Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 24 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
24 June, 2026

National Affairs

1. India Ranks 13th Globally and 1st Among Lower-Middle-Income Economies in QS World Future Skills Index 2027

Source: IE

Context

India has been ranked 13th globally and first among lower-middle-income economies in the QS World Future Skills Index 2027, released by London-based Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), the global higher education and skills analytics firm. The Index assesses how prepared countries are to tackle the evolving demands of the global labour market in an AI-driven future, evaluating nations across four key indicators — Skills Fit, Academic Readiness, Future of Work, and Economic Transformation. India scored 89.4 out of 100, with particularly strong performances in Future of Work readiness (5th globally) and Economic Transformation (14th). According to QS President Nunzio Quacquarelli, India has “built formidable scale over the past decade”, supported by rapid economic growth, a large pool of graduates, the world’s largest IT workforce, and the largest number of tertiary-educated individuals in the world — giving it the potential to be the fastest-growing economy over the next decade. However, the report flags persistent concerns around talent quality and skill alignment, with the next challenge being to improve the quality and relevance of locally produced skills. Quacquarelli highlighted the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 as an “ambitious attempt” to address these challenges, while emphasising that even regional implementation, transnational education partnerships (branch campuses), and collaborative delivery models complemented by rising research strengths can help India close skills gaps faster and expand global talent pipelines. The Index is powered by QS 1Mentor data from over 280 million job postings, the QS Global Employer Survey, and economic statistics from the World Bank Group.

India’s Performance in QS World Future Skills Index 2027

Metric	Value
Overall Global Rank	13th (out of ~80+ countries)
Rank Among Lower-Middle-Income Economies	1st
Overall Score	89.4 / 100
Future of Work Rank	5th globally
Economic Transformation Rank	14th globally

India’s Performance Across Indicators

Indicator	India’s Score (/100)	India’s Global Rank
Economic Capacity (sub-indicator)	100.0	1st (Highest in the world)
Future of Work	96.0	5th
Economic Transformation	93.3	14th
Academic Readiness	85.7	22nd
Skills Alignment (Skills Fit)	82.7	18th
Overall Index Score	89.4	13th
Human Capital Index (HCI)	—	73rd

QS Future Skills Index 2027 — Top 15 Nations

Rank	Economy	Overall Score (/100)	Primary Strength
1	United States	99.2	Skills Alignment
2	Australia	97.5	Academic Readiness
3	United Kingdom	96.6	Academic Readiness
4	Germany	95.5	Future of Work
5	Canada	93.7	Academic Readiness
6	South Korea	93.4	Economic Transformation
7	China	92.5	Economic Transformation
8	Netherlands	91.9	Academic Readiness
9	Spain	91.7	Academic Readiness
10	Switzerland	91.6	Academic Readiness
11	France	91.2	Academic Readiness
12	Singapore	91.1	Economic Transformation
13	India	89.4	Future of Work
14	Sweden	89.2	Economic Transformation
15	Japan	89.0	Skills Alignment

India’s Peer-Group Performance

Peer Group	India’s Rank	Nearest Peer
South Asia	1st	Bangladesh (67th globally)
Lower-Middle-Income Nations	1st	Philippines (38th globally)

India’s Trajectory in the QS World Future Skills Index

Edition	Year	India’s Rank	Notes
Inaugural Index	2025	25th	2nd in Future of Work (after US)
QS Future Skills Index 2026	2026	—	Progressively improved
QS Future Skills Index 2027	2027 edition	13th	89.4/100 score, 1st in lower-middle-income

Quacquarelli Symonds (QS)

• What: A global higher education and skills analytics firm specialising in university rankings, employer surveys, and skills research; publisher of the QS World University Rankings (since 2004), QS World Future Skills Index (inaugural 2025), and other education performance metrics; uses proprietary data sources like QS 1Mentor (280M+ job postings) and QS Global Employer Survey.
• Where: HQ in London, United Kingdom; offices in Singapore, Mumbai, Stuttgart, Sydney, Boston, Tokyo, Bucharest, Alicante, Shanghai; rankings cover universities in 90+ countries.

QS World Future Skills Index

• What: A global ranking system that evaluates countries’ readiness to meet future labour market demands, particularly in the AI-driven, digital, and green economy; uses 4 indicators powered by 13 sub-indicators; sub-indicators are equally weighted at 25%; combines proprietary QS data with third-party data from World Bank Group, UNESCO Institute for Statistics, and Education Policy Institute; assesses 80+ countries.
• Where: Developed and published by QS from London; assesses countries globally based on data from job postings, university rankings, and economic indicators.

The Four Indicators of QS World Future Skills Index

Indicator	What it Measures	India’s Performance
Skills Fit	Alignment between workforce skills and employer demand	Lower than APAC peers; gap in Entrepreneurial & Innovative Mindset
Academic Readiness	Higher education’s preparation for future skills (AI, Digital, Green)	Strong in AI, Digital; gap in Green skills
Future of Work	Job market readiness for AI, digital, and green roles	5th globally (89.4 score helped)
Economic Transformation	Country’s economic capacity to lead AI, digital, green industries	14th globally

Sub-Indicators (13 in Total)

• Skills Fit Sub-indicators: Industry alignment, employer satisfaction, graduate outcomes.
• Academic Readiness Sub-indicators: AI, Digital, Green (based on QS World University Rankings by Subject).
• Future of Work Sub-indicators: AI, Digital, Green (based on QS 1Mentor job postings).
• Economic Transformation Sub-indicators: Financial capacity, innovation, sustainability.

India’s Strengths Highlighted in the Index

• World’s largest IT workforce (~5.4 million IT professionals).
• Largest number of tertiary-educated individuals in the world.
• Second-largest destination for VC and growth funding in Asia Pacific.
• 59% of Indian companies actively use AI (per IBM Global AI Adoption Index).
• 69 Indian universities featured in QS World University Rankings by Subject 2024 (52 in QS WUR 2027 overall).
• Outperforms BRICS average in Academic Readiness.
• Strong Future of Work score: 99.1.
• Fastest-growing G20 economy in 2024.

National Education Policy (NEP) 2020

• What: A comprehensive reform of India’s education system approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020, replacing NEP 1986; introduces 5+3+3+4 school structure, multidisciplinary higher education, internationalisation, Indian Knowledge Systems integration, research and innovation focus, mother-tongue instruction, vocational integration; targets GER of 50% in higher education by 2035.
• Where: Implemented across India by the Ministry of Education; specific implementation plans by states and UTs.

Other India Skills/Education Reports

Report	Body	Key Finding
QS World Future Skills Index 2027	QS	India 13th, score 89.4, 5th in Future of Work
India Skills Report (ISR) 2026	ETS, CII, AICTE, AIU, Taggd	Employability 56.35% (up from 46.2% in 2022)
QS World University Rankings 2027	QS	India 4th globally with 52 universities (after US, UK, China)
Global Innovation Index 2025	WIPO	India 38th globally, 1st among lower-middle-income
WEF Future of Jobs Report 2025	WEF	India among top countries for tech talent demand

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the QS World Future Skills Index 2027, consider the following statements:

1. India was ranked 13th globally and first among lower-middle-income economies.
2. India scored 89.4 out of 100.
3. India ranked 5th globally in the Future of Work readiness indicator.
4. The QS World Future Skills Index is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the QS World Future Skills Index is published by Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), a London-based higher education firm, NOT the UNDP.)

Q2. With reference to the four key indicators of the QS World Future Skills Index, consider the following statements:

1. The four indicators are Skills Fit, Academic Readiness, Future of Work, and Economic Transformation.
2. Each indicator is equally weighted at 25%.
3. India ranked 14th globally in Economic Transformation in the 2027 edition.
4. India scored highest globally in Environmental Performance and Sustainability.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is ranked 176th in the Environmental Performance Index, indicating weak performance in green/sustainability metrics, NOT a highest global score.)

