Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 29,30&31 May, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
29,30&31 May, 2026

International Affairs

1. US President Calls on Six Muslim-Majority Nations to Sign the Abraham Accords

Source: IE

Context:

The US President has issued a high-profile directive calling on several Muslim-majority nations, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Pakistan, Egypt, Turkey, and Jordan, to simultaneously sign the Abraham Accords. The Abraham Accords, named after Abraham, the biblical patriarch common to Judaism and Islam, are a series of US-brokered diplomatic agreements that normalise diplomatic relations between Israel and Muslim-majority countries, departing from decades of regional hostility.

Signatory matrix:

Phase	Countries
2020 initial signatories	UAE, Bahrain, Morocco
Subsequent joinees	Sudan, Kosovo, Somaliland, Kazakhstan
2026 target additions	Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Pakistan, Turkey, Egypt, Jordan

Key features:

Feature	Detail
Full normalisation	Embassies, ambassadors, direct commercial flights between Israel and partner countries
Defence and intelligence interoperability	Radar data sharing, military collaboration, defence-tech exports
US diplomatic incentives	Weapons sales, sovereign recognitions, strategic sweeteners for new signatories
Economic frameworks	Investments in clean energy, agri-food, tourism, digital infrastructure

About the News

What are the Abraham Accords?

A series of US-brokered diplomatic agreements that normalise relations between Israel and Muslim-majority nations, starting with the UAE, Bahrain, and Morocco in 2020.

Who are the 2026 target additions?

Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Pakistan, Turkey, Egypt, and Jordan.

What are the three core goals of the Accords?

(a) Regional stability and Iran containment. (b) Economic and technological integration. (c) Bypassing the Palestinian statehood question to allow bilateral Israel-Arab progress.

Why are they called the “Abraham” Accords?

Because Abraham is the biblical patriarch considered a common ancestor in Judaism and Islam, symbolising shared roots despite long political and religious divisions.

Background Concepts

What is the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC)?

The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is a multi-modal connectivity initiative announced at the G20 Leaders’ Summit in New Delhi in September 2023, with the United States, India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia, the European Union, France, Germany, and Italy as initial partners. The corridor envisions a rail-and-shipping link that runs from India to the UAE and Saudi Arabia by sea, across the Arabian Peninsula by rail, and then on to Europe via Israel and the Mediterranean Sea. IMEC is designed to: (a) provide an alternative to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI); (b) shorten freight times and costs between India and Europe; (c) integrate energy and digital connectivity alongside trade; and (d) anchor a stable, rules-based corridor through some of the world’s most strategically sensitive regions. Its success depends partly on regional stability, which gives India a direct stake in the Abraham Accords’ trajectory.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Abraham Accords, consider the following statements:

1. The Abraham Accords are a US-brokered series of agreements to normalise relations between Israel and Muslim-majority countries.
2. The original 2020 signatories were the United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, and Morocco.
3. The Accords are named after Abraham, the biblical patriarch considered a common ancestor in Judaism and Islam.
4. The 2026 directive seeks to bring Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Pakistan, Turkey, Egypt, and Jordan into the framework.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the strategic and structural features of the Abraham Accords:

1. One of the goals is to build a unified, US-backed defensive and intelligence bloc to counter Iran’s regional influence.
2. The Accords seek to separate bilateral Arab-Israel economic progress from the unresolved Palestinian statehood issue.
3. Full normalisation includes opening embassies, exchanging ambassadors, and starting direct commercial flights.
4. The Accords explicitly require resolution of the Palestinian statehood issue before any bilateral normalisation can take place.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

National Affairs

1. SRS Statistical Report 2024

Context:

The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, has released the Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report 2024, India’s most authoritative source for annual fertility, birth, and mortality estimates. The report confirms a historic demographic shift: India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has fallen to 1.9, below the replacement level of 2.1, meaning the average Indian woman now has fewer children than needed to replace the parent generation over time.

