Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 28 May, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
28 May, 2026

National Affairs

1. SARTHAK-PDS Scheme

Context:

The Union Cabinet has approved the extension of the SARTHAK-PDS scheme for five years, up to March 2031, with a total outlay of ₹25,530 crore. The scheme has been conceived as an umbrella initiative by merging two existing programmes: (a) Assistance to State Agencies for Intra-State Movement of Foodgrains and Fair Price Shop (FPS) Dealers’ Margin under NFSA, and (b) the Scheme for Modernization and Reforms through Technology in Public Distribution System (SMART PDS). The aim is to bring financial assistance and technology modernisation under one administrative framework to strengthen the implementation of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.

Key Highlights

• Scheme: SARTHAK-PDS (umbrella scheme).
• Approved by: CCEA, chaired by Prime Minister Modi.
• Nodal Agency: Department of Food and Public Distribution, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

Why it was needed?

(a) Two separate schemes were running in parallel, one for finance (movement, dealer margin) and one for technology (SMART PDS). (b) This led to administrative fragmentation, with funds and tech reforms not always aligned. (c) A single umbrella allows integrated planning, integrated reporting, and integrated outcomes.

Two merged schemes:

Earlier Scheme	What it covered
Assistance to State Agencies for Intra-State Movement of Foodgrains and FPS Dealers’ Margin under NFSA	Financial support for moving foodgrains within states and paying FPS dealer margins
Scheme for Modernization and Reforms through Technology in PDS (SMART PDS)	Technology modernisation of PDS: ration card digitisation, Aadhaar seeding, e-PoS, online allocation, supply-chain computerisation

Six core features:

Feature	What it means
Financial structural assistance	Streamlined Central support for intra-state foodgrain handling, storage, and transport
Enhanced FPS dealer economics	Higher, standardised commissions tied to mandatory automation
Advanced technology core	AI, ML, NLP, Blockchain embedded in PDS operations
Unified data architecture	One interoperable system across all 36 states and UTs, integrating IM-PDS, Mera Ration, Anna Mitra, Anna Sahayata
State Command Control Centres	Real-time, data-driven oversight at state level
ISO-certified process quality	Standard operating procedures for transparency, safety, and accountability

Three new AI-enabled modules:

Module	Focus
NIRMAL	Clean, integrity-focused operations
ASHA	Beneficiary services and grievance support
SAKSHAM	Empowerment of states, dealers, and citizens through digital tools

Existing platforms integrated:

Platform	Function
IM-PDS (Integrated Management of PDS)	Central platform for portability and online tracking
Mera Ration	App-based beneficiary services
Anna Mitra	Dealer-side services
Anna Sahayata	Citizen grievance and support tools

Background Concepts

What was the SMART-PDS Scheme, and Why Was It Important?

The SMART-PDS scheme (full form: Scheme for Modernization and Reforms through Technology in Public Distribution System) was a central-sector initiative under the Department of Food and Public Distribution, operational since 1 April 2023. It was designed to drive technology-led modernisation of the entire PDS chain. Its key deliverables included: (a) complete digitisation of ration cards so that every beneficiary has a single, verified digital record; (b) Aadhaar seeding to enable biometric authentication and reduce duplicate or ghost ration cards; (c) FPS automation through ePoS devices, where each ration sale is electronically authenticated and recorded; (d) online foodgrain allocation to states; and (e) computerised supply-chain management across all 36 states and UTs. SMART PDS provided the technical backbone on which One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) runs, and now serves as the starting point for SARTHAK-PDS, which adds more advanced layers like AI, ML, NLP, and Blockchain.

What is the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013?

The National Food Security Act, 2013 is the legal foundation of India’s right to food. It converted the PDS from a welfare programme into a legal entitlement by providing subsidised foodgrains to up to 75 per cent of the rural population and 50 per cent of the urban population, covering about two-thirds of India’s people. Beneficiaries are classified into two categories: Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households (the poorest, who receive 35 kg of foodgrains per household per month) and Priority Households (PHH) (who receive 5 kg per person per month). The Act also includes provisions for maternity benefits, child nutrition under ICDS and Mid-Day Meal, grievance redressal, and ration card portability (later extended through ONORC). The NFSA forms the legal umbrella under which PMGKAY, PDS reforms, SMART PDS, and SARTHAK-PDS all operate.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recently approved SARTHAK-PDS scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme has been approved by the Union Cabinet for five years up to March 2031.
2. The total outlay of the scheme is ₹25,530 crore.
3. It merges the scheme for Assistance to State Agencies for Intra-State Movement of Foodgrains and FPS Dealers’ Margin under NFSA with the SMART PDS scheme.
4. The scheme aims to strengthen the implementation of the National Food Security Act, 2013.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the technology components of SARTHAK-PDS:

1. The scheme envisages deployment of Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning, Natural Language Processing, and Blockchain in PDS operations.
2. State Command Control Centres are planned for data-driven oversight at the state level.
3. ISO-certified process frameworks will be put in place to ensure transparency, security, and operational sustainability.
4. The scheme excludes any role for grievance redressal automation through AI tools.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to the SMART PDS scheme that became operational on 1 April 2023, consider the following statements:

1. It enabled complete digitisation of ration cards across India.
2. It promoted Aadhaar seeding of PDS beneficiary records.
3. It supported FPS automation through electronic Point of Sale (ePoS) devices.
4. It covers all 36 states and Union Territories in India.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides legal entitlement to subsidised foodgrains for up to 75 per cent of the rural population and 50 per cent of the urban population.
2. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per household per month under the Act.
3. Priority Households (PHH) are entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month.
4. The NFSA framework also covers maternity benefits, ICDS, and Mid-Day Meal provisions.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; SARTHAK-PDS explicitly includes AI-driven grievance redressal and analytics systems as part of its design.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on Government Schemes and Food Security; GS Paper III on Indian Economy (PDS, FCI, NFSA)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on Welfare schemes, Food security, Hunger and malnutrition; GS Paper III on Indian Economy, Digital governance
BPSC and State PCS	Welfare schemes, Food security, Current Affairs
Banking (RBI Gr B, NABARD)	General Awareness on food security and welfare schemes
NABARD Grade A	Very high importance, food security, rural development

