaceful
resolution to the long-standing conflict.
(I) Alleviate
(II) Mitigate
(III) Ameliorate
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Only (III)
Q29. The lawyer sought to _ the witness’s testimony by questioning the inconsistencies, aiming to
_ the credibility of the opposing argument.
(I) Undermine
(II) Challenge
(III) Sinuate
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Only (II).
Q30. In each of the given question five sentences are given in which one is not coherent with others.
Choose the incoherent statement as your answer.
(a) Participating in recreational sports can improve physical health by promoting regular exercise and
active movement.
(b) Many people find that exercising in groups enhances their social bonds and reduces feelings of isolation.
(c) Regular health checkups and medical screenings are essential for preventing chronic diseases.
(d) Group fitness activities often help individuals stay motivated and consistent in their fitness goals.
(e) Engaging in physical activities with friends or in a community setting can reduce stress and increase
emotional well-being.
Directions (31-34): There are some series given below and each series contains one wrong term.
Find out the wrong term from each series.
Q31. 8, 111, 231, 376, 546, 743, 969
(a) 546
(b) 969
(c) 8
(d) 111
(e) 231
Q32. 100, 240, 480, 1344, 4300.8, 15482.88, 61931.52
(a) 240
(b) 61931.52
(c) 15482.88
(d) 1344
(e) 100
Q33. 2, 338, 548, 668, 728, 751, 758
(a) 2
(b) 338
(c) 751
(d) 668
(e) 758
Q34. 309, 516, 932, 1764, 3428, 6756, 13412
(a) 1764
(b) 309
(c) 516
(d) 6756
(e) 932
Q35. There are two numbers A and B, while A is 33.33% less than
B. The product of LCM and HCF of A and B is 294.
Quantity I: 450
Quantity II: LCM of (6A – 20) and (3B – 7)
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Q36. Rohit spends 40% of his monthly income on rent, 1/3rd of the remaining he spends on
groceries. He invested the remaining income in three different schemes A, B and C in the ratio of 2 :
3 : 5 respectively. The difference between amount invested in scheme B and C is Rs 4000.
Quantity I: Find the difference between Rohit monthly income and amount invested in scheme C.
Quantity II: 60000 Rs
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Q37. A and B entered into a business with investment of Rs P & Rs P+ 5000 respectively. After four
months, A withdrew 40% of his initial investment and C joined the business with investment of Rs 6000 . At the end of a year, the total profit is Rs 17150 and C received 60/343th of the total profit.
Find the profit share of B (in Rs.)?
(a) 9750
(b) 9970
(c) 9670
(d) 9550
(e) 9250
Q38. An amount of Rs P invested in scheme A on compound interest at rate of 20% p.a. and same
amount invested in scheme B on simple interest at rate of 20% p.a. At the end of two years, the
difference between interest received from both schemes is Rs 260.
Quantity I: If Rs 3P/4 is invested at rate of 6% p.a. for four years in simple interest, then find the interest
received.
Quantity II: 1100 Rs
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Q39. Riya has an amount of Rs 6X and she invested 1/3rd of amount in two different schemes A and
B in the ratio of 1 : 7 respectively. From remaining, she paid Rs 2100 to her maid and remaining Rs
P he invested in post office. If X : P = 3 : 5, then which of the following statement/s is or are correct?
I. Amount invested in scheme B is more than the amount invested in post office.
II. Amount spend on maid is more than the amount spend on scheme A
III. Amount invested in scheme B equal to Amount spend on maid
(a) All I, II and III
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Only III
(e) Both I and III
Q40. There is a right cylindrical vessel filled 75% of its capacity, which is equal to _ cm3. The breadth of a rectangle is 10 cm more than the height and length of the rectangle is 4 cm more than the radius of the cylindrical vessel. The curved surface area of the cylindrical vessel is _ cm2. Find
which of the following value/s is or are come in the blank place. (Note: The curved surface area of
the cylindrical vessel is greater than twice the area of the rectangle)
I. 1155, 440
II. 3696, 704
III. 1386, 528
(a) All I, II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Only III
(e) Both II and III
Q41. Speed of a car is X km/hr and speed of a bus is twice of the speed of the car. The car starts from
point A at 10 am and reached point B at 17 pm, while bus starts from point A to reach point B and it
covers (672+2X) km in 3 hours. If speed of the car decreased by 25%, then, then find how much
more time the car will take to reach point B (The car halt two times each for 5 minutes)?