Key Highlights of India’s 2024 Population and Vital Statistics Report

• India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) declined to 1.9, falling below the replacement level of 2.1, indicating a slowing population growth trend.
• The Crude Birth Rate (CBR) dropped from 21.0 in 2014 to 18.3 in 2024, reflecting a steady decline in birth rates.
• The Crude Death Rate (CDR) marginally declined to 6.4 in 2024, indicating improved healthcare and life expectancy.
• The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) improved significantly, declining to 24 deaths per 1,000 live births, compared to 30 in 2019.
• The Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR) reduced to 28 deaths per 1,000 live births, showing continued improvement in child healthcare outcomes.
• India’s demographic profile is shifting, with the 0–14 age group falling to 24%, while the working-age population (15–59 years) expanded to 66.4%.
• The share of the elderly population (60+ years) increased to 9.7%, highlighting the gradual ageing of India’s population.
• The mean age at effective marriage for women rose to 23.1 years, indicating improving educational attainment and delayed marriages.
• The Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) improved slightly to 918 females per 1,000 males during the 2022–24 period.
• Institutional healthcare access strengthened further, with 95.4% of live births occurring in hospitals or healthcare institutions in 2024.

Quick recap of the headline numbers:

Indicator	Value
TFR (national)	1.9 (below 2.1 replacement level)
CBR	18.3 (from 21.0 in 2014)
CDR	6.4
IMR (national)	24 per 1,000 live births
U5MR	28 per 1,000 live births
Institutional deliveries	95.4 per cent
Sex Ratio at Birth (2022-24 avg)	918
Mean age at marriage (women)	23.1 years (rural 22.6, urban 24.4)
Median age	29.2 years
Population 0-14	24.0 per cent
Population 15-59	66.4 per cent
Population 60+	9.7 per cent
Deaths without formal medical attention	45.5 per cent

State-level extremes (very testable):

Indicator	High Performer	Low Performer
IMR	Kerala: 8	Chhattisgarh: 36
TFR (lowest pockets)	Delhi: 1.2, Kerala: 1.3	Among the lowest in India
Rural IMR (national)	About 27 per 1,000	Far higher than urban

Background Concepts (Q&A)

What is “Total Fertility Rate” (TFR), and Why is the 2.1 Replacement Level Important?

The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the average number of children that a woman would have over her lifetime if she experienced the current age-specific fertility rates throughout her reproductive years (roughly 15-49 years). The replacement level of TFR is around 2.1, meaning that each woman, on average, needs to have about 2.1 children for the population to remain stable over the long run (a little above 2 because some children do not reach reproductive age). When TFR is above 2.1, the population is growing through natural increase; when it is below 2.1, the population will eventually stabilise and then start declining, even if it continues to grow for some years due to demographic momentum (a large young population already in childbearing age). India’s TFR falling to 1.9 is therefore a structural milestone, signalling that India is now on the same demographic path as most middle-income and high-income countries, with major long-term implications for the labour force, pension systems, healthcare needs, urbanisation, and family structures.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report 2024, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has dropped to 1.9, below the replacement level of 2.1.
2. The Crude Birth Rate has fallen from 21.0 in 2014 to 18.3 in 2024.
3. The Infant Mortality Rate has come down to 24 per 1,000 live births.
4. The Under-Five Mortality Rate has declined to 28 per 1,000 live births.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about findings of the SRS 2024 Report on women’s health and demographic structure:

1. The mean age at effective marriage for Indian women has risen to 23.1 years.
2. Approximately 95.4 per cent of live births in India are institutional deliveries.
3. The Sex Ratio at Birth for the 2022-24 three-year average stands at 918 females per 1,000 males.
4. The share of population aged 0-14 years has risen above 30 per cent.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. Consider the following statements about Total Fertility Rate (TFR) and the demographic dividend:

1. TFR is the average number of children a woman is expected to have over her reproductive lifetime.
2. The replacement level of TFR is generally taken as around 2.1.
3. India’s demographic dividend window is broadly expected to last until the late 2040s.
4. A working-age population larger than dependents is a key condition for the demographic dividend.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. With reference to regional and end-of-life findings in the SRS 2024 Report, consider the following statements:

1. Kerala has an Infant Mortality Rate of around 8 per 1,000 live births, among the lowest in India.
2. Chhattisgarh continues to face a heavy infant mortality burden of around 36.
3. About 45.5 per cent of deaths in India occur without formal medical attention.
4. Delhi has a Total Fertility Rate of around 1.2, while Kerala has a TFR of around 1.3.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; according to SRS 2024, the share of 0-14 age group has fallen to 24.0 per cent, NOT risen above 30 per cent. The share of the working-age group (15-59) has expanded to 66.4 per cent, and the elderly group (60+) to 9.7 per cent.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