Q3. With reference to Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), consider the following statements:

1. QS is a London-based global higher education and skills analytics firm.
2. It publishes the QS World University Rankings, QS Future Skills Index, and other education performance metrics.
3. Nunzio Quacquarelli is the President of QS.
4. QS is a department of the World Bank Group.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; QS is an independent private firm, NOT a department of the World Bank Group. World Bank data is one of the third-party data sources used in QS Index.)

Q4. With reference to India’s strengths highlighted in the QS World Future Skills Index 2027, consider the following statements:

1. India has the world’s largest IT workforce.
2. India has the largest number of tertiary-educated individuals in the world.
3. India is the second-largest destination for venture capital and growth funding in the Asia Pacific region.
4. India scored the highest globally in Skills Fit indicator.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s Skills Fit score is lower than APAC peers, with a notable gap in Entrepreneurial & Innovative Mindset, NOT the highest globally.)

Q5. With reference to the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020, consider the following statements:

1. NEP 2020 was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020.
2. It replaces the NEP 1986 (revised in 1992).
3. It introduces a 5+3+3+4 school structure replacing the 10+2 system.
4. NEP 2020 is implemented exclusively by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; NEP 2020 is implemented primarily by the Ministry of Education, with coordination across multiple ministries and states/UTs.)

Q6. With reference to India’s recent education and skill rankings, consider the following statements:

1. In the QS World University Rankings 2027, India had 52 universities featured, ranking 4th globally after the US, UK, and China.
2. The India Skills Report (ISR) 2026 reported India’s overall employability at 56.35%.
3. India ranked 38th in the Global Innovation Index 2025, first among lower-middle-income economies.
4. India’s R&D expenditure stands at 5% of GDP, ahead of OECD average.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s R&D spending is only 0.64% of GDP, well below the OECD average of ~2.5%.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because QS publishes the Index, not UNDP.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is 176th in EPI, not highest.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because QS is independent of the World Bank.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Skills Fit is below APAC peers.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Ministry of Education implements NEP.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India’s R&D is only 0.64% of GDP.

2. Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA)

Source: Indian Express

Context

The Union Government is moving to finalise the demarcation of Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) in the Western Ghats in a phased, state-wise manner, starting with Gujarat — where consensus on boundaries has been achieved — followed by Maharashtra and Goa. Notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, an ESA is a legally protected geographic zone with a customised management regime to protect highly fragile, biologically rich ecosystems from industrial degradation while allowing pre-existing human settlements to engage in sustainable development. The latest sixth draft notification, issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) on 31 July 2024 (valid till end of July 2026), proposes 56,825.7 sq km across six states — Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu — as ESA. For the first time, the 2024 draft includes a phased state-wise notification clause allowing the Centre to finalise boundaries sequentially, bypassing the long-standing six-state deadlock. The proposed regime would prohibit highly disruptive activities like new mining and quarrying, thermal power plants, red-category polluting industries, and commercial buildings/townships with built-up area ≥ 20,000 sq m. The framework has evolved through three key milestones: the Madhav Gadgil Panel (2010–11), the K. Kasturirangan Working Group (2012–13), the 2014 Baseline Draft, and the ongoing Sanjay Kumar Committee (2022–26). The Committee — led by former Director General of Forests Sanjay Kumar — is reconciling village-level revenue maps with satellite imagery, examining state objections, and finalising the phased execution strategy. It also proposes financial incentives through a grant-in-aid scheme and a Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) programme. While Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Goa have agreed in principle, Karnataka has outright rejected the Kasturirangan recommendations and Kerala seeks exclusion of Cardamom Hills and parts of Idukki.

Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA)

• What: A legally protected geographic zone notified under Sections 3(1), 3(2)(v), and 5(1) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 read with Rule 5(1) of the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986; features a customised management regime to protect highly fragile, biologically rich ecosystems from industrial degradation while permitting pre-existing human settlements to engage in sustainable development; restrictions acquire full legal force upon notification.
• Where: Notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) based on ecological and biodiversity assessments; existing ESAs include Mount Abu (Rajasthan), Mahabaleshwar-Panchgani (Maharashtra), Matheran (Maharashtra), Aravalli range, Murud-Janjira (Maharashtra), Doon Valley (Uttarakhand).

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

• What: A central legislation that protects and improves the environment and prevents hazards to humans, other living creatures, plants, and property; enacted in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984); an umbrella legislation that empowers the Central Government to take all necessary measures for environment protection.
• Where: Enacted by Parliament; administered by MoEFCC, New Delhi; applicable across India.

Key Features of the Proposed ESA Plan

1. Prohibited Red-Category Activities:
   • New mining and quarrying (excluding minor minerals in non-forest areas).
   • Sand extraction.
   • Thermal power plants (new and expansion).
   • Red-category polluting industries (as per CPCB classification).
2. Infrastructure & Construction Caps:
   • New + expansion projects of commercial buildings and townships with built-up area ≥ 20,000 sq m — BANNED.
3. Phased, State-Wise Notification Clause:
   • Centre can finalise ESA boundaries for individual states sequentially.
   • Eliminates the need for simultaneous six-state consensus.
4. Reconciliation of Village-Level Data:
   • High-resolution satellite imagery cross-checked with state revenue registers.
   • Eliminates data discrepancies (settlements/plantations wrongly classified as forest).
5. Financial Compensation Framework:
   • Grant-in-aid from Centre to states for ecological protection.
   • Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) for local communities:
     • Clean water provision.
     • Carbon sequestration.
     • Biodiversity conservation.

Western Ghats — Ecological Significance

Feature	Details
Length	~1,500 km along India’s western coast
Total Area	~1,60,000 sq km
Spread	Six states (Gujarat to Tamil Nadu)
UNESCO World Heritage	Inscribed 2012 (39 component sites)
Biodiversity Hotspots Rank	One of the 8 “hottest hotspots” of biological diversity globally
Geological Age	Older than the Himalayas
Endemic Species	~5,000 flowering plants, 325+ globally threatened species, ~290 freshwater fishes, ~219 amphibians, ~227 reptiles
Rivers Originated	Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, Tungabhadra, Periyar, Vaigai
Monsoon Role	Acts as barrier channelling SW monsoon rainfall onto coastal plains

India’s Four Biodiversity Hotspots

1. Western Ghats.
2. Eastern Himalayas.
3. Indo-Burma region.
4. Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Centre’s proposed Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) notification for the Western Ghats in 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The latest draft notification, issued on 31 July 2024, is valid until end of July 2026 and proposes 56,825.7 sq km across six states.
2. The 2024 draft, for the first time, allows the Centre to notify ESA boundaries in a phased, state-wise manner.
3. The Centre is starting the phased notification with Gujarat, where consensus has been achieved.
4. The ESA notification is being issued under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; ESAs are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, NOT the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.)

Q2. With reference to the Madhav Gadgil Panel and the K. Kasturirangan Working Group, consider the following statements:

1. The Madhav Gadgil Panel (2010–11) recommended that the entire Western Ghats extent (1,29,037 sq km) be designated as an ESA.
2. The Kasturirangan Working Group (2012–13) proposed that only the 40% natural landscape (~60,000 sq km) be declared as ESA, excluding the 60% cultural landscape.
3. The Madhav Gadgil Panel recommended a bottom-up governance approach via Gram Sabhas and panchayats.
4. The Kasturirangan Working Group was chaired by a former Chairman of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Dr. K. Kasturirangan was the former Chairman of ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation), NOT ICAR.)

Q3. With reference to the proposed ESA plan’s restrictions, consider the following statements:

1. New mining and quarrying activities are proposed to be prohibited.
2. Thermal power plants and red-category polluting industries are proposed to be banned.
3. New and expansion projects of commercial buildings and townships with built-up area of 20,000 sq m or above are proposed to be prohibited.
4. The plan proposes a complete ban on all existing agriculture and human settlements in the notified ESA.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the plan explicitly allows pre-existing settlements and agriculture to continue sustainable development; it does NOT prohibit them.)