(a) 2 hours 40 minutes
(b) 2 hours 35 minutes
(c) 2 hours 30 minutes
(d) 2 hours 10 minutes
(e) 2 hours 05 minutes
Q42. The ratio of speed of a boatin stillwater and speed of stream is 4 : 1 respectively. The difference
between time taken by the boat to cover D km downstream and upstream is 10 hours. (Note: Speed
of the stream is 5 km/hr)
Quantity I: Find time taken by the boat to cover D-75 km downstream
Quantity II: Time taken by the to cover (D+45) km upstream
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Directions (43-48): Read the information carefully and answer the questions below.
There are three companies X, Y and Z. Total number of type A pencil manufactured is 40% less than total
number of type B pencils manufactured by all three companies. The ratio of total number of type B pencils manufactured by Z to total number of type B pencil manufactured by all three companies is 3 : 10. The number of type A pencils manufacture by X is equal to total number of pencils manufactured by Y. The number of type A pencils manufactured by Z and Y are equal. Total number of pencils manufactured by X are half of the total number of pencils manufacture by all three companies together.
Note: Total pencils manufactured by any company = (type A + type B) pencils manufactured
Q43. If difference between total number of type B pencils manufactured by X and Y are 300, then
find the sum of total number of type B pencils manufactured by Z and type A pencils manufactured
by X.
(a) 2400
(b) 1900
(c) 1675
(d) 1050
(e) 2100
Q44. The average number of type B pencils manufactured by X and Z is 1050. If total number of
pencils manufactured by N is 25% more than that of X, then find the difference between sum of type
B pencil manufactured by Z and number of type A pencils manufactured by Y and total number of
pencils manufactured by N.
(a) 1500
(b) 900
(c) 1600
(d) 1800
(e) 1200
Q45. Total number of pencils manufactured in M are equal four times of the total type A pencils
manufactured by X and Z together. If difference between total pencils manufactured by M and total
type B pencils manufactured by all three companies are 2000, then find total number of pencils
manufactured by all three companies.
(a) 1200
(b) 1600
(c) 3200
(d) 3000
(e) 3600
Q46. Find the ratio of type B pencils manufactured by Y to total pencils manufactured by Z.
(a) 3:4
(b) 1:9
(c) 1:5
(d) 4:3
(e) 2:1
Q47. Type B pencils manufactured by all is A% of type A pencils manufactured by X. Find A.
(a) 240
(b) 250
(c) 175
(d) 105
(e) 210
Q48. If the difference between type B pencils manufactured by Y and type A pencils manufactured
by Z is D, then D is what percentage of type B pencils manufactured by Z.
(a) 66.66
(b) 33.33
(c) 25
(d) CND
(e) None of these
Q49. Find the roots of the given equations and answer the following question.
I. 2𝑥
2 − 11𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0
II. 2𝑦
2 − 15𝑦 + 𝑞 = 0
Note: (i) one of the roots of equation (I) is 2
(ii) one of the roots of equation (II) is three times the smaller root of equation (I)
Find the product of p and q.
(a) 242
(b) 262
(c) 252
(d) 212
(e) 272
Q50. The cost price of a product is Rs Y, and it is marked 60% above its cost price. If a retailer offers
a 25% discount on the product and earns a profit of Rs 40.
Quantity I: Find the marked price of the product (in Rs).
Quantity II: If cost price of an article is equal to selling price of the product and the article sold at 33.33%
profit, then find the selling price of the article.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Direction (51–55): The table given below shows the total number of utensils (Glass and Plats) sold
by four shops, percentage of glasses sold and number of plats sold by these four shops (A, B, C and
D). Some values are missing in the tables, which you have to calculate if required. Read the table
carefully and answer the questions.
| Shops | Total utensils (Glass and Plats) sold | Percentage of glass sold | Number of plats sold |
| A | 968 | 50% | |
| B | 65% | ||
| C | 44% | 504 | |
| D | 900 |
Q51. In shop D, the percentage range of number of glasses sold within 8 <X< 30 and X is an odd place
multiple of 8. Find the number of plats sold by shop D?
