The old three-section QRE paper is gone. For the 2026 cycle IBPS moved Professional Knowledge (Agriculture) into the Prelims as a separate section, and gave it double weightage. Agriculture is no longer something you postpone until Mains.

Three consequences, and every candidate felt all three today:

1. Agriculture is worth double. Each PK question carries 2 marks. Twenty-five agriculture questions are worth as much as fifty aptitude questions.
2. You must clear all four sections. Candidates have to qualify in each test by securing the minimum cut-off set by IBPS. Strong agriculture cannot rescue a failed Quant section.
3. Negative marking bites harder in PK. A wrong Professional Knowledge answer costs 0.5 marks, not 0.25. Blind guessing in Agriculture was expensive.

Medium: bilingual (English & Hindi), except the English Language section. Sectional timing applies — there is no carry-over between sections.

The consistent theme in feedback was time pressure rather than conceptual difficulty. Twenty minutes per section with no carry-over meant candidates who over-invested in one puzzle set or a lengthy DI simply ran out of runway. Professional Knowledge, by contrast, rewarded rapid recall — nearly every question was a one-liner with no calculation involved.

English Language — 25 questions

The most scoring part of the paper. Reading Comprehension carried the largest single block, and the rest leaned on vocabulary and sentence-level grammar. Notably, there was no cloze test and no para jumble this year.

Reasoning Ability — 25 questions

Heavily dominated by puzzles. Seventeen of 25 questions — over two-thirds of the section — came from puzzles and seating arrangement, which made question selection the deciding factor inside a 20-minute window.

Quantitative Aptitude — 25 questions

The most calculation-intensive section and the tightest on time, split evenly between Data Interpretation, arithmetic and the two quick-scoring formats.

The decisive section. The paper was broad rather than deep — it sampled across horticulture, agronomy, animal husbandry, fisheries, soil science, plant breeding, extension and institutes, with almost no question needing more than a single recalled fact.

1. Which element forms the central structural component of the chlorophyll molecule?

   • Fe
   • Mg
   • Zn
   • Cu
   • Mn

   AnsMagnesium (Mg)

2. High heritability coupled with high genetic advance indicates the predominance of which type of gene action?

   • Dominance
   • Environmental effect
   • Additive gene action
   • Epistatic action
   • Non-additive

   AnsAdditive gene action

3. The Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE) was developed by whom?

   • Wischmeier and Smith
   • Norman Borlaug
   • M. S. Swaminathan
   • J. S. Kanwar
   • Hugh Hammond Bennett

   AnsWischmeier and Smith

4. What is the scientific name of tiger shrimp / tiger prawn?

   AnsPenaeus monodon

5. Which of the following is a climacteric fruit?

   • Mango
   • Orange
   • Strawberry
   • Pineapple
   • Grapes

   AnsMango

6. Which group of microorganisms plays a major role in the degradation of lignin?

   • Bacteria
   • Fungi
   • Algae
   • Protozoa
   • Viruses

   AnsFungiWhite-rot fungi are the principal lignin degraders.

7. What is meant by marketable surplus in agriculture?

   AnsProduce available for saleThe quantity left after meeting the farmer’s requirements for family consumption, seed, feed and wages in kind.

8. Wool of sheep is mainly composed of which protein?

   AnsKeratin

9. Lactuca sativa (lettuce) belongs to which family?

   AnsAsteraceae (Compositae)

10. Which agricultural marketing information portal was developed by the Directorate of Marketing & Inspection (DMI) with the National Informatics Centre (NIC)?

    AnsAGMARKNET

11. Which honeybee species was introduced for its higher honey-producing capacity compared with the Indian honeybee?

    AnsApis melliferaThe Italian or European honeybee.

12. The Golden Revolution in India is primarily associated with which sector?

    AnsHorticultureParticularly fruit, vegetable and honey production.

13. Rosette and little-leaf symptoms in orchard crops are commonly associated with a deficiency of which micronutrient?

    AnsZinc (Zn)

14. What is the main purpose of curing onions after harvesting?

    AnsDrying the outer scales and neckReduces moisture loss and infection, improving post-harvest storage life.