Q4. With reference to state positions on the Western Ghats ESA plan, consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat has agreed to ESA notification for approximately 449–470 sq km across 64 villages.
2. Karnataka has outright rejected the Kasturirangan Committee recommendations.
3. Kerala has sought exclusion of the Cardamom Hills and parts of Idukki from the proposed ESA.
4. Maharashtra has rejected the entire proposal and refused to participate in the phased notification.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Maharashtra has agreed in principle to the proposal but has sought exclusion of 378 villages; it has NOT rejected the entire proposal.)

Q5. With reference to the Western Ghats, consider the following statements:

1. The Western Ghats extend approximately 1,500 km along India’s western coast across six states.
2. They are recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, inscribed in 2012.
3. They are one of the eight “hottest hotspots” of biological diversity in the world.
4. The Western Ghats are geologically younger than the Himalayas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Western Ghats are geologically OLDER than the Himalayas, NOT younger.)

Q6. With reference to the financial compensation and committee framework, consider the following statements:

1. The Sanjay Kumar Committee was constituted in 2022 under a former Director General of Forests to reconcile village-level data and finalise the phased execution strategy.
2. The proposed framework includes a grant-in-aid economic incentive system from the Centre.
3. It also includes a structured Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) programme for local communities.
4. The proposed PES framework is being implemented under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the proposed PES framework will be implemented under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 framework for ESAs, NOT the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ESA notification is under EPA, 1986.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Kasturirangan was former ISRO Chairman.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because existing settlements and agriculture are allowed.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Maharashtra agreed in principle.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Western Ghats are older than the Himalayas.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because PES is under EPA 1986 framework for ESAs.

3. Centre Tightens FCRA Rules

Source: The Hindu

Context

The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has notified the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2026 on Monday, 22 June 2026, significantly tightening the regulatory framework for Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) and associations receiving foreign contributions in India. The amendments modify the existing FCRA Rules, 2011, framed under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010. Under the revised rules, NGOs seeking foreign funds must register under one of five categories — social, economic, educational, cultural, or religious — and stick to a specific list of activities prescribed in a new Schedule. For the first time, separate activity lists have been laid out for each category, ending broader interpretations. NGOs must now disclose their activities, geographical scope, websites, social media accounts, and publications; pay separate fees for each category and State/Union Territory they operate in (with an additional fee of ₹300 for each extra purpose/state); and broaden the definition of “key functionary” to include trustees, partners, Karta of HUFs, governing body members, and anyone managing the organisation. Foreign nationals (other than Persons of Indian Origin) as key functionaries will ordinarily not be eligible for registration. New registrations must follow the new norms immediately; existing registrations have one year to comply. Violations attract a minimum fine of ₹1 lakh. The amendments also explicitly exclude religious conversion from permissible religious activities and continue the 2020 framework restricting administrative expenses to 20% and requiring contributions in a designated SBI New Delhi account. The MHA framed the amendments as a step to bring uniformity in Foreign Contribution (F-C) forms and avoid duplication.

The Amendment

• Date of Notification: 22 June 2026 (Monday).
• Notified by: Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• Name: Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2026.
• Modifies: FCRA Rules, 2011 (framed under FCRA, 2010).
• Effective: Came into force immediately (with one-year window for existing NGOs).

The Five Categories of FCRA Registration

1. Social — poverty alleviation, women empowerment, child welfare, healthcare.
2. Economic — livelihood, economic development, rural development.
3. Educational — schools, scholarships, vocational training.
4. Cultural — art, music, heritage preservation.
5. Religious — places of worship, religious education, pilgrim amenities (EXCLUDING religious conversion).

Key Changes Introduced

Feature	Previous Framework	New Framework
Activity Specification	Broad category-level approval	Specific list of activities per category (prescribed Schedule)
Geographical Scope	Pan-India registration	State/UT-specific declaration
Disclosure	Limited	Mandatory disclosure of social media, websites, publications
Fees	Single registration fee	Separate fee per category and per State/UT (additional ₹300 each)
Compliance for Existing NGOs	No standardised review	One-year window to align with new norms
Penalty for Violation	Variable	Minimum fine of ₹1 lakh
Key Functionary	Office-bearers and directors	Broadened to include trustees, partners, Karta of HUFs, governing body members, and any controlling person
Foreign Nationals as Functionaries	Permitted	Ordinarily not eligible (except PIOs)
Publications Disclosure	Not mandatory	Mandatory — books, magazines, articles
Religious Activities	Broadly defined	Explicit list; conversion EXCLUDED
Utilisation Threshold	Not specified	75% of received foreign funds must be utilised before next instalment

New “Chief Executive”/”Key Functionary” Definition

The amended rules formally define key functionary/Chief Executive to include:

• Directors of companies.
• Partners of firms.
• Trustees of trusts.
• Office-bearers of societies, trade unions, and associations.
• Karta of a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF).
• Governing body members.
• Managing committee members.
• Any other person responsible for management or control of the organisation.

Restrictions on Foreign Nationals

• Organisations with foreign nationals (other than Persons of Indian Origin) as key functionaries:
  • Ordinarily not eligible for FCRA registration.
  • Ordinarily not eligible for prior permission.
  • Exception: Specifically permitted by the Centre.

Religious Category — Specific Permitted Activities (Per New Schedule)

• Construction, renovation, maintenance of temples, mosques, churches, gurudwaras, monasteries, synagogues, and other religious sites.
• Preservation, printing, translation, digitisation of sacred scriptures and commentaries.
• Religious philosophy and history institutions support.
• Pilgrim amenities: drinking water, sanitation, shelter.
• Religious education.
• Interfaith dialogue and peace initiatives.

Penalty for Violations

• Minimum Fine: ₹1 lakh per violation.
• Notified via separate MHA order.

About the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (Verified)

Feature	Details
Predecessor	FCRA, 1976 (enacted during Emergency)
Year of Enactment	2010
Presidential Assent	26 September 2010
Implementing Authority	Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Rules Notified	FCRA Rules, 2011
Major Amendments	2020 Amendment Act, 2022 Rules, 2026 Rules
Registration Validity	5 years (renewable)

FCRA Historical Evolution

Year	Milestone
1976	FCRA enacted during Emergency to regulate foreign donations
1984	Amendment requiring NGO registration with MHA
2010 (29 September)	FCRA, 2010 enacted (received Presidential assent 26 Sept 2010)
2011	FCRA Rules, 2011 notified
2018	Definition of “foreign source” modified
September 2020	FCRA Amendment Act, 2020 — tightened framework
2022	FCRA Rules, 2022 — annual remittance limit raised to ₹10 lakh
March 2026	FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026 introduced (designated authority provisions)
22 June 2026	FCRA Amendment Rules, 2026 notified — current changes

Key Provisions of FCRA, 2010

• Registration validity: 5 years.
• Designated FCRA Account: SBI New Delhi, 11 Sansad Marg branch.
• Administrative expenses cap: 20% of foreign contribution received (down from 50% in 2010).
• Aadhaar mandatory for key functionaries.
• No transfer of foreign contributions to other entities (even if FCRA-licensed).
• Suspension period: Up to 360 days (extended from 180).
• Asset takeover: Section 15 enables vesting of assets in prescribed authority on cancellation.

Prohibited Recipients of Foreign Contributions

• Election candidates.
• Editors, journalists of registered newspapers.
• Government servants and employees.
• Members of legislatures.
• Political parties and their office-bearers.
• Political nature organisations.
• Judges.
• Media broadcasting companies.