2. Indian Railways Approves Country’s First Indigenous Hydrogen Train

Source: PIB

Context of the News

Indian Railways has officially approved the operational rollout of India’s first indigenous 10-car Hydrogen Fuel Cell-based trainset, which will run on the Jind-Sonipat section in Haryana. The train has been designed and developed by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO), the premier research arm of Indian Railways. It is a zero-emission alternative to diesel locomotives on non-electrified routes, producing only water vapour and heat as byproducts, with no carbon emissions at all. The train works on the principle of a hydrogen fuel cell: compressed hydrogen gas is stored onboard, mixed with oxygen from the air inside a fuel cell stack, and converted electrochemically into electricity through a special membrane.

Key Highlights

• Project: India’s first indigenous Hydrogen Fuel Cell-based trainset.
• Approved by: Indian Railways.
• Developer: Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO).

Key features of the deployment:

Feature	Detail
Indigenous refuelling hub	At Jind station, with local hydrogen compression and refuelling infrastructure
Redundant compression systems	Standby compressor unit for continuous fuelling availability
Advanced multi-tier safety	Hydrogen leak detectors, flame detectors, automated safety sensors across the production and dispensing line
Shakurbasti maintenance hub	Dedicated workshop with RDSO-approved SOPs and routine safety audits
24/7 monitored transit	Round-the-clock monitoring of fuelling grids by certified teams, with technical staff onboard during early phases

Background Concepts

What is a “Hydrogen Fuel Cell”, and Why is it Considered Clean?

A hydrogen fuel cell is a device that produces electricity through an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, rather than by burning fuel. Inside a fuel cell, hydrogen gas flows over one electrode (the anode), where it is split into protons and electrons. The protons pass through a special membrane (called a Proton Exchange Membrane in PEM fuel cells, the most common type used in transport), while the electrons are forced through an external circuit, producing electric current. On the other side (the cathode), the protons, electrons, and oxygen from the air combine to form water. The result: electricity, heat, and water vapour, with no carbon emissions at the point of use. Whether the entire process is truly green depends on how the hydrogen itself is produced: “green hydrogen” is made by splitting water using renewable energy and is genuinely clean; “blue hydrogen” comes from natural gas with carbon capture; and “grey hydrogen” comes from fossil fuels without capture and is far less clean. India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission specifically targets scaling up green hydrogen.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to India’s first indigenous hydrogen train, consider the following statements:

1. The train has been developed by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) of Indian Railways.
2. It is a 10-car passenger trainset powered by an onboard hydrogen fuel cell propulsion system.
3. It will run as a pilot on the Jind-Sonipat section in Haryana.
4. The train has a maximum safe operating speed of 75 kmph during its initial rollout phase.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the operation of a hydrogen fuel cell train:

1. The train burns hydrogen in a conventional engine to produce mechanical energy.
2. Hydrogen is combined with oxygen from the air in a fuel cell stack to generate electricity.
3. The electricity produced runs a propulsion engine that turns the train’s wheels.
4. The only major byproducts of the chemical reaction are water vapour and heat.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to “green hydrogen” and India’s Green Hydrogen Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Green hydrogen is produced by splitting water using renewable electricity.
2. Blue hydrogen is produced from natural gas with carbon capture, while grey hydrogen comes from fossil fuels without capture.
3. India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched in 2023 with an outlay of about ₹19,744 crore.
4. Hydrogen fuel cell technology is only used in passenger road vehicles and has no role in railways.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO):

1. RDSO is the sole research, design, and standardisation organisation of Indian Railways.
2. It was established in 1957 and is headquartered in Lucknow.
3. RDSO functions under the Ministry of Railways.
4. RDSO has played a key role in developing Vande Bharat trains and the hydrogen fuel cell trainset.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (c), Statements 2, 3, 4 are correct. Statement 1 is wrong; a hydrogen fuel cell train does NOT burn hydrogen in a conventional engine. It generates electricity through an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in a fuel cell stack, with no combustion involved.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; hydrogen fuel cell technology is used across multiple transport sectors, including railways (like the new hydrogen train), buses, trucks, ships, and even aircraft prototypes, in addition to passenger cars. It is not limited to road vehicles.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

3. DARPG Launches NeSDA 2025 Portal to Assess India’s Digital Governance and Citizen Service Delivery

Source: PIB

Context:

The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, has launched the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) 2025 Portal. NeSDA is a biennial assessment framework that measures how well Indian states, UTs, and central ministries deliver digital services to citizens and businesses.