(a) 684
(b) 620
(c) 630
(d) 636
(e) 624
Q52. The number of plats sold by B is 146 more than three times of the difference between total
number of utensils (Glass and Plats) sold by A and D. Find the sum of total number of utensils (Glass
and Plats) sold by C and the number of glasses sold by B?
(a) 1518
(b) 1520
(c) 1530
(d) 1536
(e) 1550
Q53.Ifthe total number utensils (Glass and Plats) sold in Y is 200% more than the number of glasses
sold by A and the number of plats sold by Y is 3/4th of the total number of utensils (Glass and Plats)
sold by the shop, then find the sum of total number of glasses sold by Y and C together?
(a) 829
(b) 719
(c) 789
(d) 759
(e) 729
Q54. If the total number glasses sold by B is 414 less than the average number of total number of
utensils (Glass and Plats) sold by A and D, then find total number of plats sold by shop B?
(a) 180
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 280
(e) 240
Q55. If the average of total number of utensils (Glass and Plats) sold by all four shops is 822, then
find the number plats sold by shop B?
(a) 186
(b) 180
(c) 188
(d) 196
(e) 182
Directions (56-60): The bar graph given below shows percentage of people (male +female) not
attended the seminar out of the total people in the city and percentage of male attended the seminar
out of the total people attended the seminar from four different (A, B, C and D) cities. Read the graph
carefully and answer the questions.
Note: Total people in a city = People (male + female) attending the seminar + people (male + females) not attending the seminar. People attending/not attending the seminar = males + females
Blue: Percentage of people not attending the seminar ; Orange: Percentage of male attending the seminar
Q56. Total females attending the seminar from A is 1800 and total males not attending the seminar
from B is 600. If the ratio of total males not attending the seminar from B to total people not
attending the seminar from B is 3 : 10, then find total people in A are what percent more than total
people in B.
(a) 5%
(b) 30%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
(e) 10%
Q57. The ratio of total males not attending the seminar from B to people not attending the seminar
from B is 2 : 5. Total females attending the seminar from B is 2880 and total females not attending
the seminar from C are 384 more than total males attending the seminar from same city. If total
females not attending the seminar from C is 42% less than people not attended the seminar from C,
then find the difference between males not attended the seminar from company B and C.
(a) 524
(b) 512
(c) (83 + 12)
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) 564
Q58. If females attended the seminar from D is 2250 and the ratio of total females not attended the
seminar to total males not attended the seminar is 7 : 3, then find difference between total females
not attended the seminar and total males not attended the seminar from D.
(a) 1100
(b) 2000
(c) 2200
(d) 1800
(e) 2400
Q59. If difference between total male and females attended the seminar from A is 1200 and total
females attended the seminar from D is 2700, then find the ratio of total people not attended the
seminar from D to total number of people in A.
(a) 11 : 9
(b) 11 : 10
(c) 11 : 8
(d) 11 : 7
(e) 13 : 11
Q60.If the ratio of total people in A to tha tin C is 2 : 3 and difference between total females attending
the seminar from both cities is 4440,then find average number of males attending the seminar from
both the cites.
(a) 2980
(b) 2180
(c) 2780
(d) 2280
(e) 2580
Q61. Who among the following lives on second floor and wants to visit which country?
(a) D, Norway
(b) B, Norway
(c) D, Italy
(d) The one who likes Pineapple, Brazil
(e) A, Brazil
Q62. How many floors are there between the one who likes Guava and D?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Four
Q63. Which among the following combination is correct?
(a) D – Pineapple, Italy
(b) E –Guava, Chile
(c) B – Grapes, Norway
(d) E – Mango, Japan
(e) None of these
Q64. Who among the following lives four floors above A, likes which fruit and wants to visit which
country?
(a) F – Watermelon, Chile
(b) E – Guava, Japan
(c) E – Mango, Italy
(d) C – Mango, Canada
(e) E – Watermelon, Japan
Q65. The number of floors above the floor in which the person who wants to visit Chile lives is four
less than the number of floors below the floor in which the person who wants to visit _______lives.