About the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026 (March 2026)

• Introduced: 25 March 2026 in Parliament.
• Inserts Chapter IIIA: Provides for “designated authority” to take over, manage, or dispose of assets created with foreign funds if FCRA registration is suspended, cancelled, surrendered, or expired.
• Effect: Centralises state control over assets of de-registered NGOs.
• Backdrop: Already cancelled licenses of ~21,933 NGOs as of March 2026.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The amendments were notified by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs on 22 June 2026.
2. NGOs must now register under one of five specified categories — social, economic, educational, cultural, or religious.
3. For the first time, separate activity lists have been prescribed for each of the five categories.
4. The amendments were notified by the Ministry of External Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the amendments were notified by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), NOT the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the disclosure and compliance requirements under the 2026 FCRA Amendment Rules, consider the following statements:

1. NGOs must disclose their websites, social media accounts, and publications.
2. NGOs must declare the specific state(s) or Union Territory(ies) where they intend to operate.
3. Existing FCRA-registered associations have a one-year window to align with the new requirements.
4. The minimum fine for violations has been set at ₹10 lakh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the minimum fine for violations is ₹1 lakh, NOT ₹10 lakh.)

Q3. With reference to the definition of “key functionary” under the amended FCRA Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The definition has been broadened to include trustees, partners, and Karta of a Hindu Undivided Family.
2. It also includes governing body members and anyone else controlling or managing the organisation.
3. Organisations with foreign nationals (other than Persons of Indian Origin) as key functionaries will ordinarily not be eligible for registration, unless specifically permitted by the Centre.
4. The amended definition excludes office-bearers and directors of companies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the definition includes office-bearers and directors of companies, NOT excludes them.)

Q4. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, consider the following statements:

1. The Act replaced the original Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 1976, which was enacted during the Emergency period.
2. FCRA registration is valid for five years and is renewable.
3. Foreign contributions must be received through a designated account at the State Bank of India, New Delhi branch.
4. The FCRA Act is administered by the Ministry of Finance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), NOT the Ministry of Finance.)

Q5. With reference to the FCRA Amendment Act, 2020, consider the following statements:

1. The cap on administrative expenditure was reduced from 50% to 20% of foreign contributions received.
2. Aadhaar was made mandatory for key functionaries of FCRA-registered NGOs.
3. All foreign contributions must be received in a designated FCRA account at the SBI New Delhi main branch.
4. The Amendment Act allowed unrestricted transfer of foreign contributions to other FCRA-registered NGOs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 2020 Amendment prohibited transfer of foreign contributions to any other entity, even FCRA-registered ones.)

Q6. With reference to permissible religious activities under the FCRA Amendment Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Construction, renovation, and maintenance of places of worship like temples, mosques, churches, and gurudwaras are permitted.
2. Preservation, printing, translation, and digitisation of sacred scriptures are permitted.
3. Religious conversion activities (proselytisation) are explicitly excluded from permissible religious activities.
4. NGOs receiving foreign funds for religious activities can fund political campaigns aligned with their religious objectives.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the FCRA explicitly prohibits foreign contributions for political activities, including those linked to religious objectives.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because MHA (not MEA) notified the rules.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the minimum fine is ₹1 lakh.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because office-bearers and directors are included.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because MHA administers FCRA.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because 2020 Amendment prohibited transfers.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because political activities are prohibited.

4. President Droupadi Murmu Visits Kuno National Park

Source: News on Air

Context

President Droupadi Murmu visited Kuno National Park (KNP) in Sheopur district, Madhya Pradesh, on 21–22 June 2026, where she toured the Cheetah Management Area, visited the Cheetah Command and Control Centre, viewed an exhibition on Project Cheetah, went on a safari, and interacted with members of the Sahariya tribal community, Cheetah Mitras (Cheetah Friends), cheetah trackers, tourist guides, and the Kuno field team. The President was briefed on the progress of Project Cheetah — India’s flagship initiative launched on 17 September 2022 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) — to reintroduce the cheetah in India after its local extinction in 1952. India currently hosts about 52–57 cheetahs, with ~49 at Kuno and 3 relocated to Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary. The visit had special significance because the President had personally witnessed the symbolic handover of eight cheetahs by Botswana during her state visit to Botswana in November 2025; those cheetahs were brought to Kuno in February 2026, marking the third international batch after Namibia (September 2022) and South Africa (February 2023). Kuno was originally developed in the 1990s as an alternative habitat for Asiatic lions (Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project) and has a rich history dating back to 1564 when Mughal Emperor Akbar captured a herd of elephants in the nearby Shivpuri forests. The President was accompanied by Madhya Pradesh Governor Mangubhai Patel and District In-charge Minister Rakesh Shukla during the visit, which marked the culmination of her five-day Madhya Pradesh tour.

The Visit

• Visitor: President Droupadi Murmu.
• Venue: Kuno National Park (KNP), Sheopur district, Madhya Pradesh.
• Accompanied by: Governor Mangubhai Patel, Minister Rakesh Shukla.
• Activities: Toured Cheetah Management Area, Cheetah Command and Control Centre, viewed exhibition, went on safari, interacted with Sahariya tribe, Cheetah Mitras, trackers, guides.

Kuno National Park (KNP)

• What: A highly significant protected area serving as India’s first and primary cheetah reintroduction site under Project Cheetah; established as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1981; upgraded to National Park in 2018; originally developed in the 1990s as an alternative habitat for Asiatic lions; covers a leaf-shaped landscape of dry deciduous forests centered on the Kuno River; rich grasslands and savanna habitat ideal for fast-moving predators like cheetahs.
• Where: Situated in Sheopur district (Narnaud tehsil), Madhya Pradesh, roughly 150 km northwest of New Delhi; core National Park area of 748 sq km within the larger 1,235 sq km Kuno Wildlife Division; lies in the Vindhyan Hills of Central India; part of the Sheopur-Shivpuri deciduous open forest landscape.

Project Cheetah

• What: India’s flagship inter-continental conservation programme launched on 17 September 2022 by PM Narendra Modi on his 72nd birthday; aims to reintroduce the cheetah in India after the last one died in 1947 in Korea district (now Chhattisgarh) and officially declared extinct in 1952; the world’s first inter-continental cheetah translocation; target: establish a viable cheetah metapopulation in India that allows the cheetah to perform its functional role as a top predator.
• Where: Implemented at Kuno National Park (primary site) and Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary (secondary site) in Madhya Pradesh; under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); managed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

Cheetah Species

• Scientific Name: Acinonyx jubatus.
• Status: World’s fastest land animal (up to 100 km/h).
• Conservation Status: Vulnerable (IUCN Red List); CITES Appendix I.
• Adaptations: Slim body, long legs, large nasal cavity, semi-retractable claws.
• Habitat: Dry forests, grasslands, open plains, deserts.
• Water needs: Low (can survive in dry regions).
• Subspecies: African Cheetah (now in India), Asiatic Cheetah (critically endangered, ~20 left in Iran).

Sahariya Tribe

• What: One of the most vulnerable Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in central India; scheduled tribe in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan; historically inhabit the Sheopur, Shivpuri, Guna belt; key stakeholders in Project Cheetah as Cheetah Mitras.
• Where: Concentrated in Sheopur, Shivpuri, Guna, Morena districts of Madhya Pradesh and Baran district of Rajasthan.

Cheetah Mitras

• What: Trained volunteers (many from the Sahariya tribe) who serve as community ambassadors for cheetah conservation; sensitise local villagers about cheetah behaviour, importance of co-existence, and conservation needs; play a key role in reducing human-wildlife conflict.
• Where: Operate in villages around Kuno National Park, Sheopur district and adjoining areas.

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)

• What: A statutory body under the MoEFCC, established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended in 2006); implements Project Tiger and Project Cheetah; sets standards for tiger reserves and big cat conservation.
• Where: HQ in New Delhi; oversees 57 tiger reserves and the two cheetah reintroduction sites (Kuno NP, Gandhi Sagar WLS) across India.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to President Droupadi Murmu’s visit to Kuno National Park in June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The President visited the park on 21–22 June 2026 and toured the Cheetah Management Area.
2. She interacted with members of the Sahariya tribe, Cheetah Mitras, cheetah trackers, and tourist guides.
3. The President had earlier witnessed the symbolic handover of cheetahs by Botswana during her state visit to that country in November 2025.
4. The President’s visit marked the launch of Project Cheetah.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Project Cheetah was launched on 17 September 2022 by PM Narendra Modi, NOT during President Murmu’s June 2026 visit.)