Key Highlights

• Portal: NeSDA 2025 Portal.
• Launched by: DARPG, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• Inspired by: UN Online Service Index (OSI).

About the News

What is NeSDA?

NeSDA is a biennial assessment of how well Indian governments deliver digital services to citizens and businesses. It checks availability, ease, security, and actual service delivery from a citizen’s point of view.

What is new in NeSDA 2025?

(a) A dedicated portal for automated data collection. (b) Services under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs included for the first time. (c) Stricter assessment of 59 services in every state and UT, 43 services in every central ministry. (d) Stronger focus on integrated, end-to-end service delivery, not just information availability.

Why is it modelled on the UN Online Service Index?

Because the UN e-Government Survey is the most widely respected global benchmark for online services. NeSDA borrows that methodology but adapts it for India’s federal structure.

Background Concepts

What is the UN Online Service Index (OSI)?

The Online Service Index (OSI) is one of the three sub-indices that make up the UN E-Government Development Index (EGDI), published every two years as part of the UN E-Government Survey. It measures how well a country provides government services online, looking at indicators like website features, content quality, e-information, e-participation, and digital service delivery. Higher OSI scores indicate mature, citizen-centric digital governance. India has used OSI as a conceptual reference while designing NeSDA, but has adapted the methodology to suit its federal, multi-language, large-scale system.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) 2025 Portal, consider the following statements:

1. The NeSDA framework is run by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
2. The framework is conceptually based on the UN Online Service Index (OSI).
3. The 2025 framework includes 59 mandatory services for states and UTs and 43 services for central ministries.
4. NeSDA assessments are conducted on a biennial (once in two years) basis.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the assessment parameters used by NeSDA 2025:

1. The framework measures accessibility, content availability, and ease of use of government portals.
2. It evaluates information security, privacy, and end-service delivery.
3. It includes assessment of Open Government Data and e-Participation features.
4. NeSDA evaluates only information portals and does not assess transaction-handling service portals.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

4. India and Canada Launch Canada-India Trade and Investment Forum

Source: Mint

Context:

Following a three-day visit by India’s Commerce and Industry Minister to Canada, the two countries have launched the Canada-India Trade and Investment Forum, a bilateral high-level institutional platform for trade and investment promotion. The forum is built to deepen economic cooperation, expand market access, and secure resilient supply chains between two countries that have deep diaspora links, complementary economies, and shared democratic values, even after recent diplomatic tensions.

Key Highlights

• Forum: Canada-India Trade and Investment Forum.
• Members: India and Canada.

Six priority sectors:

Sector
Clean energy
Critical minerals
Agri-food
Advanced manufacturing
Digital technologies
Skills development

About the News

What has been launched?

The Canada-India Trade and Investment Forum, a bilateral institutional platform to deepen trade and investment cooperation between India and Canada.

What are its priority sectors?

Clean energy, critical minerals, agri-food, advanced manufacturing, digital technologies, and skills development.

Why is CEPA important?

A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement covers goods trade, services, investment, mobility, and regulatory cooperation. The forum acts as a steering mechanism to drive CEPA negotiations with a target conclusion by end of 2026.

Background Concepts

What is a “Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)”?

A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a deeper form of trade agreement that goes beyond just tariffs on goods. It typically covers goods, services, investment, intellectual property, mobility of professionals, dispute settlement, government procurement, and regulatory cooperation. India already has CEPAs or CEPA-style agreements with Japan, South Korea, the UAE, Mauritius, and the EFTA bloc (Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Liechtenstein), and is negotiating similar agreements with the United Kingdom, the European Union, Oman, and now Canada. A CEPA is more ambitious than a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) because it tries to integrate two economies rather than just reduce tariffs.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recently launched Canada-India Trade and Investment Forum, consider the following statements:

1. The forum was launched after a three-day visit by India’s Commerce and Industry Minister to Canada.
2. Its priority sectors include clean energy, critical minerals, agri-food, advanced manufacturing, digital technologies, and skills development.
3. The forum acts as a steering mechanism for negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), with a shared deadline of end-2026.
4. The forum will integrate with the upcoming Team Canada Trade Mission to India led by Canada’s Minister of International Trade.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreements (CEPAs) and India’s trade architecture:

1. CEPAs are deeper trade agreements that typically cover goods, services, investment, IP, mobility, and regulatory cooperation.
2. India has CEPAs or CEPA-style agreements with Japan, South Korea, and the UAE.
3. India is currently negotiating trade agreements with the United Kingdom, the European Union, and Oman.
4. A CEPA is generally narrower in scope than a Free Trade Agreement (FTA).