2. Quad Critical Minerals Initiative Framework

Context:

On the sidelines of the 11th Quad Foreign Ministers’ Meeting (QFMM) in New Delhi, the four Quad nations, India, the United States, Japan, and Australia, have unveiled a new Critical Minerals Initiative Framework, alongside a separate bilateral India-US Mineral Pact. The framework is a multilateral strategic economic and supply-chain pact designed to build stable, resilient, and diversified supply routes for critical minerals and rare earth elements (REEs) that are essential for electric vehicles, semiconductors, batteries, defence systems, clean energy, and advanced telecom. The main purpose is to reduce dependence on China-dominated supply chains, especially for processing and refining, where China holds around 60 to 90 per cent of global market share in several critical mineral categories.

Key Highlights

• Framework: Quad Critical Minerals Initiative Framework.
• Members: India, the United States, Japan, Australia.
• Announced at: 11th Quad Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, New Delhi.
• Parallel announcement: Bilateral India-US Mineral Pact.

Main aims:

Aim	Detail
Stable, resilient supply chains	Reduce single-point dependencies for critical minerals and rare earth elements
Reduce China dependence	Counter China’s dominance in processing, refining, and export of rare earths
Insulate technology and defence sectors	Protect against geopolitical coercion through export restrictions

Six core features:

Feature	What it means
Capital mobilisation	Around USD 20 billion to be mobilised through public funding, soft loans, and private investment
Geographic and ownership rules	Projects must be located in Quad countries and operated by Quad-based companies
End-to-end supply chain coverage	Covers mining, processing, refining, manufacturing inputs, and recycling
Regulatory harmonisation	Quad members will align customs, environmental, and legal standards
E-waste circular economy	Recovery of rare earth elements and strategic metals from e-waste and industrial scrap through advanced recycling
National security safeguards	Joint export controls and monitoring to prevent strategic minerals from reaching hostile actors

Why critical minerals matter:

(a) Electric Vehicles (EVs) need lithium, cobalt, nickel, manganese, graphite. (b) Semiconductors and electronics need silicon, gallium, germanium, rare earths. (c) Wind turbines and defence systems need neodymium, dysprosium, samarium. (d) Solar panels need tellurium, indium. (e) Hydrogen economy needs platinum group metals.

India’s critical mineral landscape:

• India has classified 30 critical minerals based on the Expert Committee report of the Ministry of Mines (2023).
• The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), launched in 2024, has a total outlay of ₹16,300 crore and another ₹18,000 crore expected from PSUs and others.
• Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) is a joint venture for acquiring strategic mineral assets abroad.
• India has signed critical mineral cooperation pacts with Australia, the US, Argentina, Chile, Zambia, and others.

About the News (Q&A)

What is the Quad Critical Minerals Initiative Framework?

A multilateral strategic pact between India, the US, Japan, and Australia to build resilient, diversified supply chains for critical minerals and rare earth elements, reduce dependence on China, and mobilise about USD 20 billion through a mix of public funding, soft loans, and private investment.

What is the bilateral India-US Mineral Pact?

A separate but parallel agreement between India and the US that complements the Quad framework by strengthening bilateral cooperation on mining, processing, refining, and joint investments in critical minerals, building on earlier initiatives like the iCET (Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies).

Background Concepts (Q&A)

What are “Critical Minerals” and “Rare Earth Elements”?

Critical minerals are minerals whose secure supply is essential for a country’s economic, technological, and security future, but for which supply disruption can have serious effects. Each country defines its own list of critical minerals based on importance to its economy and risk of disruption. India has officially identified 30 critical minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, germanium, gallium, tellurium, and the 17 rare earth elements. Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are 17 specific metals in the periodic table, including lanthanum, cerium, neodymium, samarium, dysprosium, terbium, and yttrium, that are essential for permanent magnets in EV motors and wind turbines, lasers, defence electronics, and catalysts. Despite the name, REEs are not actually rare in the Earth’s crust; they are called “rare” because they are usually dispersed, making economic mining and refining difficult. China currently dominates the global processing and refining of REEs.

What is India’s National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM)?

The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), launched in 2024 by the Ministry of Mines, is India’s flagship strategy to secure the supply of critical minerals needed for clean energy, EVs, semiconductors, defence, and high-tech industries. The mission has a total outlay of ₹16,300 crore from the government, plus expected investments of about ₹18,000 crore from PSUs, private companies, and other partners. The mission supports work across the entire critical minerals value chain: (a) exploration in India through institutions like the Geological Survey of India (GSI); (b) acquisition of mineral assets abroad through Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL), a joint venture of NALCO, HCL, and MECL; (c) processing and refining capacity building; (d) recycling and circular economy; (e) strategic stockpiling; (f) R&D; and (g) international cooperation through bilateral pacts and groupings like the Quad, the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), and the IPEF.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recently unveiled Quad Critical Minerals Initiative Framework, consider the following statements:

1. The framework is a multilateral strategic pact between India, the United States, Japan, and Australia.
2. It plans to mobilise nearly USD 20 billion through public funding, soft loans, and private investments.
3. Supported projects must be located within Quad member countries and operated by companies based in member nations.
4. The framework covers the entire critical minerals chain, including mining, processing, refining, manufacturing inputs, and recycling.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Quad framework and the bilateral India-US Mineral Pact:

1. Both initiatives were announced on the sidelines of the 11th Quad Foreign Ministers’ Meeting in New Delhi.
2. The framework promotes the recovery of rare earth elements and strategic metals from e-waste and industrial scrap.
3. The framework calls for harmonisation of customs rules, environmental norms, and legal standards among the four countries.
4. The Quad framework explicitly excludes joint export controls on strategic minerals.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to Rare Earth Elements (REEs), consider the following statements:

1. Rare Earth Elements are a group of 17 specific metals including lanthanum, cerium, neodymium, samarium, and yttrium.
2. REEs are essential for permanent magnets used in electric vehicle motors, wind turbines, and defence electronics.
3. Despite the name, REEs are not particularly rare in the Earth’s crust but are usually dispersed, making economic extraction difficult.
4. China currently dominates the global processing and refining of rare earth elements.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to India’s critical minerals strategy, consider the following statements:

1. India has identified 30 critical minerals through an Expert Committee report of the Ministry of Mines.
2. The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) was launched in 2024 with a government outlay of ₹16,300 crore.
3. Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) is a joint venture set up to acquire strategic mineral assets abroad.
4. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was amended in 2023 to allow private sector mining of critical and atomic minerals.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; the Quad framework explicitly includes joint development of export controls and monitoring systems to prevent strategic minerals from reaching hostile actors.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on International Relations (Quad, India-US bilateral); GS Paper III on Indian Economy (Critical Minerals, Mines, Strategic Industries)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on India-US, India-Japan, India-Australia, Indo-Pacific, plurilateral groupings
BPSC and State PCS	International Affairs, Economy, Mines, Current Affairs
Banking and NABARD	General Awareness, moderate importance

3. PM-WANI (Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface)

Context:

The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has introduced a set of user-friendly reforms under the PM-WANI (Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) framework to make public Wi-Fi simpler, safer, and more widely accessible for everyday citizens. PM-WANI, approved by the Union Cabinet on 9 December 2020, is a distributed Digital Public Infrastructure framework that aims to expand broadband internet in India through unlicensed, low-cost public Wi-Fi hotspots.

Key Highlights

• Scheme: PM-WANI (Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface).
• Nodal department: Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications.
• Approved on: 9 December 2020, by the Union Cabinet.
• Central Registry: Managed by C-DoT (Centre for Development of Telematics).

Four core building blocks of PM-WANI:

Component	What it does
Public Data Office (PDO)	Last-mile node; buys bandwidth from TSPs/ISPs and runs the Wi-Fi hotspot
Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA)	Backend layer; handles authorisation, security, accounting, and management of multiple PDOs
App Provider	Builds user-facing apps for registration, authentication, and hotspot discovery
Central Registry	Master directory of all certified App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs; ensures interoperability

Structural features:

Feature	What it means
Zero licensing for PDOs	No licence, no registration, no fee to DoT
Free PDOA registration	No licensing; only free registration processed within 7 working days
Open interoperability	One-time app registration gives access to any PM-WANI hotspot across India

2026 Citizen-Friendly Upgrades:

Upgrade	Citizen Benefit
QR-code login for laptops	User scans a dynamic QR code with an authenticated smartphone to connect a laptop, no separate manual login needed
Sachet-style short-duration plans	Affordable plans of 15, 30, and 60 minutes for transit hubs, markets, casual users
Standardised SSIDs (network names)	Mandatory PM-WANI branding in network names to help users avoid fake and malicious hotspots

Background Concepts

What is Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), and Why is PM-WANI Considered One?

Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) refers to open, interoperable digital systems that act as shared platforms for government services, private innovation, and citizen interactions. India’s DPI stack includes Aadhaar (identity), UPI (payments), Account Aggregator (data sharing), DigiLocker (documents), ONDC (commerce), AgriStack (agriculture), Bhashini (language), and CoWIN (vaccination). PM-WANI is considered DPI because it follows the same design principles: (a) standards-based, with a published technical framework anyone can implement; (b) open and interoperable, where one user account works across all PM-WANI hotspots; (c) layered and modular, with separate roles for PDOs, PDOAs, App Providers, and the Central Registry; and (d) low entry barriers, with no licensing for PDOs and free registration for PDOAs. The government does not directly run the network; it only sets the rules and maintains the registry, while the private sector and small businesses do the actual operations.

What is C-DoT, and What is its Role in PM-WANI?

The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) is the premier telecom R&D centre of the Department of Telecommunications, Government of India. Established in August 1984, headquartered in New Delhi, it has played a central role in India’s indigenous telecom technology development, including the digital switching systems in the 1980s and 1990s, fibre-optic transmission systems, rural telephony solutions, 4G core networks, and research on 5G and 6G technologies. In the PM-WANI framework, C-DoT manages the Central Registry, which is the master directory of all certified App Providers, PDOAs, and PDOs. The Central Registry ensures interoperability across the network, so a user registered through one app can use any approved hotspot in India.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the PM-WANI (Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) scheme, consider the following statements:

1. PM-WANI was approved by the Union Cabinet on 9 December 2020.
2. The nodal department for PM-WANI is the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications.
3. PM-WANI aims to expand broadband access through small local shops and establishments acting as last-mile internet providers.
4. The Central Registry under PM-WANI is managed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT).

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the structural design of PM-WANI:

1. Public Data Offices (PDOs) require no licence, no registration, and pay zero fees to the DoT.
2. Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) require only a free registration that is processed within 7 working days.
3. A user authenticated through one approved App Provider can access any PM-WANI hotspot across India.
4. The PM-WANI framework requires every PDO to obtain a full telecom licence from TRAI.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to the 2026 PM-WANI upgrades introduced by the DoT, consider the following statements:

1. Users can now connect a laptop to a PM-WANI hotspot by scanning a dynamic QR code using an authenticated smartphone.
2. Hotspot operators have been advised to roll out short-duration sachet plans of 15, 30, and 60 minutes.
3. Standardised SSIDs with PM-WANI branding have been mandated to help citizens distinguish authentic networks from fake ones.
4. The 2026 upgrades require users to register separately with every PDOA and App Provider.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. Consider the following statements about the broader Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) ecosystem in India:

1. DPI refers to open, interoperable digital systems that act as foundational layers for public and private services.
2. Aadhaar, UPI, Account Aggregator, DigiLocker, ONDC, and Bhashini are key components of India’s DPI stack.
3. PM-WANI follows DPI design principles such as open standards, interoperability, modular architecture, and low entry barriers.
4. The Bharat 6G Vision was launched by the Government of India in 2023.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; PDOs do NOT require a telecom licence under PM-WANI. The scheme deliberately avoids licensing burdens for last-mile operators.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; one of the core features of PM-WANI is open interoperability, where a user registered through one App Provider can access any PM-WANI hotspot across India without registering separately with each one.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper II on Government Schemes (PM-WANI); GS Paper III on Indian Economy (Digital connectivity, DPI)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper II on Government policies, Welfare schemes; GS Paper III on Digital economy, Telecom, Infrastructure
Essay	“Wi-Fi as a public utility”, “Digital Public Infrastructure: India’s quiet superpower”
BPSC and State PCS	Government schemes, Economy, Current Affairs
Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Digital economy and DPI, moderate to high importance
NABARD Grade A	Rural digital connectivity, broadband access

4. 16th India-Singapore Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD) in Singapore

Context:

India and Singapore have held the 16th India-Singapore Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD) in Singapore, the highest institutional defence consultation mechanism between the two countries. The dialogue is used to review the ongoing defence partnership and chart future cooperation in military exercises, training, defence industry, technology, and regional security.

About the DPD:

Indicator	Detail
Type	Highest institutional defence consultation mechanism between India and Singapore
Purpose	Review bilateral defence cooperation and chart future engagements
Frequency	Regular, policy-level dialogue

Five focus areas at the 16th DPD:

Area	What was discussed
Review of Defence Cooperation	Progress in bilateral military exercises, training, capacity building, and defence exchanges
Defence Industry Collaboration	Greater cooperation between Indian and Singaporean defence industries, joint innovation, technology partnerships
Emerging Domains	Cyber security, AI, unmanned systems, maritime security, advanced defence technologies
Regional Security Mechanisms	Support for ASEAN-led forums and the ADMM-Plus framework
Digital Warfare Cooperation	Indian delegation visited the Singapore Armed Forces’ Digital Operations Technology Centre to explore digital and intelligence-driven warfare collaboration

Established India-Singapore defence cooperation exercises:

Exercise	Service
SIMBEX (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise)	Navy, one of India’s longest-running uninterrupted naval exercises
Bold Kurukshetra	Army-level joint exercise
Joint Military Training (JMT)	Air Force exercise
Trilateral Maritime Exercises	With Thailand, like SITMEX

About the News

What is the Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD)?

The DPD is the highest institutional defence consultation mechanism between India and Singapore, providing a platform to review military cooperation and plan future engagements.

What did the 16th DPD focus on?

(a) Review of existing defence cooperation. (b) Defence industry collaboration, including joint innovation. (c) Emerging domains: cyber, AI, unmanned systems, maritime security, advanced defence tech. (d) Support for ASEAN-led forums and ADMM-Plus. (e) Digital warfare cooperation via a visit to Singapore’s Digital Operations Technology Centre.

Background Concepts (Q&A)

Why is the Strait of Malacca and Singapore’s Location Important?

The Strait of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula (Malaysia) and the Indonesian island of Sumatra, connecting the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean via the South China Sea. It is one of the world’s busiest and most strategically important maritime chokepoints, carrying roughly a quarter of all goods traded globally and a massive share of energy flows, including around 80 per cent of China’s oil imports, along with a large share of trade for Japan, South Korea, Taiwan, and Southeast Asia. Singapore sits at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula, commanding entry and exit to the Strait from the South China Sea side. This makes Singapore one of the most strategically important countries for any Indo-Pacific power, including India, whose trade with East Asia and beyond largely flows through this passage. For India, defence cooperation with Singapore is therefore not only about bilateral ties, it is about maintaining freedom of navigation, situational awareness, and resilience of supply chains along the Indian Ocean-Pacific corridor.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent 16th India-Singapore Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD), consider the following statements:

1. The DPD was held in Singapore.
2. The DPD is the highest institutional defence consultation mechanism between India and Singapore.
3. The focus areas included cyber security, AI, unmanned systems, and maritime security.
4. The Indian delegation also visited the Singapore Armed Forces’ Digital Operations Technology Centre.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about India-Singapore defence cooperation:

1. SIMBEX is a long-running maritime bilateral exercise between India and Singapore.
2. Bold Kurukshetra is a joint army-level exercise between the two countries.
3. The two countries also participate in joint air force training.
4. India and Singapore have ended all bilateral defence exercises in 2026.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus), consider the following statements:

1. ADMM-Plus brings together the 10 ASEAN member states and 8 dialogue partners.
2. India, the United States, China, Japan, Russia, Australia, New Zealand, and South Korea are the eight dialogue partners.
3. The first ADMM-Plus meeting was held in Hanoi in 2010.
4. ADMM-Plus areas of cooperation include maritime security, counter-terrorism, peacekeeping, HADR, military medicine, mine action, and cyber security.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to the strategic significance of the Strait of Malacca, consider the following statements:

1. The Strait of Malacca connects the Indian Ocean and the South China Sea via the Pacific Ocean.
2. It lies between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
3. Around a quarter of all goods traded globally pass through the Strait of Malacca.
4. The Strait of Malacca is located entirely in international waters, outside the territorial seas of any country.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; India and Singapore have NOT ended their bilateral defence exercises. In fact, exercises like SIMBEX continue as one of India’s longest-running uninterrupted naval exercises, and the 16th DPD reaffirmed ongoing cooperation in military exercises, training, and capacity-building.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; the Strait of Malacca does NOT lie entirely in international waters. Its shipping lanes pass through the territorial seas of Indonesia, Malaysia, and Singapore, and transit is governed by UNCLOS principles on transit passage through straits used for international navigation.