Q2. With reference to Kuno National Park, consider the following statements:

1. Kuno National Park is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh, in the Vindhyan Hills.
2. The core National Park covers 748 sq km, within the larger 1,235 sq km Kuno Wildlife Division.
3. It was originally developed in the 1990s as an alternative habitat for Asiatic lions.
4. Kuno National Park is in Gujarat, near Junagadh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Kuno is in Madhya Pradesh, NOT Gujarat. Junagadh’s Gir Forest in Gujarat is the home of Asiatic lions, NOT Kuno.)

Q3. With reference to Project Cheetah, consider the following statements:

1. Project Cheetah was launched on 17 September 2022 by PM Narendra Modi.
2. It is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under the MoEFCC.
3. The first batch of 8 cheetahs was brought from Namibia, followed by 12 cheetahs from South Africa in February 2023.
4. The cheetah was officially declared extinct in India in 2022, just before Project Cheetah was launched.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the cheetah was officially declared extinct in India in 1952, NOT in 2022. The last cheetah died in 1947 in Korea district (now Chhattisgarh).)

Q4. With reference to the historical context of Kuno, consider the following statements:

1. According to a 1902 Gwalior princely state gazette, Mughal Emperor Akbar captured a large herd of elephants in the forests near Shivpuri in 1564.
2. The last Asiatic lion in the region was reportedly shot near the city of Guna in 1872.
3. In 1905, Maharaja Madhavrao Scindia I imported 10 African lions from Abyssinia (Ethiopia), of which 7 survived.
4. The 1905 lion experiment succeeded, and the introduced lions thrived in Kuno’s forests.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 1905 experiment failed — the imported lions, released in Shivpuri, became cattle-lifters and man-eaters, and the project was abandoned.)

Q5. With reference to the three batches of cheetahs brought to Kuno under Project Cheetah, consider the following statements:

1. The first batch was brought from Namibia in September 2022.
2. The second batch was brought from South Africa in February 2023.
3. The third batch was brought from Botswana in February 2026.
4. India also brought a batch of cheetahs from Kenya in 2024.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; no batch of cheetahs has been brought from Kenya; the three source countries are Namibia, South Africa, and Botswana.)

Q6. With reference to the cheetah species (Acinonyx jubatus), consider the following statements:

1. It is the world’s fastest land animal, capable of reaching speeds up to 100 km/h.
2. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
3. The Asiatic cheetah subspecies survives only in small numbers in Iran.
4. The last cheetah in India died in 1947 in the Korea district of present-day Chhattisgarh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(d) All four — all four statements are correct.

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Project Cheetah was launched in 2022, not during the 2026 visit.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Kuno is in Madhya Pradesh, not Gujarat.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the cheetah was declared extinct in 1952.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the 1905 experiment failed.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because no cheetahs came from Kenya.
6. (d) All four — all statements are correct (this is an exception to the usual “Only three” pattern; it ensures aspirants stay alert).

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	General Awareness on Kuno, Project Cheetah, Conservation
NABARD Grade A	Very high importance, Direct subject — Wildlife, conservation, rural communities

5. India Becomes World’s Top Ship Recycling Nation in 2025 with 35.4% Global Market Share

Context

According to the latest Review of Maritime Transport report by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), India emerged as the world’s leading ship recycling nation in 2025, capturing a dominant 35.4% global market share — up from 30.1% in 2024 — and outperforming Bangladesh, Pakistan, Turkey, and China. India recycled 2.99 million gross tons (GT) of shipping volume in 2025, a sharp 60% surge from 1.86 million GT in 2024. This achievement marks a major maritime milestone driven by policy reforms and ease-of-doing-business initiatives that transitioned India into a global hub for responsible, sustainable, and high-volume ship breaking and recycling. Crucially, India has achieved the Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030 ship recycling target five years ahead of schedule. The Indian success is anchored in the Recycling of Ships Act, 2019, which aligned domestic yards with the Hong Kong International Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships (HKC) — which itself entered into force globally on 26 June 2025. The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) under Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal has disbursed ₹53.5 crore in financial aid to upgrade and certify recycling facilities, helped 115 domestic facilities achieve HKC compliance, rolled out the Ship-breaking Credit Note Scheme (offering ship owners a credit note worth 40% of a recycled ship’s scrap value, usable to offset up to 5% of the cost of building a new vessel at an Indian shipyard), and is actively engaging with European authorities to get Indian yards included in the EU Ship Recycling Regulations (EUSRR) approved facility list.

India’s 2025 Performance

Metric	Value
Global Rank	1st (Top ship recycling nation)
Global Market Share (2025)	35.4% (up from 30.1% in 2024)
Volume Recycled (2025)	2.99 million GT
Volume Recycled (2024)	1.86 million GT
Year-on-Year Growth	+60%
HKC-Compliant Facilities	115

United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

• What: A permanent intergovernmental body of the United Nations General Assembly established in 1964 to promote trade, investment, and development for developing countries; publishes flagship reports including Review of Maritime Transport, Trade and Development Report, World Investment Report, and Technology and Innovation Report.
• Where: HQ in Geneva, Switzerland; 195 member states; serves as the focal point for UN deliberations on trade and development.

Hong Kong International Convention (HKC)

• What: An International Maritime Organization (IMO) treaty formally titled the Hong Kong International Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships; adopted in 2009 at a diplomatic conference in Hong Kong; sets standards for safe and environmentally sound ship recycling, worker safety, environmental protection, hazardous material management (Inventory of Hazardous Materials — IHM); entered into force globally on 26 June 2025 after meeting the ratification threshold (15 states + 40% of world merchant shipping tonnage); India ratified in 2019.
• Where: Adopted at Hong Kong in 2009; administered by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), headquartered in London, UK; applies to ship recycling yards globally, including India’s Alang.

Recycling of Ships Act, 2019

• What: The central Indian legislation that aligned India’s ship recycling regime with the Hong Kong International Convention (HKC); mandates HKC compliance, hazardous material inventory (IHM), worker safety standards, environmental safeguards; came into force after India ratified the HKC in 2019.
• Where: Enacted by Parliament; administered by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW); applicable to all ship recycling yards in India.

Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW)

• What: The nodal ministry for ports, shipping, inland waterways, and maritime transport in India; administers Indian Ports Act 1908, Merchant Shipping Act 1958, Inland Waterways Authority of India Act 1985, Major Port Authorities Act 2021, Recycling of Ships Act 2019; implements Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030, Sagarmala, Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047; current Union Minister: Sarbananda Sonowal.
• Where: HQ at Transport Bhawan, New Delhi; oversees 12 major ports and ~200 minor ports along India’s 7,517 km coastline.

Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030

• What: A 10-year blueprint released in November 2020 by PM Narendra Modi that sets 150+ initiatives across port modernisation, shipbuilding, ship recycling, port-led industrialisation, coastal shipping, inland waterways, cruise tourism; targets ₹3 lakh crore investment and 20 lakh new jobs; aims to make India a global maritime leader.
• Where: Implemented by MoPSW from New Delhi; coordinates across all coastal states/UTs, Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), Shipping Corporation of India, and major/minor ports.

Global Top Ship Recycling Nations (2025)

Rank	Country	Share
1	India	35.4%
2	Bangladesh	~28%
3	Pakistan	~18%
4	Turkey	~10%
5	China	~5%

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to India’s ship recycling performance in 2025, consider the following statements:

1. India emerged as the world’s top ship recycling nation in 2025, with a global market share of 35.4%.
2. India recycled approximately 2.99 million gross tons (GT) of shipping volume, a 60% surge over 2024.
3. The achievement was confirmed in the latest UNCTAD Review of Maritime Transport report.
4. India achieved the Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030 ship recycling target three years behind schedule.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India achieved the MIV 2030 ship recycling target five years AHEAD of schedule, NOT three years behind schedule.)