(a) Canada
(b) Norway
(c) Italy
(d) Japan
(e) Brazil
Directions (66-70): A number and word arrangement machine when given an inputline of numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
an input &its rearrangement.
Input: 65 of story 47 rooted 32 simplicity 82 the 93
Step 1: simplicity 65 of story 47 rooted 82 the 93 43
Step 2: rooted simplicity 65 of story 82 the 93 43 36
Step 3: story rooted simplicity of 82 the 93 43 36 54
Step 4: the story rooted simplicity of 93 43 36 54 93
Step 5: of the story rooted simplicity 36 43 54 93 82
Step 6: of the story rooted simplicity 36 43 54 82 93
Step 6 is the last step of the above input as per the rules followed in the above steps. As per the above
rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
Input: speed 56 bike 23 increasing 34 of 49 rapidly 76
Q66. How many elements are between 67 and bike in Step 5?
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Q67. Which among the following number is present in Step 5?
(a) 23
(b) 36
(c) 46
(d) 34
(e) 87
Q68. What is the sum of second number and fourth number from the right end in Step 6?
(a) 104
(b) 110
(c) 105
(d) 114
(e) 94
Q69. Which element is present fourth to the left of third element from the right end in Step 4?
(a) of
(b) 76
(c) rapidly
(d) increasing
(e) None of these
Q70. How many words are there to the right of the word bike in Step 3?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Four
Directions (71-75): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – sit around a square-shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners
face inside and the remaining four persons sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each of the person
who sits at the corners has a different favourite flower: Lily, Rose, Tulip, and Carnation. Each of the person
who sits at the middle of the sides of the table has a different favourite fruit: Mango, Banana, Apple and
Guava. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. H doesn’t sits at corners. G sits third to the left of C. One person sits between the one who likes Guava and C. The one who likes Guava sits immediately to the right of A. B sits opposite to G. The one who likes Carnation sits second to the right of A. E sits third to the left of the one who likes Rose. Two persons sit between the ones who likes Banana and Carnation. A is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Banana. The one who likes Banana sits opposite to E. Two persons sits between the ones who like Rose and Apple. D sits third to the right of the one who likes Apple. G doesn’t like lily. H doesn’t like Banana and Mango.
Q71. Who among the following persons sits opposite to the person who likes Apple?
(a) The one who likes Guava
(b) The one who likes Mango
(c) F
(d) D
(e) None of these
Q72. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Three persons sit between the ones who like carnation and Mango.
(b) D is not an immediate neighour of the one who likes Banana.
(c) The one who likes Lily sits fourth to the right of C.
(d) E and G are immediate neighbours
(e) D face inside.
Q73. Who among the following persons sits fifth to the left of D?
(a) C
(b) The one who likes Mango
(c) The one who sits second to the right of the one who likes Guava.
(d) The one who likes Tulip
(e) None of these
Q74. Four of the following five are in the same group, who among the following does not belong to
that group?
(a) H
(b) G
(c) F
(d) E
(e) C
Q75. What is the position of the person who likes Carnation with respect to the person who likes
Mango?
(a) Immediate left
(b) Sixth to the left
(c) Fifth to the right
(d) Seventh to the left
(e) Seventh to the right
Q76. If in the given word “MALNOURISHED”if allthe vowels are replaced with the succeeding letters
and all the consonants are replaced with the preceding letter then all the letters are arranged in
reverse alphabetical order from left end then find how many letters are there between fourth letter
from right end and third letter from the left end according to English Alphabetical order?
(a) Ten
(b) Nine
(c) Eight
(d) Five
(e) Six
Directions (77-81): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – were born in seven different years: 1972, 1975, 1976, 1982, 1987,
1993 and 2005, but not necessarily in the same order. Each person has purchased a different thing: Keys,
Chains, Locks, Pins, Stapler, Locket and Glass. Their ages are counted as in the year 2024. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.
The one who was born in leap year purchased stapler. One person was born between the one who was born in leap year and T. The number of persons born before the one who purchased stapler is one more than the number of persons born after the one who purchased Pins. More than two persons were born between T and S who was born two persons before P. The one whose age is a prime number purchased Locket but that person is not the youngest person. More than two persons were born between the one who purchases Stapler and the one who purchased Glass. U is 7 years elder to Q. As many persons were born before U as after V. R doesn’t purchased Glass. The Chains was purchased by the person who was born five persons before V. The one whose age is an odd number doesn’t purchased Keys.
