Daily Current Affairs (DCA) 22&23 June, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
22&23 June, 2026

National Affairs

1. Union Minister Amit Shah Launches NAFED’s NAFEX.in Auction Portal

Source: News on Air

Context

Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah launched the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) auction portal NAFEX.in on 23 June 2026 at Atal Akshay Urja Bhawan, New Delhi. The launch is an important step toward strengthening transparency, efficiency, and ease of operations in the agricultural auction process. The portal provides a digital platform for streamlining auction-related activities and enhances NAFED’s functioning in the interest of farmers, member institutions, and stakeholders. During the programme, the Minister also launched several digital and farmer-centric initiatives of NAFED, including: (1) NAFED-KALYAN scholarship for children of farmers; (2) DRISHTI portal for inventory management of pulses and oilseeds; and (3) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) portal for strengthening enterprise resource planning. The Minister also chaired a meeting with NAFED’s Board of Directors, where a presentation was made on activities, progress, action taken on previous directions, and the future roadmap. The launch aligns with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of “Sahkar Se Samriddhi” and the government’s efforts to strengthen cooperative institutions through technology, transparency, and farmer-centric reforms.

The Launch

• Date: 23 June 2026 (Tuesday).
• Venue: Atal Akshay Urja Bhawan, New Delhi.
• Launched by: Shri Amit Shah, Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation.
• Ministry: Ministry of Cooperation.

The Four Major Initiatives Launched

1. NAFEX.in Auction Portal

• Type: Digital auction platform.
• Purpose:
  • Streamline auction-related activities.
  • Improve transparency.
  • Enhance efficiency.
  • Ease of operations.
• Beneficiaries:
  • Farmers.
  • Member institutions.
  • Other stakeholders.
• Activities: A live demonstration of the registration process and launch of auction operations was conducted.

2. NAFED-KALYAN Scholarship Scheme

• Type: Educational scholarship.
• Beneficiaries: Children of farmers.
• Aim:
  • Support education of farmers’ children.
  • Reflect NAFED’s commitment to farmer welfare.
• Activity: Shah distributed scholarship cheques to children of farmers during the programme.

3. DRISHTI Portal

• Type: Inventory management portal.
• Aim: Track inventory of pulses and oilseeds.
• Significance:
  • Better procurement planning.
  • Reduced losses and wastage.
  • Smooth Public Distribution System (PDS) integration.
  • Supports MSP procurement.

4. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) Portal

• Type: Organisational management portal.
• Aim: Strengthen enterprise resource planning at NAFED.
• Functions:
  • Integrated business processes.
  • Finance and accounting.
  • Supply chain management.
  • HR management.
  • Inventory tracking.
  • Decision support.

Meeting with NAFED Board of Directors

• Chair: Shri Amit Shah.
• Agenda:
  • Presentation by NAFED on activities and progress.
  • Action taken on previous directions by the Minister.
  • Future roadmap of NAFED.

About NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India)

• Established: 2 October 1958 (Gandhi Jayanti).
• Registered under: Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002 (initially under the Bombay Co-operative Societies Act, 1925).
• Headquartered: New Delhi.
• Type: Apex cooperative organisation for marketing of agricultural produce.
• Under: Ministry of Cooperation (since 2021).
• Functions:
  • Marketing of cooperative agricultural products.
  • Procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and other commodities at MSP under PSS (Price Support Scheme).
  • PM-AASHA implementation.
  • Storage and warehousing.
  • Export and import of agricultural commodities.
  • Trade in fertilizers and agricultural inputs.

About Sahkar Se Samriddhi (Prosperity Through Cooperation)

• Vision of PM Narendra Modi.
• Aim: Strengthen cooperative institutions to drive economic development.
• Coined: 2021, with the creation of Ministry of Cooperation.
• Pillars:
  • Strengthening cooperative societies.
  • Digitisation.
  • Farmer empowerment.
  • Technology-led transformation.

About the Ministry of Cooperation

• Created: 6 July 2021.
• Created from: Department of Cooperation of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• First Minister: Shri Amit Shah (still serving).
• Vision: “Sahkar Se Samriddhi”.
• Aim:
  • Strengthen cooperative movement.
  • Deepen cooperatives at grassroots level.

Related Government Initiatives

• Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses (October 2025).
• PM-AASHA (Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan).
• Price Support Scheme (PSS).
• Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS).
• Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPSS).
• eNAM (National Agriculture Market).
• Operation Greens (TOP: Tomato, Onion, Potato).
• Soil Health Card Scheme.
• PM-KISAN.

About NCCF (National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation)

• Apex consumer cooperative organisation.
• Established: 1965.
• Works alongside NAFED for subsidised retail sales of pulses, onions, etc.