Q2. With reference to the Hong Kong International Convention (HKC), consider the following statements:

1. The HKC was adopted in 2009 in Hong Kong.
2. The Convention sets standards for safe and environmentally sound ship recycling.
3. The HKC formally entered into force on 26 June 2025.
4. The HKC is administered by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the HKC is administered by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), NOT UNCTAD.)

Q3. With reference to India’s Recycling of Ships Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. The Act aligned India’s ship recycling regime with the Hong Kong International Convention (HKC).
2. It mandates the maintenance of an Inventory of Hazardous Materials (IHM) and a Ship Recycling Plan.
3. The Act is administered by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW).
4. The Act applies only to government-owned vessels and exempts private shipyards.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Act applies to all ship recycling yards in India, including the private yards at Alang-Sosiya, NOT only government-owned vessels.)

Q4. With reference to the Alang-Sosiya Ship Recycling Yard, consider the following statements:

1. It is the world’s largest ship recycling yard.
2. It is located on the Gulf of Khambhat in Bhavnagar district, Gujarat.
3. The yard is managed by the Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB).
4. The yard recycles only Indian-flagged vessels.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Alang-Sosiya recycles end-of-life vessels from across the world, NOT only Indian-flagged ships.)

Q5. With reference to the Ship-breaking Credit Note Scheme of the MoPSW, consider the following statements:

1. Ship owners receive a credit note equal to 40% of the recycled ship’s scrap value.
2. The credit note can be applied to offset up to 5% of the cost of building a new vessel at an Indian shipyard.
3. The scheme incentivises both responsible recycling at Indian yards and domestic shipbuilding.
4. The scheme is administered by the Reserve Bank of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the scheme is administered by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), NOT the RBI.)

Q6. With reference to UNCTAD and the Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030, consider the following statements:

1. UNCTAD is a permanent UN intergovernmental body established in 1964, headquartered in Geneva.
2. UNCTAD publishes the Review of Maritime Transport report annually.
3. The Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030 was launched in November 2020 by PM Narendra Modi.
4. The MIV 2030 is implemented by the Ministry of External Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the MIV 2030 is implemented by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), NOT the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India achieved MIV 2030 target 5 years ahead.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the HKC is administered by IMO, not UNCTAD.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Act applies to all yards, not only government-owned.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Alang recycles ships from across the world.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the scheme is administered by MoPSW.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because MoPSW (not MEA) implements MIV 2030.

Banking/Finance

1. RBI Issues Final TReDS Master Direction, 2026

Source: Business Standard

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Tuesday, 23 June 2026, issued the final Master Direction on the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), 2026 — comprehensively reviewing and consolidating existing instructions into a single framework to simplify the onboarding of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) on TReDS platforms and to broaden participation. The directions fix a minimum net worth of ₹25 crore for TReDS platform operators (aligned with other non-bank payment system operators), requiring certification by a statutory auditor; existing authorised entities have until 31 March 2028 to meet this requirement. Key changes include: financiers may obtain guarantee cover for factoring units from any credit guarantee fund trust set up by the government; insurance companies and government-notified credit guarantee funds are now permitted as participants on TReDS; and operators must implement validation mechanisms ensuring the seller qualifies as an MSME and that funds are credited only to the seller’s bank account. The reform addresses continuing MSME constraints in obtaining adequate finance, particularly in converting trade receivables into liquid funds. TReDS, launched by RBI in 2018 under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, is an RBI-authorised electronic platform that enables MSMEs to auction their invoices to banks, NBFC-Factors, and other financiers for early payment. The Indian factoring industry was valued at ~$133 billion in FY25 (target $212 billion by 2033), with TReDS processing ~$23.6 billion in transactions in FY25 — a 134% CAGR since inception. There are currently five RBI-authorised TReDS platforms — RXIL, M1xchange, Invoicemart, C2treds, and DTX (KredX).

Net Worth Requirement

Feature	Details
Minimum Net Worth	₹25 crore
Certification Required	Statutory auditor’s certificate (prescribed format)
Alignment	Aligned with other non-bank Payment System Operators (PSOs)
Compliance Deadline for Existing Entities	31 March 2028

Key New Provisions in the Master Direction

1. Credit Guarantee Cover for Financiers:
   • Financiers may obtain guarantees for factoring units from any credit guarantee fund trust set up by Government of India.
2. Expanded Participation:
   • Insurance companies may participate.
   • Government-notified credit guarantee funds may participate.
3. Validation Mechanisms:
   • TReDS operators must ensure seller qualifies as MSME.
   • Funds credited only to seller’s bank account.
4. Simplified Onboarding:
   • Streamlined MSME registration process.

About TReDS — Trade Receivables Discounting System

Feature	Details
Full Name	Trade Receivables Discounting System
Type	RBI-authorised electronic platform
Operates Under	Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
Concept Paper	March 2014 by RBI
First Platforms Licensed	2017
Operational From	2018
Beneficiaries	MSMEs, Corporate Buyers, Banks, NBFC-Factors
Purpose	Convert MSME invoices into immediate working capital

TReDS Process Flow

1. MSME seller delivers goods/services to a corporate buyer.
2. MSME uploads invoice on a TReDS platform → creates a “factoring unit”.
3. Buyer accepts the factoring unit on the platform.
4. Financiers (banks, NBFCs) bid to discount the invoice at competitive rates.
5. Lowest discount rate wins; MSME accepts the bid.
6. MSME receives funds in T+1 or T+2 days.
7. Buyer pays the financier on the original due date.
8. Financier earns the discount spread.

Five RBI-Authorised TReDS Platforms

#	Platform	Operator	Partners
1	RXIL	Receivables Exchange of India Ltd	SIDBI + NSE
2	M1xchange	Mynd Solutions	HDFC Bank
3	Invoicemart	A.TReDS Ltd	Axis Bank + mjunction
4	C2treds	C2FO India	C2FO + ICICI Bank
5	DTX (KredX)	DTX Group	KredX (newer entrant)

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI Master Direction on TReDS, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The Master Direction was issued on 23 June 2026 and consolidates all existing TReDS instructions into a single framework.
2. The minimum net worth requirement for TReDS operators has been fixed at ₹25 crore.
3. Existing authorised TReDS entities have until 31 March 2028 to meet the net worth requirement.
4. The Master Direction was issued by the Ministry of MSME.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Master Direction was issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), NOT the Ministry of MSME.)

Q2. With reference to the new provisions for financiers under the TReDS Master Direction, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Financiers can now obtain guarantee cover for factoring units from any credit guarantee fund trust set up by the government.
2. Insurance companies and government-notified credit guarantee funds are now permitted as participants on TReDS.
3. TReDS operators must ensure that the seller qualifies as an MSME and that funds are credited only to the seller’s bank account.
4. The Master Direction allows financiers to charge MSMEs for buyer credit risk.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; under TReDS, the financier prices the discount based on buyer’s credit profile, not the MSME, and TReDS transactions are without recourse to MSMEs.)

Q3. With reference to the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), consider the following statements:

1. TReDS was launched by the Reserve Bank of India in 2018.
2. RBI’s concept paper on TReDS was published in March 2014.
3. TReDS operates under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
4. TReDS is a stock exchange that allows trading in equity shares of MSMEs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; TReDS is NOT a stock exchange; it is a digital platform for discounting invoices/receivables, not for trading equity shares.)

Q4. With reference to the TReDS platforms in India, consider the following statements:

1. RXIL (Receivables Exchange of India Ltd) is a joint venture of SIDBI and the National Stock Exchange (NSE).
2. M1xchange is operated by Mynd Solutions.
3. Invoicemart is operated by A.TReDS, a joint venture between Axis Bank and mjunction.
4. The RBI currently licenses only two TReDS platforms in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RBI currently licenses five TReDS platforms — RXIL, M1xchange, Invoicemart, C2treds, and DTX (KredX) — NOT just two.)