Q77. Who among the following person purchased Locks and what was the age of that person?
(a) U – 48
(b) Q – 42
(c) S – 37
(d) U – 49
(e) S – 52
Q78. In which year was the person who purchased S was born and what was the thing that S
purchased?
(a) 1982, Locket
(b) 1987, Lock
(c) 1975, Keys
(d) 1987, Locket
(e) 1982, Keys
Q79. How many persons were born between T and the person who purchased Pins?
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Five
Q80. What is the difference between the ages of the one who purchased Glass and R?
(a) 12
(b) None of these
(c) 30
(d) 23
(e) 29
Q81. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way and related to a group, which among the
following does not belong to that group?
(a) V
(b) P
(c) T
(d) U
(e) S
Directions (82-84): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
below:
Ipshita started walking from Point A in the west direction for 3m and reached Point B. From Point I, she
turned left and walked 7m and reached Point R. From Point R, she turned right and walked for 5m and
reached Point K. From Point B, she turned right and walked 7m and reached Point C. From Point C, she
turned left and walked for 8m and reached Point D. From Point F she turned right and walked for 7m and reached Point G. From Point D, Ipshita turned right and walked for 9m and reached Point E. From Point E, she turned right again and walked for 7m and reached Point F. From Point G she turned left and walked for 4m and reached Point I. From Point K, she turned right and walked for 5m and reached Point L. From Point H she turned right and walked for 5m and reached Point O. From Point A, she turned left and walked for 3m and reached Point H.
Q82. In which direction is Point L with respect to Point G?
(a) North-west
(b) South-west
(c) North-east
(d) East
(e) North
Q83. What is the shortest distance between Point I and Point H?
(a) 11m
(b) 10m
(c) 8m
(d) 6m
(e) 12m
Q84. Four of the following five are in the same group. Which among the following does not belong
to that group?
(a) I-F
(b) C-G
(c) O-D
(d) H-E
(e) F-R
Directions (85-88): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In recent years, the Government of India launched several social welfare schemes aimed at providing direct financial assistance to the poor. One such scheme focused on depositing subsidies directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries, which reduced the dependency on intermediaries. While many appreciated the transparency and efficiency of the scheme, a few argued that it left out those without access to banking facilities, especially in remote areas.
Q85. Which of the following could be a reason for some people not supporting the scheme? (I) Lack
of banking facilities in remote and rural areas.
(II) The scheme involved the use of complex technology that many rural people were not familiar with.
(III) The scheme caused delays in the distribution of funds in some areas.
(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only I
(e) All of the above
Q86. Which of the following can be assumed from the above statement?
(I) The scheme helped in reducing corruption and the role of intermediaries in subsidies.
(II) A considerable portion of the rural population was left out of the benefits of the scheme.
(III) People living in urban areas benefited more from the scheme.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only I
(e) All of the above
Q87. Which of the following could challenge the effectiveness of the scheme?
(I) A report showed that many beneficiaries still relied on local agents to access their funds.
(II) The majority of people in rural areas did not have mobile phones, making it hard to use online banking
services.
(III) A significant number of transactions were delayed due to technical glitches in the system.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only III
(e) All of the above
Q88. Which of the following supports the motive behind the scheme?
(I) A large percentage of beneficiaries reported receiving their subsidies on time without any hassle.
(II) The number of people opening bank accounts in rural areas increased significantly after the scheme
was launched.
(III) The scheme contributed to an increase in transparency in government subsidies distribution.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II and III
(e) All of the above
Directions (89-91): Each question consists of two conclusions followed by some statements.
Consider the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the following statements is true
for given conclusions.
Q89. Conclusions:
I. All Silver is Chain.
II. Some Keys are not Lock.
Statements:
(a) Some Silver are Lock. No Lock is Chain. Some Keys are not Chain.
(b) Only a few Silver are Lock. Some Chain are Lock. Some Keys are Lock.
(c) All Silver are Keys. All Keys are Chain. No Silver is Lock.