Banking/Finance

1. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) completes 10 years

Context:

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, has completed ten years, and is now widely seen as one of India’s most transformative economic reforms. The Code replaced older, fragmented, slow insolvency laws like SICA, BIFR, and various Companies Act provisions with a single, time-bound, creditor-driven framework for resolving the insolvency of corporates, partnership firms, and individuals. After a decade, the scoreboard is largely positive: as of March 2026, 1,419 cases have yielded resolution plans, with creditors recovering over ₹4 lakh crore, equal to 95 per cent of fair value and 167 per cent of liquidation value. Banking gross NPAs have fallen from a peak of about 11.8 per cent in 2017 to 2.1 per cent in September 2025.

What is the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016?

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is India’s main law for handling insolvency and bankruptcy of companies, partnership firms, and individuals. It was enacted by Parliament in 2016 to replace older, fragmented, and slow insolvency laws with one single, modern framework.

essed companies, piling up of bank NPAs, and a weak credit culture.

What does the IBC do?

It creates a single, time-bound, creditor-driven framework to either rescue a stressed firm through a resolution plan, or wind it up in an orderly way through liquidation, when revival is not possible.

Core features

1. Single consolidated law: Replaces older laws with one Code covering corporates, partnerships, and individuals.
2. Time-bound resolution: The Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must be completed in 330 days (including litigation).
3. Creditor-in-control model: When a default occurs, operational control shifts from the promoters to a Committee of Creditors (CoC), made up of the company’s financial creditors. The CoC takes the major decisions, including approving or rejecting resolution plans.
4. Insolvency Professional: An independent licensed Insolvency Professional (IP) takes over the running of the company during the process, first as Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) and later as Resolution Professional (RP).
5. Two-tier adjudication:
   • National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT): handles corporate insolvency, with appeals lying with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).
   • Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT): handles insolvency of individuals and partnership firms, with appeals to the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT).
6. Regulator and ecosystem:
   • Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI): the regulator.
   • Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs): register and regulate IPs.
   • Information Utilities (IUs): store and share verified financial and default data, with the National e-Governance Services Limited (NeSL) as the first IU.
7. Two possible outcomes: Either a resolution plan is approved (the company is rescued, often with a new owner), or the company goes into liquidation, and its assets are sold to pay creditors.
8. Waterfall mechanism (Section 53): A fixed priority order for distributing the proceeds from liquidation, with insolvency costs first, then workmen and secured creditors, then employees and unsecured creditors, then government dues and remaining secured debts, then preference shareholders, and finally equity shareholders.

Four big challenges that remain:

Challenge	Detail
Delays	Average resolution still around 2 years, far above the 330-day target
Liquidation-heavy outcomes	3,003 of 7,102 closed cases ended in liquidation, not revival
Sector recovery variation	Scheduled commercial banks recovery rate dropped to 36.6 per cent in 2024-25
Legacy case burden	42 per cent of resolved cases came from BIFR-era or defunct firms

Way Forward:

Reform Area	What needs to be done
Expand NCLT bench infrastructure	More benches, faster filling of judicial vacancies, dedicated capacity for IBC cases
Promote pre-packaged insolvency frameworks	Expand out-of-court pre-packs to all corporate categories, encouraging consensual, fast settlements
Upgrade Information Utilities (IUs)	Better data integration, faster lender access to verified default data, less verification time
Standardise inter-regulator mediation	Smooth coordination between IBBI, RBI, and enforcement agencies for competing asset claims
Specialised IP training	Industry-specific training for Insolvency Professionals to better preserve enterprise value

Background Concepts (Q&A)

What is “Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP)” and Why is It Useful?

A Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) is a faster, out-of-court resolution mechanism under the IBC, currently available for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2021. Under a pre-pack, the defaulting company’s existing promoters propose a resolution plan to creditors before the formal NCLT process begins. If the Committee of Creditors approves the plan, it can be filed in NCLT for sanction, without going through the full corporate insolvency resolution process. The benefits are clear: (a) faster resolution (within around 120 days); (b) lower legal cost; (c) less business disruption because the company keeps running with its existing management; and (d) better preservation of enterprise value. Experts now suggest extending PPIRP from MSMEs to larger corporates to ease pressure on NCLT, speed up resolutions, and support more revival-oriented outcomes, which is one of the key Way Forward proposals for the IBC’s next decade.

What are “Information Utilities (IUs)” Under the IBC?

Information Utilities (IUs) are specialised, regulated entities under the IBC that collect, verify, store, and share financial information about borrowers, including default records, loan terms, and securities. They are registered with the IBBI under the IBC and IBBI (Information Utilities) Regulations, 2017. The role of an IU is similar in spirit to credit information companies in the banking sector, but with a specific focus on insolvency cases. The first IU in India was the National e-Governance Services Limited (NeSL), a government-promoted entity. Information Utilities help by: (a) providing verified default data to lenders, IPs, and tribunals, reducing time spent on data verification; (b) creating a central audit-trail of defaults; and (c) reducing manipulation by debtors. The Way Forward for IBC includes upgrading IUs further, with better data integration, more entities, and real-time digital tracking.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the ten-year performance of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), consider the following statements:

1. As of March 2026, 1,419 cases have yielded final resolution plans.
2. Creditors have recovered over ₹4 lakh crore under resolution plans.
3. Recovery has been about 167 per cent of liquidation value.
4. Banking gross NPAs have fallen from about 11.8 per cent in 2017 to 2.1 per cent in September 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the institutional architecture of the IBC, 2016:

1. The IBC is regulated by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
2. Corporate insolvency cases are handled by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
3. Personal and partnership insolvency cases are handled by the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT).
4. Information Utilities are licensed entities that store and share verified financial data.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to the recommended Way Forward for the IBC, consider the following statements:

1. Expanding NCLT bench infrastructure and filling judicial vacancies are key reform priorities.
2. Pre-packaged insolvency frameworks are recommended to be extended beyond MSMEs to more corporate categories.
3. Better data integration through Information Utilities is recommended to reduce verification time.
4. The Way Forward suggests no further training or specialisation for Insolvency Professionals.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. Consider the following statements about Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP):