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

5. Ministry of Panchayati Raj Holds National Training of Trainers for “Nirbhay Raho” Initiative

Context:

The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has held a three-day National Training of Trainers (ToT) programme in New Delhi, focused on the legal provisions for women’s security, as the first big step under its newly launched “Nirbhay Raho” Initiative. The initiative is a national gender-responsive governance and grassroots capacity-building programme funded through the non-lapsable Nirbhaya Fund of the Union Government.

Key Highlights

• Initiative: Nirbhay Raho.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India.

Aim of the initiative:

(a) Eliminate grassroots gender-based discrimination and violence. (b) Build inclusive, women-friendly Panchayats. (c) Give local rural leaders deep legal awareness and the ability to act as first responders for women’s safety.

Three-pronged framework:

Pillar	Target Group	Focus
Nirbhay Netri	About 14.5 lakh Elected Women Representatives (EWRs)	Legal literacy, leadership, capacity to handle local safety issues
Nirbhay Chetna	About 17.5 lakh Male Elected Representatives	Sensitisation, breaking patriarchal biases, joining gender-equality and safety campaigns
Nirbhay Drishti	Village infrastructure	CCTV and surveillance infrastructure in strategic rural locations

About the News

What is the Nirbhay Raho Initiative?

A national gender-responsive governance and grassroots capacity-building programme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, funded through the Nirbhaya Fund, to make Panchayats women-friendly and turn them into first-responder institutions for women’s safety.

What does the initiative cover?

A three-pronged framework: (a) Nirbhay Netri: training 14.5 lakh Elected Women Representatives. (b) Nirbhay Chetna: sensitising 17.5 lakh Male Elected Representatives. (c) Nirbhay Drishti: installing CCTV and surveillance infrastructure in rural areas.

Background Concepts

What is the Constitutional Backing for Women’s Representation in Panchayats?

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and made them the third tier of government in India. Among its key provisions, the amendment reserves at least one-third of seats for women in all three tiers of Panchayats (Gram, Block, and Zilla), as well as in the office of the Chairperson at each tier. Many states have since raised the women’s reservation to 50 per cent through state laws, including Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal. As a result, today around 46 per cent of all elected PRI members in India are women, which is one of the highest shares of elected women representatives in any country. This deep representation makes Panchayats a natural foundation for any village-level women’s safety and empowerment initiative, including Nirbhay Raho.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Nirbhay Raho Initiative, consider the following statements:

1. The initiative is run by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
2. It is funded through the non-lapsable Nirbhaya Fund.
3. It targets a combined footprint of over 32 lakh elected Panchayat representatives across India.
4. The initiative aims to make Panchayats women-friendly and act as first responders for women’s safety.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the three pillars of the Nirbhay Raho Initiative:

1. Nirbhay Netri focuses on training about 14.5 lakh Elected Women Representatives.
2. Nirbhay Chetna targets the sensitisation of about 17.5 lakh Male Elected Representatives.
3. Nirbhay Drishti funds the installation of CCTV and surveillance infrastructure in strategic rural locations.
4. The training uses a cascading Training of Trainers model with simulations, moot courts, and role-plays.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to the Nirbhaya Fund, consider the following statements:

1. It is a non-lapsable corpus fund set up in the Union Budget of 2013-14.
2. It supports projects related to women’s safety, protection, and empowerment.
3. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal ministry for the fund’s implementation.
4. Initiatives like the Emergency Response Support System (ERSS 112) and One Stop Centres are supported through the fund.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. Consider the following statements about women’s representation in Panchayati Raj Institutions in India:

1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 reserves at least one-third of seats for women in Panchayats.
2. Several Indian states have raised this reservation to 50 per cent through their own state laws.
3. Around 46 per cent of all elected PRI members in India are women.
4. The 73rd Amendment also reserves a share of Chairperson posts at all three Panchayat tiers for women.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (e), All four statements are correct.
3. (e), All four statements are correct.
4. (e), All four statements are correct.