Q5. With reference to MSMEs in India, consider the following statements:

1. MSMEs are classified under the MSMED Act, 2006, based on investment in plant/machinery and turnover.
2. Under the Budget 2025-26 revised norms, a Micro enterprise has investment up to ₹2.5 crore and turnover up to ₹10 crore.
3. MSMEs contribute approximately 30% to India’s GDP and 45% to total exports.
4. In November 2018, PM Modi announced that all companies, regardless of turnover, must register on TReDS.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 2018 announcement applied to companies with turnover exceeding ₹500 crore, NOT all companies.)

Q6. With reference to TReDS settlement and operations, consider the following statements:

1. TReDS transactions are processed on a T+1 or T+2 basis (one or two business days after acceptance).
2. TReDS transactions are without recourse to MSMEs, meaning MSMEs are not liable if the buyer defaults.
3. The discount rate offered on TReDS is typically based on the buyer’s credit profile, not the MSME’s.
4. MSMEs must provide additional collateral to access TReDS financing.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; TReDS financing is without collateral — the buyer-accepted invoice itself is the underlying security.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because RBI issued the Direction.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because TReDS is without recourse to MSMEs.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because TReDS is not a stock exchange.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because there are five RBI-licensed platforms.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because TReDS registration applies to companies with turnover >₹500 crore.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because TReDS is collateral-free.

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, Direct subject on TReDS, MSMEs, RBI regulation, SIDBI
RBI Grade B	Extremely high importance, Direct subject — TReDS, PSS Act, financial inclusion
NABARD Grade A	MSME finance, Factoring, Working capital

2. RBI Clarifies FCNR(B) Swap Facility

Source: Business Standard

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Tuesday, 23 June 2026 issued detailed clarifications through a set of Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) on the special FCNR(B) Swap Facility, External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), and Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowings (OFCBs) introduced on 8 June 2026. The clarifications address operational and structural concerns raised by bankers awaiting clarity on leveraged structured products to mobilise diaspora-centric overseas deposits. The RBI confirmed that Indian banks (including their overseas branches) can extend loans to non-residents or issue Standby Letters of Credit (SBLCs) to overseas lenders against FCNR(B) deposits mobilised under the swap facility — enabling substantial leverage of dollar inflows. Banks are also permitted to extend loans to FCNR(B) account holders and mark a lien on such deposits. The RBI also clarified that the swap facility is a plain buy/sell forex swap covering only the principal amount of the FCNR(B) deposit — not the interest component. Hedged FCNR(B) transactions are excluded from net open position (NOP) limits. The swap facility is open until 16 October 2026 for fresh FCNR(B) deposits mobilised between 8 June and 30 September 2026, with a minimum original tenor of 3 years and maximum of 5 years. Banks have raised FCNR(B) interest rates to 6%–7.1% on major foreign currencies; brokerages estimate that NRIs could earn 15–27% annual returns through the leveraged scheme. State Bank of India (SBI) is offering 9x leverage. The swap is also available for ECBs (PSUs only) and OFCBs (Authorised Dealer Category I banks). The measure aims to shore up forex reserves, support the rupee (closed at ₹94.73/USD on 23 June 2026), and attract diaspora capital amid heightened FII outflows from Indian equities.

Key RBI Clarifications

1. Loans Against FCNR(B) Deposits:
   • Indian banks (including overseas branches) can extend loans to non-residents against FCNR(B) deposits.
   • Can also issue SBLCs to overseas lenders against such deposits.
   • Can extend loans to FCNR(B) account holders and mark lien on deposits.
2. Swap Facility Coverage:
   • Plain buy/sell foreign exchange swap covering only the principal amount.
   • Interest component NOT covered by swap.
3. Tenor Flexibility:
   • Swaps allowed for tenors less than 3 years, provided original deposit tenor is ≥ 3 years.
4. Differential Interest Rates:
   • Banks may offer different rates based on tenor and size of deposit.
   • Must comply with RBI’s existing deposit rate directions.
5. Regular FCNR(B) Deposits:
   • Banks may continue offering regular FCNR(B) deposits (3–5 year tenor) without availing the swap facility.
   • No 1-year minimum lock-in required.
   • Separate records must be maintained.
6. Net Open Position (NOP) Limit Exclusion:
   • Hedged FCNR(B) transactions excluded from net open position limits.
7. Cancel and Rebook:
   • Banks may cancel and rebook FCNR(B) deposits if residual maturity < 3 years.

Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) Account — FCNR(B)

• What: A term deposit account for NRIs in freely convertible foreign currencies (USD, GBP, EUR, JPY, AUD, CAD, etc.) held at Indian scheduled banks; tenure 1–5 years; interest income tax-exempt under Section 10(15)(iv)(fa) of Income Tax Act, 1961 for NRIs and RNORs; principal and interest fully repatriable; protects against rupee depreciation (deposit and payout in foreign currency); insured under DICGC up to ₹5 lakh.
• Where: Maintained by Indian scheduled commercial banks (public, private, foreign) anywhere in India; can also be operated through their overseas branches with RBI authorisation.

Swap Facility Details

• Type: Plain buy/sell US Dollar–Rupee forex swap by RBI.
• Purpose: Eliminate hedging cost for banks raising FCNR(B) deposits.
• Tenor: Co-terminus with deposit (3–5 years).
• Coverage: Principal only, NOT interest.
• Cost to Bank: Zero hedging cost (absorbed by RBI).

Standby Letter of Credit (SBLC)

• What: A guarantee issued by a bank that promises payment to a beneficiary if the applicant defaults on an obligation; commonly used as collateral for overseas loans; functions as a secondary payment instrument.
• Where: Issued by Indian banks (including overseas branches) to overseas lenders against FCNR(B) deposits held in India.

External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)

• What: A forex loan from foreign lenders by eligible Indian borrowers for specified end-uses; under the new RBI swap window, PSUs raising ECBs of 3+ years average maturity can avail US Dollar–Rupee swap with tenor co-terminus with ECB repayment (max 5 years).
• Where: Borrowed from international markets (banks, capital markets); regulated by RBI through the ECB Framework under FEMA, 1999.

Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowing (OFCB)

• What: Foreign currency borrowing by Authorised Dealer Category I (AD-I) banks in overseas markets for funding their international operations and rupee swap obligations; under new RBI window, swap facility available for OFCBs of minimum 3-year maturity.
• Where: Raised by Indian banks’ overseas branches/subsidiaries in international wholesale markets.

Net Open Position (NOP) Limit

• What: A regulatory limit on a bank’s total exposure to foreign currency risk — the net difference between long and short positions in foreign currency; under the new clarification, hedged FCNR(B) transactions are excluded from NOP limits, giving banks more headroom.
• Where: Monitored by RBI for all Authorised Dealer banks in India.

Comparison: Types of NRI Accounts

Feature	NRE	NRO	FCNR(B)
Currency	INR	INR	Foreign currency
Source of Funds	Foreign income only	Foreign + Indian income	Foreign income only
Repatriability	Fully repatriable	Up to USD 1 mn/year	Fully repatriable
Currency Risk	Yes (INR depreciation)	Yes	NO (deposit in foreign currency)
Tax Treatment	Tax-free (NRI status)	Taxable	Tax-free (NRI/RNOR status)
Account Type	Savings & Term	Savings & Term	Term only
Tenor	Up to 10 years	Flexible	1–5 years
DICGC Insurance	₹5 lakh	₹5 lakh	NOT covered (per some sources) / ₹5 lakh (per others)

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

• What: India’s central bank and monetary authority, established on 1 April 1935 under RBI Act, 1934; nationalised on 1 January 1949; regulates monetary policy, banking, payment systems, currency, foreign exchange; current Governor: Sanjay Malhotra (since 11 December 2024).
• Where: HQ in Mumbai; 31 regional and sub-offices across India; 4 zonal offices at Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai.

Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999

• What: A central legislation that consolidates and amends the law relating to foreign exchange in India; replaced FERA, 1973; enacted to facilitate external trade and payments and promote orderly development and maintenance of forex markets.
• Where: Enacted by Parliament; administered by RBI and Department of Economic Affairs (Ministry of Finance); applicable to all foreign exchange transactions in India.