1. PPIRP is currently available for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) under the IBC.
2. The framework was introduced through the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2021.
3. PPIRP allows existing promoters to propose a resolution plan to creditors before formal NCLT proceedings begin.
4. PPIRP typically results in faster resolution and better preservation of enterprise value.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (e), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; the Way Forward explicitly recommends specialised, industry-focused training for Insolvency Professionals, NOT the opposite.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

2. LIC Launches Two New Joint Insurance Products for Couples, “New Jeevan Sathi Single Premium” and “New Jeevan Sathi Limited Premium”

Context:

The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has announced the launch of two new joint-life insurance savings plans designed specifically for couples, “LIC’s New Jeevan Sathi Single Premium” and “LIC’s New Jeevan Sathi Limited Premium”, available from June 2026. Both products are joint life financial protection plans that offer guaranteed returns, fixed benefits, premium waiver on first death of one of the spouses, loan facilities, and flexible payout options. They are aimed at married couples who want a single insurance plan that covers both spouses, instead of buying two separate policies. The Single Premium variant is a one-time premium plan that offers guaranteed additions of ₹70 per ₹1,000 of Basic Sum Assured (BSA) and policy terms of 10 to 25 years.

Two new products at a glance:

Feature	New Jeevan Sathi Single Premium	New Jeevan Sathi Limited Premium
Type	One-time premium payment	Limited premium payment
Premium Payment Term (PPT)	One-time	5, 10, or 15 years
Policy Term	10 to 25 years	10 to 25 years
Guaranteed Additions	₹70 per ₹1,000 of Basic Sum Assured (BSA)	7 per cent on Tabular Annual Premium (TAP)
Joint Life Cover	Yes (for couples)	Yes (for couples)
Premium Waiver on First Death	Yes (as applicable)	Yes (Premium waiver on first death)
Loan Facility	Available	Available
Payout Options	Flexible	Flexible

Background Concepts (Q&A)

What is a “Joint Life Insurance Plan”?

A joint life insurance plan is a single insurance policy that covers two persons (most often a married couple, but sometimes business partners or parent-child pairs) under one contract. There are usually two main payout structures: (a) “First-death” plans, where the policy pays the sum assured on the death of whichever life dies first, after which the policy typically ends; and (b) “Second-death” plans, which pay only after both lives have passed away, often used for legacy and estate-planning purposes. Joint life plans often come with premium waiver features, where the surviving spouse does not have to keep paying premiums while the policy continues to provide cover and savings benefits. Joint life products are popular because they offer convenience (one policy, one premium, one document), administrative ease, and household-level cover instead of separate policies for each spouse.

What are “Guaranteed Additions” in a Life Insurance Policy?

Guaranteed additions are fixed amounts that a life insurance company contractually promises to add to the policy benefit at specified intervals (usually annually) during the policy term. They are typically expressed as a fixed amount per ₹1,000 of Basic Sum Assured (such as ₹70 per ₹1,000) or as a percentage of the annual premium (such as 7 per cent on the Tabular Annual Premium). Because they are guaranteed at policy issue, they do not depend on the insurer’s investment performance, unlike bonuses on participating policies, which can vary based on market returns. Guaranteed additions are common in savings-oriented insurance plans, where the customer values predictable, fixed returns alongside life cover. The total guaranteed additions accumulated over the term are typically payable at maturity or on death along with the sum assured.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the newly launched LIC joint life insurance products, consider the following statements:

1. LIC has launched two new joint life insurance savings plans for couples in May 2026.
2. The plans will be available for purchase from June 2026.
3. The plans offer features like guaranteed returns, premium waiver on first death, loan facilities, and flexible payout options.
4. The two plans are called “LIC’s New Jeevan Sathi Single Premium” and “LIC’s New Jeevan Sathi Limited Premium”.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the structure of the two LIC joint life plans:

1. The Single Premium variant is a one-time payment plan with guaranteed additions of ₹70 per ₹1,000 of Basic Sum Assured.
2. The Limited Premium variant offers Premium Payment Term options of 5, 10, or 15 years.
3. Both variants have policy terms ranging from 10 to 25 years.
4. The Limited Premium variant offers 7 per cent guaranteed additions on the Tabular Annual Premium.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. Consider the following statements about joint life insurance plans:

1. A joint life insurance plan typically covers two persons under a single policy.
2. “First-death” joint life plans pay the sum assured when whichever life dies first.
3. “Second-death” plans are often used for legacy and estate planning purposes.
4. Joint life plans cannot offer premium waiver features under any circumstances.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to the wider Indian insurance landscape, consider the following statements:

1. IRDAI’s vision is to achieve “Insurance for All by 2047”.
2. The Bima Trinity consists of Bima Sugam, Bima Vistaar, and Bima Vahak.
3. Saral Jeevan Bima is a standardised term-insurance product introduced in India.
4. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (e), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; joint life plans frequently include premium waiver features, often triggered on the first death, so that the surviving spouse does not have to continue paying premiums while the policy continues to provide cover.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; LIC is regulated by IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India), NOT the RBI. The RBI regulates banks, while IRDAI regulates insurance companies.

Exam Relevance

IRDAI Grade A

Very high importance, core area

Agriculture

1. India Releases First National Report on the Nagoya Protocol

Context:

The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has released the insights from India’s First National Report on the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS). The Nagoya Protocol, formally called the “Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization”, is a supplementary international treaty to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) of 1992, adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan and entered into force in 2014.