15. Which fast-growing tree species has been widely planted for fuelwood, pulpwood and small timber?

    • Teak
    • Eucalyptus
    • Sandalwood
    • Neem
    • Poplar

    AnsEucalyptus

16. A disease occurrence affecting a large number of animals in a population or region at approximately the same time is called:

    • Panzootic
    • Epizootic
    • Sporadic
    • Enzootic
    • Pandemic

    AnsEpizootic

17. Which hormone is responsible for milk let-down in dairy animals?

    AnsOxytocin

18. In which year was the National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) established?

    • 2010
    • 2006
    • 2008
    • 1999
    • 2004

    Ans2006Headquartered at Hyderabad.

19. The primitive form of agriculture involving clearing and burning vegetation and then shifting to another plot is known as:

    AnsShifting cultivationAlso called slash-and-burn or swidden agriculture; jhum in North-East India.

20. What is organic farming?

    AnsA biologically driven farming systemRelies on biological and ecological processes and avoids or restricts synthetic fertilizers, pesticides and other synthetic inputs.

21. Where is the National Rice Research Institute (NRRI) located?

    AnsCuttack, Odisha

22. The Self-Help Group–Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP) was launched by which institution?

    AnsNABARDPilot launched in 1992.

23. Capsaicin, responsible for the pungency of chilli, is concentrated predominantly in which part of the fruit?

    • Placenta
    • Seed
    • Pedicel
    • Pericarp
    • Rind

    AnsPlacenta

24. Which of the following is an example of secondary tillage equipment?

    AnsRotavatorCandidate recall indicates Rotavator; the full option set was not reported. Harrows and cultivators are the other standard secondary tillage implements.

These appeared in candidate recall sheets but are not part of the 24-question Shift 1 reconstruction, so treat them as probable Shift 2 questions.

1. Give two examples of hedge plants or species.

   AnsDuranta, Lawsonia inermisOther accepted examples include Inga dulcis, Bougainvillea, Casuarina and Acalypha.

2. Which insecticide moves or translocates throughout the plant even when applied to only one part of it?

   AnsSystemic insecticideAbsorbed and translocated through the xylem or phloem, making it effective against sucking pests. Examples: imidacloprid, dimethoate, thiamethoxam.

3. What are the basic principles of organic farming?

   AnsHealth, Ecology, Fairness and CareThe four IFOAM principles of organic agriculture.

Questions are reconstructed from candidate recall and are indicative only. Options shown are as reported; where no options are listed, the question was recalled without them. This is not an official IBPS answer key.

190 Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I) posts have been notified for FY 2027-28 — and they are remarkably concentrated. Only two banks reported vacancies at all.

NR = vacancy not reported. PwBD break-up: HI 2, OC 2, VI 2, ID 1. IBPS also keeps a reserve list of about 20% of vacancies per category — roughly 38 additional candidates.

Pay scale: Basic ₹48,480 – 85,920 (48480-2000/7-62480-2340/2-67160-2680/7-85920), plus allowances and perquisites as per the participating bank's rules.

The prelims is qualifying only — these marks do not enter the final merit list. But you must clear both the sectional cut-off in all four tests and the overall cut-off to reach the Mains.

• Sept / Oct 2026Prelims result
• October 2026Mains call letter
• November 2026Online Main Examination
• November 2026Mains result
• Nov / Dec 2026Interview
• January 2027Provisional allotment

The Mains pattern you are now preparing for

In the Mains, every section except Professional Knowledge is qualifying. The merit list is built on the PK score alone, and final selection weightage is 80:20 between Mains and Interview.

Three things to do this week

Start Mains Professional Knowledge now. 100 marks across 50 objective questions, and the only section used for ranking. This is where selection is actually decided.

Do not ignore the descriptive paper. Two questions, 25 marks, 30 minutes, in English. Most candidates discover it too late. Start practising letter and essay writing on agriculture and banking themes.

Keep your prelims call letter safe. Candidates called for the Mains must carry the authenticated/stamped prelims call letter along with the stamped ID proof copy. Without it you will not be allowed to sit the Mains. Keep about eight copies of your uploaded photograph.