Why is “Sahkar Se Samriddhi” Important?

• Reaches every village through cooperatives.
• Empowers small and marginal farmers.
• Builds resilience against market volatility.
• Supports doubling farmer income target.
• Aligns with Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the NAFED initiatives launched by Amit Shah on 23 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The NAFEX.in auction portal was launched at Atal Akshay Urja Bhawan, New Delhi.
2. The launch event included the distribution of NAFED-KALYAN scholarship cheques to children of farmers.
3. The DRISHTI portal is for inventory management of pulses and oilseeds.
4. The Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) portal is for organisational management at NAFED.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Q2. With reference to NAFED, consider the following statements:

1. NAFED was established on 2 October 1958.
2. It is the apex cooperative organisation for marketing of agricultural produce.
3. NAFED is headquartered in New Delhi and currently under the Ministry of Cooperation.
4. NAFED operates under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; NAFED operates under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, NOT the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.)

Q3. With reference to the “Sahkar Se Samriddhi” vision, consider the following statements:

1. It is the vision of PM Narendra Modi for “Prosperity Through Cooperation”.
2. It was coined around 2021, with the creation of the Ministry of Cooperation.
3. The Ministry of Cooperation was created on 6 July 2021 with Amit Shah as the first Minister.
4. The Ministry was created out of the Ministry of Finance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Ministry of Cooperation was created from the Department of Cooperation of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, NOT from the Ministry of Finance.)

Q4. With reference to NAFED’s role in agricultural procurement, consider the following statements:

1. NAFED procures pulses, oilseeds, and copra under the Price Support Scheme (PSS).
2. NAFED implements PM-AASHA (Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan).
3. NAFED is the sole procurement agency for the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses (October 2025), with NCCF as a partner.
4. NAFED is responsible for fertilizer manufacturing in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; fertilizer manufacturing is undertaken by IFFCO, KRIBHCO, and other cooperatives, NOT NAFED.)

Q5. With reference to India’s cooperative sector, consider the following statements:

1. The cooperative sector contributes about 35 per cent to fertilizer distribution and about 31 per cent to sugar production.
2. About 63,000 Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are being computerised under a government initiative.
3. Three new national cooperatives launched in 2023 are NCEL, NCOL, and BBSSL.
4. The Ministry of Cooperation has never created any database for cooperatives.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Ministry of Cooperation has created the National Cooperative Database.)

Q6. With reference to allied cooperative bodies in India, consider the following statements:

1. NAFED handles agricultural marketing while NCCF handles consumer cooperatives.
2. NCDC (National Cooperative Development Corporation) is responsible for cooperative development.
3. IFFCO is a major cooperative fertilizer manufacturer.
4. AMUL/GCMMF is a major cooperative organisation in the dairy sector.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

Answer Key

1. (d), All four statements are correct.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because NAFED operates under Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Ministry was created from Ministry of Agriculture.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because fertilizer manufacturing is by IFFCO, KRIBHCO, etc.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the National Cooperative Database has been created.
6. (d), All four statements are correct.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

Very high importance, cooperatives, NAFED, PACS, rural credit

2. ASI Transfers Rakhigarhi Skeletal Remains to AnSI

Source: The Hindu

Context

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has formally transferred human skeletal remains excavated from the Rakhigarhi archaeological site in Haryana to the Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI) — a national research institute under the Ministry of Culture — for detailed multidisciplinary scientific investigation. The transfer was made under a recently signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the two institutions, announced by the Ministry of Culture on Monday, 22 June 2026. Prof. B.V. Sharma, Director of AnSI, said the transfer is expected to “significantly advance multidisciplinary research” into one of the most important urban centres of the Indus-Saraswati Civilisation. During the 2025–26 excavation season conducted by ASI’s Excavation Branch-II, Greater Noida, archaeologists uncovered eight burials at Mound No. 7 at Rakhigarhi — an area previously identified as a cemetery. Three complete human skeletons along with skeletal fragments from other burials have now been moved to the AnSI’s ancient human skeletal repository and laboratory in Kolkata. Rakhigarhi, spread across approximately 550 hectares in Hisar district, Haryana, is the largest known settlement of the Indus-Saraswati (Harappan) Civilisation, with continuous habitation from the Early Harappan to Mature Harappan periods. The research will apply ancient DNA (aDNA) analysis, stable isotope studies, osteological assessments, palaeopathological investigations, and environmental reconstruction, in collaboration with the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences (Lucknow), University College London (UCL), and Banaras Hindu University (BHU). The transfer revives focus on the iconic 2019 study that revealed the Rakhigarhi woman lacked steppe pastoralist ancestry, igniting the Aryan migration debate.