6. Taiwan Overtakes India to Become World’s 5th Largest Stock Market in May 2026

Source: ET

Context:

In May 2026, the Taiwan Stock Exchange has overtaken India to become the world’s fifth largest stock market. Taiwan’s total market capitalisation has reached USD 4.95 trillion, while India’s stands at USD 4.92 trillion, a small but symbolically important gap. The shift has happened even though India has a higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) than Taiwan, and is driven by two main forces. First, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-led semiconductor boom has lifted Taiwan’s market, particularly Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Company (TSMC), whose shares have surged about 45 to 50 per cent in 2026 alone and which now makes up nearly 42 per cent of Taiwan’s Taiex index.

Market capitalisation:

Market	Capitalisation
Taiwan Stock Exchange	USD 4.95 trillion
Indian Stock Market	USD 4.92 trillion

New Global Top 7 Stock Markets:

Rank	Country
1	United States
2	China
3	Japan
4	Hong Kong
5	Taiwan
6	India
7	South Korea

Background Concepts

What is “Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), and How Does It Affect Markets?

Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to investment by foreign investors in financial assets of another country, including listed stocks, bonds, and derivatives, without seeking management control of the underlying companies. FPI flows are typically short-term and volatile, often driven by interest rate differentials, currency expectations, global risk sentiment, and index weights. In India, FPIs are registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Foreign Portfolio Investors) Regulations, 2019, and are categorised into Category I and Category II. When FPIs invest, stock prices and the rupee tend to rise; when FPIs withdraw money (called outflows), stock indices fall, the rupee weakens, and bond yields can rise. The 2026 FPI outflows from India are one of the key reasons behind the country’s slip in the global stock market ranking, even as domestic mutual funds and SIP investors continue to provide a strong domestic buffer.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent ranking of global stock markets, consider the following statements:

1. Taiwan Stock Exchange has overtaken India to become the world’s 5th largest stock market.
2. Taiwan’s market capitalisation has reached around USD 4.95 trillion, slightly higher than India’s USD 4.92 trillion.
3. The shift is driven mainly by an AI-led semiconductor boom and the rally in TSMC shares.
4. India remains ahead of Taiwan in terms of overall Gross Domestic Product.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about the factors behind India’s relative slip in the global stock market ranking:

1. India has faced Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) outflows in recent months.
2. India’s weight in the MSCI Emerging Markets Index has been reduced.
3. High valuations and a limited number of large AI-linked listed firms have weighed on Indian markets.
4. India’s overall GDP is now smaller than Taiwan’s GDP.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Banking/Finance

1. One MobiKwik Receives RBI In-Principle Approval for Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P) Licence

Context:

One MobiKwik Systems Limited, the parent company of MobiKwik, has received an in-principle approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P) licence. The approval allows the fintech firm to offer payment aggregation services to physical, offline merchants across India. Until now, MobiKwik mainly operated in the digital and online payments space; the new licence lets it cover physical retail stores as well, helping it become a complete payments platform for online and offline transactions.

Key Highlights

• Company: One MobiKwik Systems Limited (parent of MobiKwik).
• Approval: In-principle approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Licence: Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P).
• Scope: Offline / in-store digital payments.

What MobiKwik can now do under the PA-P licence:

Service	Use Case
Point-of-Sale (PoS) acceptance	In-store card and digital payments using PoS terminals
QR-based payments	Static and dynamic QR codes at retail counters
Merchant settlement solutions	Settling proceeds to merchant bank accounts
Soundbox deployment	Audio confirmation devices for small shops that hear transaction success in their local language
EDC (Electronic Data Capture) machines	Card swipe and digital payment acceptance hardware

Difference between PA-Online and PA-Physical:

Type	What It Covers
Payment Aggregator-Online (PA-Online)	E-commerce, subscriptions, app-based and website-based digital merchant payments
Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-Physical or PA-P)	In-store, offline retail merchant payments using PoS, QR, and EDC

Key regulatory:

• Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (PSSA): parent law that governs payment systems in India.
• RBI Guidelines on Regulation of Payment Aggregators and Payment Gateways, 2020: brought online PAs under RBI regulation.
• Master Directions on Digital Payment Security Controls, 2021.
• Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 for grievance redressal.
• PA-P framework: regulatory architecture for offline payment aggregators finalised by the RBI in 2024.