About the Nagoya Protocol:

Feature	Detail
Full Name	Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization
Parent Treaty	Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992
Adopted	Nagoya, Japan, 2010
Entered into Force	2014
Scope	Biological materials and Digital Sequence Information (DSI)

Three core pillars of the Nagoya Protocol:

Pillar	What it means
Prior Informed Consent (PIC)	Researchers or companies must get approval from the national authority before accessing biological resources
Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT)	A formal agreement between user and provider country defines usage, responsibilities, and benefit-sharing
Fair Benefit-Sharing	Profits (royalties, fees, research, technology transfer) must benefit local communities and conservers
ABS Clearing-House Mechanism	A global online platform tracks permits and issues Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs)
Protection of Traditional Knowledge	Safeguards indigenous knowledge, cultural practices, and community rights linked to biological resources

Key Findings:

• India granted 12,830 approvals under the ABS framework between 2017 and 2025, reflecting large-scale implementation of biodiversity governance.
• National Biodiversity Authority issued 5,913 approvals, while State Biodiversity Boards and UT Biodiversity Councils issued 6,917 approvals.
• India became the global leader in biodiversity compliance, publishing 3,556 IRCCs, which account for 60.24% of all certificates issued worldwide.
• The ABS mechanism generated ₹216.31 crore, out of which ₹139.69 crore was disbursed to local communities, benefit claimers, and conservers for habitat restoration and biodiversity protection.
• India developed a strong three-tier biodiversity governance network consisting of the National Biodiversity Authority, State Biodiversity Boards, and over 2.76 lakh Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).
• To strengthen decentralized biodiversity management, India organized 3,724 workshops and training programmes, training over 2.56 lakh stakeholders.
• Sun Pharmaceutical Industries paid benefit-sharing fees for accessing the medicinal plant Cocculus hirsutus from forests in Madhya Pradesh, supporting conservation and local welfare activities.
• Indian Oil Corporation Limited paid benefit-sharing fees for bioethanol research using agricultural residues in Uttar Pradesh, strengthening biodiversity-linked revenue sharing mechanisms.

India’s three-tier ABS architecture:

Tier	Body
Apex (National)	National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), Chennai
State	State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) in all states
Local	Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) in panchayats and local bodies

Two case studies in the report:

Case	Detail
Dengue Treatment (Madhya Pradesh)	Sun Pharmaceutical Industries Ltd. paid an upfront fee of ₹4,50,000 to access Cocculus hirsutus, a medicinal plant from forests of Chhindwara. In 2020, 95 per cent (₹4,27,500) was transferred to the M.P. Minor Forest Produce Federation for conservation and local welfare
Bioethanol Project (Uttar Pradesh)	Indian Oil Corporation Limited paid an upfront fee of ₹18,60,000 to access local agricultural residues in Aligarh for bioethanol research. ₹17,67,000 was disbursed to the Uttar Pradesh State Biodiversity Board

Background Concepts

What is the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)?

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a multilateral environmental treaty opened for signature at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro and entered into force in 1993. The CBD has three main objectives: (a) the conservation of biological diversity, (b) the sustainable use of its components, and (c) the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. The CBD has two important supplementary protocols: (a) the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (2000), which governs the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs), and (b) the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing (2010), which lays out the rules for fair access to genetic resources. India is a party to the CBD and its two protocols, and the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is its main domestic implementing law.

What is the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)?

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, set up in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, with its headquarters in Chennai. The NBA performs three main roles: (a) it serves as the regulator that grants approvals to foreign individuals and companies seeking access to Indian biological resources for research, commercial use, or transfer of research results; (b) it acts as the advisor to the central government and state governments on biodiversity matters; and (c) it leads capacity building, awareness, and policy support for the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs). The NBA is responsible for negotiating benefit-sharing terms under the ABS framework, issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) via the CBD ABS Clearing-House, and disbursing collected benefits to states, communities, and conservers.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Nagoya Protocol, consider the following statements:

1. It is a supplementary treaty to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
2. It was adopted in Nagoya, Japan, in 2010 and entered into force in 2014.
3. It governs the access and benefit-sharing of biological resources and Digital Sequence Information (DSI).
4. Its three pillars are Prior Informed Consent (PIC), Mutually Agreed Terms (MAT), and Fair Benefit-Sharing.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to the findings of India’s First National Report on the Nagoya Protocol, consider the following statements:

1. India granted 12,830 ABS approvals between November 2017 and December 2025.
2. India has published 3,556 Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs), accounting for about 60 per cent of all such certificates globally.
3. The National Biodiversity Authority has realised ₹216.31 crore through ABS, of which ₹139.69 crore has been disbursed to benefit claimers.
4. India’s three-tier ABS architecture includes the NBA, SBBs, and over 2,76,653 Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. Consider the following statements about the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), 1992:

1. The CBD was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
2. Its three objectives are conservation, sustainable use, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources.
3. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (2000) and the Nagoya Protocol on ABS (2010) are supplementary protocols under the CBD.
4. India is not a party to the Convention on Biological Diversity.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), consider the following statements:

1. The NBA is a statutory autonomous body established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2. The NBA is headquartered in Chennai.
3. It grants approvals to foreign individuals and companies seeking access to Indian biological resources.
4. The NBA is the regulator of stock exchanges and securities markets in India.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (e), All four statements are correct.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; India is a party to the Convention on Biological Diversity since its signature in 1992 and ratification in 1994. India has also enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to implement the CBD domestically.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; the regulator of stock exchanges and securities markets in India is SEBI, NOT the NBA. The NBA regulates access to biological resources, not financial markets.

Facts To Remember

1. India’s First Hydrogen Train Approved for Jind–Sonipat Route

The Ministry of Railways approved India’s first 10-coach hydrogen fuel cell-based trainset for the Jind–Sonipat section under Northern Railway, marking a major milestone in green transportation. The approval was issued through a Railway Board circular dated May 22, 2026, bringing the country closer to the rollout of hydrogen-powered rail services. With this initiative, India joins a select group of countries adopting hydrogen train technology for sustainable and low-emission railway operations.

2. MYAS Notifies NSB and NST Rules, 2026 under Sports Governance Act

The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) notified the National Sports Governance (NSB) Rules, 2026 and National Sports Tribunal (NST) Rules, 2026 under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025. The NSB will function as the central authority for granting recognition to National Sports Bodies and will comprise a Chairperson and two Members. The NST Rules define appointment procedures, service conditions, and tenure limits, with the Chairperson serving up to five years or 70 years of age.