(d) Every Lock is Chain. Some Silver are Lock. Some Chain are Keys.
(e) No Lock is Chain. No Lock is Silver. All Keys are Chain.
Q90. Conclusions:
I. Some Necklace being Earring is a possibility.
II. No Earring is Ring.
Statements:
(a) No Earring is Bracelet. All Bracelet are Necklace. Each Ring is Necklace.
(b) Only a few Necklace are Bracelet. Some Bracelet are Ring. All Ring are Earring.
(c) All Ring are Earring. No Earring are Necklace. Each Necklace is Bracelet.
(d) All Earring are Bracelet. Some Ring are Necklace. No Bracelet is Ring.
(e) Some Earring are not Necklace. Some Earring are Ring. No Ring is Bracelet.
Q91. Conclusions:
I. Some Speakers are Headphones.
II. All Phones are Air Pods.
Statements:
(a) Some Air Pods are Phones. All Headphones are Air Pods. No Phones are Speakers.
(b) A few Headphones are Speakers. No Air Pods are Headphones. Some Headphones are Phones.
(c) Some Headphones are not Speakers. Some Air Pods are Phones. All Phones are Speakers.
(d) Only a few Speakers are Phones. All Phones are Headphones. Mostly Air Pods are Speakers.
(e) Each Phones are Speakers. Each Speakers are Air Pods. Some Phones are Headphones.
Directions (92-95): In a recent debate, there have been growing concerns about the increasing use
of plastic and its impact on the environment. Environmentalists are urging the government to
impose strict regulations on plastic production and usage, citing the harmful effects of plastic waste
on ecosystems. Many businesses, however, argue that plastic is essential for packaging and that
alternatives may increase costs for consumers.
Q92. Which of the following strengthens the argument of environmentalists advocating for strict
regulations on plastic?
(I) The rate of plastic recycling in many countries is less than 30%.
(II) Plastic alternatives, like biodegradable materials, are currently expensive but are more eco-friendly.
(III) Many species of marine animals have been found with plastic waste in their stomachs, leading to their
deaths.
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only III
(e) All of the above
Q93. Which of the following weakens the businesses’ argument for continued use of plastic?
(I)Governments across the world are offering subsidies for the development of plastic alternatives.
(II) Consumers are becoming more eco-conscious and are willing to pay higher prices for sustainable
products.
(III) Plastic is still the most durable and cost-effective packaging material available.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only III
(c) Only I
(d) Only II and III
(e) None of these
Q94. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(I) Governments are concerned about plastic waste and are taking
action.
(II) The debate over plastic is primarily about balancing
environmental impact and economic cost. (III) Most businesses are
against any form of regulation on plastic use.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only III
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II
(e) All of the above
Q95. What may be the consequences of imposing strict regulations on plastic production?
(I) Businesses may pass on the increased cost of alternatives to consumers.
(II) The reduction in plastic waste could significantly improve oceanic ecosystems.
(III) There may be a reduction in the overall packaging costs in the long run as more alternatives are
developed.
(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II
(e) All of the above
Directions (96-99): In each of the following questions, a few statements have been given. Analyze
the given statements and answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question.
Q96. Six persons – R, S, T, U, V and W book movie tickets for six different days starting from Monday
to Saturday, but not necessarily in the same order. R booked movie tickets on which day?
Statement I: Two persons booked movie tickets between U and W. V booked a movie ticket after U. S and
V booked movie tickets adjacent to each other.
StatementII: More than one person booked a movie ticket between U and T. R booked a movie ticket before S.
Statement III: T booked a movie ticket two persons after W. T booked movie ticket after U. V booked a
movie ticket before S.
(a) If statement I alone is sufficient
(b) If both statements I and statement II are sufficient
(c) If both statements I and statement III are sufficient
(d) If statement I, II &III together are sufficient
(e) If only statement II is sufficient
Q97. Six persons- A, B, C, D, E and F sit on a circular-shaped table, but not necessarily in the same
order. All of them face towards the centre. What is the position of C with respect to E?
Statement I: B sits second to the right of D. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.
Statement II: B sits second to the right of A who is not an immediate neighbour of C.
Statement III: One person sits between A and E who is not an immediate neighbour of D.