About the News (Q&A)

What has MobiKwik received from the RBI?

An in-principle approval for a Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P) licence, which allows it to provide payment aggregation services to physical, offline merchants.

What is a Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P)?

A PA-P is a payment aggregator that handles in-store, offline retail merchant payments, using PoS terminals, QR-based payments, soundboxes, and EDC machines. It complements Online Payment Aggregators (PA-Online), which handle e-commerce and app/website-based payments.

What services can MobiKwik now offer?

(a) PoS-based card and digital payments. (b) QR-based payments. (c) Soundbox deployment for audio confirmation of receipts. (d) EDC machine deployment. (e) Merchant settlement services.

Background Concepts

What is a Payment Aggregator (PA)?

A Payment Aggregator (PA) is a regulated financial entity that enables merchants to accept payments from customers through multiple payment methods, including cards, UPI, net banking, wallets, and QR codes, without each merchant needing a separate agreement with every bank or payment network. The PA receives the customer’s payment in an escrow account, then settles the funds to the merchant’s bank account, usually within T+1 day. PAs are governed by the RBI Guidelines on Regulation of Payment Aggregators and Payment Gateways, 2020, issued under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (PSSA). They are required to obtain RBI authorisation, maintain a minimum net worth of ₹15 crore at the end of the third financial year of operations, follow strict KYC, AML, fund-handling, and IT security norms, and operate an escrow account for customer funds. PAs are different from Payment Gateways (PGs), which only provide the technology layer to transmit payment data and do not handle funds.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent RBI approval to One MobiKwik Systems Limited, consider the following statements:

1. MobiKwik has received in-principle approval for a Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P) licence.
2. The PA-P licence allows MobiKwik to provide payment aggregation services to offline, physical merchants.
3. Services covered include Point-of-Sale (PoS) acceptance, QR-based payments, and merchant settlement.
4. MobiKwik plans to scale up soundboxes and EDC machines at merchant locations.

How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. Consider the following statements about Payment Aggregators (PAs) in India:

1. Payment Aggregators are regulated under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
2. The RBI issued comprehensive Guidelines on Regulation of Payment Aggregators and Payment Gateways in 2020.
3. A PA receives customer payments in an escrow account and settles funds to merchant bank accounts.
4. Payment Aggregators are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q3. With reference to the difference between Payment Aggregator-Online (PA-Online) and Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P), consider the following statements:

1. PA-Online covers e-commerce, subscriptions, and app or website-based merchant payments.
2. PA-Physical (PA-P) covers in-store, offline retail merchant payments using PoS, QR, and EDC.
3. The PA-P framework allows companies to operate offline payment aggregation under direct RBI supervision.
4. PA-Online and PA-P are governed by completely different parent laws and regulators.

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Q4. Consider the following statements about Soundboxes used at merchant locations in India:

1. Soundboxes provide audio confirmation of digital payments in local languages.
2. They help merchants confirm UPI and other digital payments without checking their phone each time.
3. They have helped drive digital payment adoption among small offline merchants like kirana shops.
4. Soundboxes are regulated solely by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (e) All four

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; Payment Aggregators are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), NOT SEBI. SEBI regulates the securities markets.
3. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; both PA-Online and PA-P are regulated by the RBI under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 and related RBI guidelines. They are not governed by different parent laws or regulators.
4. (a), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Statement 4 is wrong; soundboxes are part of the digital payments ecosystem and are governed by RBI’s payment system regulations, NOT TRAI. TRAI regulates telecom services, not payment devices.

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, payment systems, fintech
SEBI, IRDAI	Financial regulation awareness
NABARD Grade A	Banking and digital finance

Facts To Remember

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7. MobiKwik Receives RBI Approval for Offline Payment Aggregator Licence

One MobiKwik Systems Limited received in-principle approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a Payment Aggregator-Physical (PA-P) licence. The approval enables the company to offer payment aggregation services for offline merchants through Point-of-Sale (PoS) systems, QR payments, and merchant settlement solutions. MobiKwik plans to expand deployment of soundboxes and electronic data capture machines to strengthen its offline merchant network.

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32. International Everest Day 2026 Observed on May 29

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