3. MoSJE Launches PM-AJAY Portal and Mobile App for SC Welfare Schemes

Union Minister Virendra Kumar launched the PM-AJAY Portal and AJAY Mobile Application to digitize welfare schemes for Scheduled Caste communities. The platform enables end-to-end digital implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) with real-time tracking and milestone-based fund management. The mobile app strengthens field-level monitoring, transparency, and mobile-based delivery of welfare services.

4. 11th Quad Foreign Ministers’ Meeting Held in New Delhi

The 11th edition of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) Foreign Ministers’ Meeting was chaired by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar in New Delhi. Key participants included ministers from Australia, Japan, and the United States, with discussions focusing on Indo-Pacific security and regional cooperation. Major initiatives launched included the Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Collaboration (IPMSC), Quad Energy Security initiative, and a USD 20 billion Critical Minerals investment framework.

5. ISM Launches ‘Investors Support’ Portal for Semiconductor Investments

The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) launched the ‘Investors Support’ portal as a single-window facilitation platform for semiconductor investors in India. The portal provides information on government schemes, Semicon India Programme projects, regulatory requirements, and grievance redressal support. Under the Semicon India Programme launched in 2021, India has already approved 12 semiconductor fabrication and packaging projects.

6. ICMR Launches India’s Largest Biomedical Innovation Platform

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) organised the “Medical Innovations Patent Mitra: Innovators-to-Industry Connect” event in New Delhi to accelerate commercialization of indigenous healthcare technologies. During the event, 41 public health technologies, including vaccines, diagnostics, and medical devices, were transferred to industry partners. The initiative aims to strengthen collaboration between innovators and industry for large-scale healthcare solutions.

7. LIC Launches ‘New Jeevan Sathi’ Joint Insurance Products

Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) launched two new joint life insurance plans: “LIC’s New Jeevan Sathi Single Premium” and “LIC’s New Jeevan Sathi Limited Premium”. The plans are designed for couples and provide guaranteed returns, premium waiver benefits, flexible payouts, and loan facilities. The products will be available from June 2026 with policy terms ranging from 10 to 25 years.

8. Nibe Group and Elbit Systems Sign JV for Propellant Manufacturing in India

Nibe Group signed a joint venture agreement with Israel’s Elbit Systems to establish advanced propellant and energetic materials manufacturing facilities in India. The project aligns with the Government of India’s Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives and will manufacture Nitro Cellulose, Nitro Glycerine, and various propellant bases. Nibe Aeronautics also signed an LoI with De Havilland Canada for procurement of Twin Otter amphibious aircraft to support regional connectivity.

9. Senegal Appoints Ahmadou Al Aminou Lo as New Prime Minister

Bassirou Diomaye Faye appointed Ahmadou Al Aminou Lo as the new Prime Minister of Senegal after the dismissal of Ousmane Sonko. Ahmadou Lo is a veteran economist and central banker associated with the BCEAO and the Pastef party. He previously played a major role in shaping Senegal’s long-term economic roadmap ‘Sénégal 2050’.

10. SEBI Approves Appointment of Executive Directors at CDSL

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) approved the appointment of Amit Mahajan and Nayana Ovalekar as Executive Directors on the board of Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL). Amit Mahajan will oversee critical operations, while Nayana Ovalekar will manage compliance, risk management, and investor grievances. Similar executive appointments were also announced by BSE and NSDL for operational verticals.

11. P. Jawahar Assumes Charge as Chairman of MPEDA

P. Jawahar officially assumed charge as Chairman of the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA). The 2007-batch IAS officer succeeded D.V. Swamy and will serve a five-year tenure. India’s seafood exports reached a record Rs.72,325.82 crore during FY26 under MPEDA’s export promotion initiatives.

12. NASA Unveils USD 20 Billion Plan for Permanent Moon Base

National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announced a USD 20 billion three-phase plan to establish a permanent lunar base with habitats, power systems, rovers, and drones. The Moon Base-I mission using Blue Origin’s Blue Moon Mark-1 Endurance lander is planned for launch by 2026. NASA aims to establish lunar infrastructure by 2032 and conduct long-duration human missions on the Moon.

13. Veteran Archer Shyam Lal Meena Passes Away

Veteran Indian Olympian archer Shyam Lal Meena passed away at the age of 61 in Rajasthan. He was part of India’s first Olympic archery team at the 1988 Seoul Olympics and won a bronze medal at the 1987 Asian Archery Championships. He received the Arjuna Award in 1989 for his contributions to Indian archery.

14. Venkaiah Naidu and Deve Gowda Launch Shivraj Singh Chouhan’s Book ‘Apnapan’

Former Vice President M. Venkaiah Naidu and former Prime Minister H. D. Deve Gowda launched the book Apnapan: Narendra Modi Sang Mere Anubhav authored by Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan. The book reflects on his 35-year association with Prime Minister Narendra Modi and highlights themes of governance, public service, and nation-building. It also discusses initiatives related to women empowerment and public welfare.

15. International Missing Children’s Day 2026 Observed on May 25

International Missing Children’s Day was observed globally on May 25 to raise awareness about missing children and promote child safety measures. The day highlights issues related to child abduction, trafficking, and exploitation while symbolizing hope through the “forget-me-not flower”. The observance originated in memory of Etan Patz, who disappeared in New York in 1979.

16. World Thyroid Day 2026 Observed on May 25

World Thyroid Day was observed globally on May 25 with the theme “Thyroid and Nutrition”. The day aims to promote awareness about thyroid disorders, early diagnosis, and the importance of nutrition in thyroid health. The observance was established by the European Thyroid Association in 2008, while the Blue Paisley Ribbon serves as the awareness symbol.

17. Gujarat Government and Meta Sign MoU for WhatsApp-Based Governance

The Government of Gujarat signed an MoU with Meta to launch a WhatsApp chatbot under the ‘Sugam Digital’ initiative for citizen service delivery. The chatbot will provide around 20 public services in Gujarati and English with voice-enabled accessibility features. The collaboration aims to strengthen AI-driven e-governance, digital skilling, and public service accessibility across Gujarat.