RBI’s Forex Toolkit

• Spot Market Interventions: Direct dollar sales/purchases.
• Forex Forward Sales: To moderate rupee fluctuations.
• Buy/Sell Swaps: Like the current FCNR(B) window.
• Sell/Buy Swaps: Opposite of buy/sell, for liquidity management.
• Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): Domestic liquidity tool.
• Special Open Market Operations (OMOs): Bond market intervention.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s clarification on the FCNR(B) Swap Facility issued on 23 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Indian banks, including their overseas branches, can extend loans to non-residents against FCNR(B) deposits mobilised under the swap facility.
2. Banks can issue Standby Letters of Credit (SBLCs) in favour of overseas lenders against FCNR(B) deposits.
3. Banks are permitted to mark a lien on FCNR(B) deposits when extending loans.
4. The swap facility covers both the principal and interest of the FCNR(B) deposits.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RBI clarified that the swap facility is a plain buy/sell forex swap covering only the principal amount, NOT the interest.)

Q2. With reference to the RBI’s special FCNR(B) Swap Window announced on 8 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The window is open until 16 October 2026 for fresh FCNR(B) deposits mobilised between 8 June and 30 September 2026.
2. The eligible deposits must have an original tenor of 3 to 5 years.
3. The RBI is absorbing the entire currency hedging cost for banks under the scheme.
4. The scheme requires NRIs to deposit a minimum of USD 1 million per account.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the scheme does NOT specify a minimum deposit of USD 1 million per account; standard FCNR(B) minimum deposit amounts apply (much smaller).)

Q3. With reference to FCNR(B) accounts, consider the following statements:

1. FCNR(B) accounts are maintained in freely convertible foreign currencies (USD, GBP, EUR, etc.).
2. Interest income from FCNR(B) deposits is tax-exempt under Section 10(15)(iv)(fa) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for NRIs and RNORs.
3. The principal and interest in FCNR(B) accounts are fully repatriable without any annual cap.
4. FCNR(B) is a savings account, not a fixed deposit account.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; FCNR(B) is exclusively a term/fixed deposit account, NOT a savings account.)

Q4. With reference to differences between NRI account types, consider the following statements:

1. NRE accounts are rupee-denominated, while FCNR(B) accounts are in foreign currency.
2. NRO accounts have repatriation capped at USD 1 million per financial year, but NRE and FCNR(B) accounts are fully repatriable.
3. FCNR(B) accounts protect NRIs from rupee depreciation risk because deposits and repayments are in foreign currency.
4. All three accounts — NRE, NRO, and FCNR(B) — must be denominated in Indian rupees.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; only NRE and NRO are rupee-denominated; FCNR(B) is in foreign currency (USD, GBP, EUR, etc.).)

Q5. With reference to the swap facility’s coverage for ECBs and OFCBs, consider the following statements:

1. The US Dollar–Rupee Forex Swap Facility for ECBs is available to Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) with ECBs of average maturity 3+ years.
2. The swap tenor for ECBs is co-terminus with the ECB repayment schedule, subject to a maximum of 5 years.
3. The swap facility for OFCBs is available to Authorised Dealer Category I banks with minimum maturity of 3 years.
4. The swap facility is available to private sector companies for any ECB, regardless of maturity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the ECB swap facility is available only to PSUs, with average maturity of 3+ years, NOT to private sector companies for any ECB.)

Q6. With reference to leverage and yields under the FCNR(B) swap window, consider the following statements:

1. State Bank of India (SBI) is offering 9x leverage against FCNR(B) deposits.
2. Brokerages estimate that NRIs could earn 15–27% annual returns under the leveraged FCNR(B) scheme.
3. Banks such as Yes Bank, Canara Bank, and South Indian Bank have raised FCNR(B) interest rates to as high as 7.1% on major foreign currencies.
4. Hedged FCNR(B) transactions are added to the bank’s Net Open Position (NOP) limits.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; hedged FCNR(B) transactions are EXCLUDED from net open position (NOP) limits, NOT added.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the swap covers only principal, not interest.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the scheme has no USD 1 million minimum.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because FCNR(B) is a fixed deposit, not savings.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because FCNR(B) is in foreign currency.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because ECB swap is for PSUs only.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because hedged transactions are excluded from NOP.

Facts To Remember

1. PM Narendra Modi Visits Odisha for Development Projects

Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Odisha on 20 June 2026 to participate in major development and infrastructure events. Along with President Droupadi Murmu, he inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for projects worth over ₹47,600 crore.

2. PM Modi Visits West Bengal for Development Initiatives

Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited West Bengal from 20–21 June 2026 to attend Paschimbanga Divas celebrations and launch multiple development projects. He also released the 23rd installment of the PM-KISAN scheme.

3. DISHA 2.0 Scheme Approved to Strengthen Digital Justice Delivery

Union Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal approved DISHA 2.0 with an outlay of ₹255 crore for 2026–2031. The scheme aims to improve digital access to justice and benefit nearly 3 crore citizens across India.

4. DIBD and AISF Sign MoU for Multilingual AI Innovation

Digital India BHASHINI Division and Assam Innovation & Startup Foundation signed an MoU to promote language technology and multilingual AI solutions in Assam. The partnership will improve digital access through regional language services.

5. World Bank Approves USD 1.5 Billion for India’s Structural Reforms

The World Bank approved USD 1.5 billion for India’s structural reforms to support private sector-led job creation and economic growth. The initiative aims to generate employment for nearly 11 million youth annually.

6. World Bank Approves ₹4,000 Crore Loan for Haryana Water Project

The World Bank approved a ₹4,000 crore loan for the Jal Sanrakshit Haryana Project. The project aims to improve water management and conservation across 48.94 lakh acres in Haryana.

7. PFRDA Launches AI-Powered Pension Sahayak Portal

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority launched the AI-powered Pension Sahayak portal to simplify grievance redressal for pension subscribers. The platform enables complaint filing, status tracking, and faster resolution through a unified digital system.

8. IFC Commits USD 371 Million to Sify for AI-Ready Data Centres

International Finance Corporation committed USD 371 million to Sify Technologies for building AI-ready, energy-efficient data centres in India. The new facilities will be developed in Navi Mumbai and Chennai.

9. NSE Partners with BME for Metal Derivatives Market Growth

National Stock Exchange of India signed an MoU with Bharat Metal Exchange to strengthen India’s non-ferrous metal derivatives market. The partnership will improve hedging tools and risk management.

10. GI Tags Granted to Four Products of Madhya Pradesh

The Geographical Indication Registry granted GI tags to Khurasani Imli, Garadu, Malwi Potato, and Balam Kakdi from Madhya Pradesh. These products received recognition for their unique regional identity and quality.

11. Harsh Vardhan Receives Global Prestige Award

Harsh Vardhan received the Global Prestige Award at the UK Parliament for contributions toward the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision. The recognition honoured leadership in development and innovation.

12. Kunal Shah Joins Meta to Lead WhatsApp Globally

Kunal Shah reportedly joined Meta Platforms to lead WhatsApp globally. He stepped away from operational responsibilities as CEO of CRED.

13. India Wins Gold in Women’s 4×100m Relay

India won gold in the women’s 4×100m relay at the Asian Relays Championships 2026 in China. The Indian team clocked 43.85 seconds to finish ahead of China and Thailand.

14. Book on India’s IIT Ecosystem Launched

Om Birla launched the book IIT: The Story of India’s Most Prestigious Educational Ecosystem authored by Prabhat Kumar. The book highlights the 75-year journey of India’s IIT ecosystem.

15. International Day of the Celebration of Solstice Observed

The International Day of the Celebration of the Solstice was observed on 21 June 2026 to highlight the cultural and astronomical significance of solstices across civilizations worldwide.

16. World Music Day 2026 Observed

World Music Day was observed on 21 June 2026 with the theme “Music for Peace.” The day promotes unity, creativity, and peace through music.