(a) If statement I alone is sufficient
(b) If both statements II and statement III are sufficient
(c) If both statements I and statement III are sufficient
(d) If statement I, II &III together are sufficient
(e) If only statement II is sufficient
Q98. In a certain coded language what is code for the word ‘process initiated’?
Statement I: In a certain coded language “process is fast” is coded as “my op ur” and “systematically
initiated” is coded as “tv yu”
Statement II: In a certain coded language “legal initiated” is coded as “ts tv” and “the fast system” is coded
as “pi kl ur”
Statement III: In a certain coded language “process slowly” is coded as “my mi” and “official matters” is
coded as “ik mk”
(a) If statement I alone is sufficient
(b) If both statements I and statement II are sufficient
(c) If both statements I and statement III are sufficient
(d) If statement I, II &III together are sufficient
(e) If only statement II is sufficient
Q99. In a family of eight persons – M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T. No single parent is there in this three generation family. How is S related to M?
Statement I: S is married to N. P is the sister of T. Q is the son-in-law of O.
Statement II: N is the father of P. R is the brother of P. O and T are married. T is the mother of M.
Statement III: N is the wife of S. Q is the daughter of O.
(a) If statement I alone is sufficient
(b) If both statements I and statement II are sufficient
(c) If both statements I and statement III are sufficient
(d) If statement I, II &III together are sufficient
(e) If only statement II is sufficient
Directions (100-103): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north and they are from different cities. E sits sixth
to the right of the person who is from Pune. Two persons sit between the ones who are from Mumbai and
Kanpur. The one who is from Kanpur sits immediately to the right of S. Two persons sit between the one
who is from Kanpur and E. W sits fourth from left of S. Three persons sits between P and W who is from
Delhi. P sits third from one of the ends. Q is from Lucknow. The number of persons sit between P and E is
same as the number of persons sit between the ones who are from Mumbai and Lucknow. The one who is
from Lucknow sits to the right of the one who is from Mumbai. Q sits third to the left of V who sits at one of the extreme ends. The one who sits immediate left of O is from Kolkata. O sits third to the left of Q and is from Kanpur. The one who sits sixth to the right of O is from Banaras.
Q100. Which of the following combination is correct?
(a) S – Mumbai
(b) S – Pune
(c) V – Banaras
(d) E – Pune
(e) E – Banaras
Q101. How many persons sit in this row?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 18
(d) 19
(e) None of these
Q102. What is the position of E with respect to the person from Banaras?
(a) Ninth to the right
(b) Eighth to the left
(c) Thirteenth to the left
(d) Ninth to the left
(e) Tenth to the left
Q103. Which of the following statements is/are false?
I. O sits to the right of V
II. Three persons sit between E and S.
III. P is not from Pune
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and II
(e) All I, II and III
Q104. In the word “ABANDONED”, if we use the second, fourth, sixth, and ninth letters from the left
end, then which of the following will be the first letter from the right end of the meaningful word
thus formed. If more than one such meaningful word is formed mark X as your answer. If no
meaningful word is formed, mark Z as your answer?
(a) B
(b) Z
(c) X
(d) D
(e) N
Directions (105-108): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are comparing their weights in decreasing order from left to right, but not necessarily in the same order. E is heavier than C who is lighter than A. Less than three persons are lighter than A. C is heavier than D. More than two persons weigh between D and G. G is heavier than B who is lighter than F. F is heavier than E. B is heavier than E. G is not the heaviest person. The one who weighs immediately more than E weigh 126Kg.
Q105. Who among the following is the third heaviest?
(a) B
(b) G
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Q106. How many persons weigh between F and A?
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Q107. If the sum of weights of B and C is 170Kg and the sum of weights C and A is 104Kg then what
is the possible weight of E?
(a) 102Kg
(b) 56Kg
(c) 72Kg
(d) 130 Kg
(e) Either 72Kg or 102 Kg
Q108. How many persons weigh more than C?
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Six
Directions (109-112): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it.
The increasing rate of urbanization across the world has brought significant changes to the environment. Deforestation, pollution, and a rising level of greenhouse gases have been some of the major outcomes of this shift towards urban living. Many experts suggest that the lack of proper planning and sustainable practices in urban development is responsible for a large share of these problems. Additionally, the surge in population in urban areas has led to overconsumption of resources, contributing further to environmental degradation. The United Nations has emphasized that it is essential for governments to integrate sustainable strategies to manage urban growth and mitigate its adverse effects on the environment.
Q109. What could be inferred as one of the main reasons for environmental degradation according
to the passage?
(I) Urbanization without proper planning has led to resource overconsumption.
(II) Governments around the world have failed to implement sustainable practices in urban areas.
(III) The increase in population in rural areas has no impact on environmental issues.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only III
(e) All of the above
Q110. Which of the following actions could be recommended to alleviate the environmental
degradation mentioned in the passage?
(I) Implementing sustainable urban development practices.
(II) Reducing the population growth rate in urban areas.
(III) Enhancing deforestation measures to make way for more urban expansion.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only III
(e) All of the above
Q111. Which of the following can be inferred as a major consequence of unplanned urbanization?
(I) Increase in pollution levels in urban areas.
(II) Overconsumption of natural resources.
(III) Better access to healthcare and education.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only III
(e) All of the above
Q112. Which of the following negates the inference drawn in the passage?
(I) Urban areas have become more sustainable over the last decade due to government efforts.
(II) The primary cause of environmental degradation is rural deforestation rather than urban expansion.
(III) Urbanization has reduced the amount of pollution worldwide by promoting technological
advancements.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only III
Directions (113-115): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In a family of nine persons – D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L there is no single parent and three married couples in the family. I is the daughter of J who is the brother of E. G is the brother-in-law of E. H is daughter of F who is the wife of D. D is the brother-in-law of L. H is the sister of E. E is the brother-in-law of K. L is the sister in-law of D.
Q113. How is I related to D?
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Grandson
(d) Granddaughter
(e) None of these
Q114. Who among the following is the daughter-in-law of D?
(a) H
(b) J
(c) None of these
(d) I
(e) K
Q115. If T is married to L, then how many male members are there in the family?
(a) Six
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Five
(e) None of these
Q116. In the number ‘64376759247’, if all the even digits are added by 2 and all the odd digits are
subtracted by 2. Find the sum of the digits which are placed at odd positions in the new number
formed after rearrangement?
(a) 17
(b) 27
(c) 28
(d) 29
(e) 24
Directions (117-120): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Governments across the world have been focusing on the development of renewable energy sources
to combat the ever-growing threat of climate change. Despite these efforts, fossil fuels continue to
dominate the energy sector, contributing to increased carbon emissions. According to a report by
the Global Energy Institute, renewable energy production has seen a steady rise but remains
insufficient to meet the global energy demand. Additionally, financial constraints and the lack of
infrastructure in developing countries are major obstacles in the transition to cleaner energy.
Q117. Which of the following reasons can be inferred as to why fossil fuels continue to dominate the
energy sector?
(I) The cost of production of renewable energy is significantly higher than fossil fuels.
(II) Financial constraints and lack of infrastructure hinder the transition to renewable energy, especially in
developing countries.
(III) Governments are not focused on combating climate change, which allows fossil fuels to dominate.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only I and II
(e) All of the above
Q118. What should developing countries focus on to reduce dependence on fossil fuels according to the passage?
(I) Improve financial support and infrastructure for renewable
energy production.
(II) Invest more in research and development of renewable energy
technologies.
(III) Encourage the use of hybrid energy solutions combining
renewable and non-renewable sources.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and III
(e) All of the above
Q119. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage regarding the global energy sector?
(I) There has been some progress in renewable energy production, but it is not enough to meet the global demand.
(II) Financial constraints are the only reason for the slow transition to renewable energy.
(III) Fossil fuels remain the dominant source of energy due to their cheaper production costs.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only I and II
(e) All of the above
Q120. Which of the following weakens the argument presented in the passage?
(I) A report from the World Energy Organization claims that renewable energy has surpassed fossil fuels
in some developed countries.
(II) Research shows that renewable energy technology is rapidly becoming more affordable, and the cost is expected to decrease further in the coming years.
(III) The transition to renewable energy is delayed primarily due to a lack of political will rather than
financial constraints.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Only I and III
(e) None of the above