Key Facts

• From: Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
• To: Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI).
• Both under: Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
• Instrument: Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between ASI and AnSI.
• Destination Laboratory: AnSI’s Ancient Human Skeletal Repository and Laboratory, Kolkata.

About the 2025-26 Excavation

• Excavator: ASI’s Excavation Branch-II, Greater Noida.
• Site: Mound No. 7 at Rakhigarhi.
• Burials uncovered: 8 new burials in the 2025-26 field season.

About Rakhigarhi

• Location: Hisar district, Haryana (approximately 150 km from Delhi).
• Spread: ~550 hectares.
• Significance: Largest known settlement of Indus-Saraswati (Harappan) Civilisation.
• Habitation Period: Early Harappan (~5500–2600 BCE) to Mature Harappan (~2600–1900 BCE).
• Number of Mounds: 9 mounds (designated RGR-1 to RGR-9).
• Features: Planned settlements, drainage systems, craft production centres, trade networks, burial grounds.
• Mound 7 (RGR-7): Identified as a cemetery.

Aryan Migration Debate

• Aryan Invasion Theory: 19th-century colonial-era theory (Max Müller, Mortimer Wheeler) — Aryans invaded India c. 1500 BCE, destroyed IVC.
• Aryan Migration Theory: Modern revision — steppe pastoralists migrated (not invaded) into South Asia around 2000–1000 BCE, bringing Indo-European languages.
• Rakhigarhi Implications:
  • Lead archaeologist Vasant Shinde: Said study “completely rejects” both Aryan invasion and migration theories.
  • Geneticists (Narasimhan, Reich): Maintain steppe ancestry entered later, supporting some form of migration.
  • Term Preference: “Indo-Aryan” preferred over “Aryan” to avoid racial connotations.

About the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)

• Established: 1861 by Alexander Cunningham (under Lord Canning).
• HQ: New Delhi.
• Director General: Yadubir Singh Rawat (as of 2025).
• Parent Ministry: Ministry of Culture.
• Functions: Archaeological research, conservation, preservation of monuments, sites, and antiquities.
• Excavation Branches: Six branches across India.
• Mandate: Under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958.

About the Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI)

• Established: 1945 (carved out of Zoological Survey of India).
• HQ: Kolkata.
• Director: Prof. B.V. Sharma.
• Parent Ministry: Ministry of Culture.
• Functions: Research on biological and cultural anthropology, palaeoanthropology, ethnographic studies, human genetics, osteology.
• Regional Centres: 8 across India.
• Maintains: Ancient human skeletal repository of IVC and other ancient sites.

About the Indus-Saraswati (Harappan) Civilisation

• Period: 3300–1300 BCE; mature phase 2600–1900 BCE.
• Discovery: 1921 at Harappa by Dayaram Sahni; Mohenjo-daro in 1922 by R.D. Banerji.
• Major Sites in India: Rakhigarhi, Dholavira, Lothal, Kalibangan, Banawali, Surkotada, Daimabad.
• Major Sites in Pakistan: Harappa, Mohenjo-daro, Chanhudaro.
• Spread: Modern Pakistan, NW India, Afghanistan.
• Total Sites Known: 2,000+, majority in India (post-Partition).
• Features: Urban planning, drainage, granaries, seals, weights & measures, trade networks.

Phases of Harappan Civilisation

Phase	Period	Characteristics
Early Harappan	5500–2600 BCE	Regional cultures, beginnings of urbanism
Mature Harappan	2600–1900 BCE	Peak urban phase, planned cities, script
Late Harappan	1900–1300 BCE	Decline, regionalisation

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the transfer of Rakhigarhi skeletal remains in June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The skeletal remains were transferred from the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to the Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI).
2. The transfer was carried out under a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the two institutions.
3. Both ASI and AnSI function under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
4. The skeletal remains have been transferred to AnSI’s repository in New Delhi.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the remains were transferred to AnSI’s ancient human skeletal repository and laboratory in Kolkata, NOT New Delhi.)

Q2. With reference to Rakhigarhi, consider the following statements:

1. Rakhigarhi is located in Hisar district, Haryana.
2. It is spread across approximately 550 hectares.
3. It is widely recognised as the largest known settlement of the Indus-Saraswati (Harappan) Civilisation.
4. It is located in the Gangetic plains and is contemporary with the Vedic period.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Rakhigarhi is located in the Saraswati basin, NOT the Gangetic plains, and belongs to the Harappan period (Bronze Age), NOT the Vedic period.)

Q3. With reference to the Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI), consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 1945.
2. It is headquartered in Kolkata.
3. It functions under the Ministry of Culture.
4. It is exclusively responsible for archaeological excavations in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; archaeological excavations are conducted by the ASI, not AnSI; AnSI focuses on anthropological, osteological, and palaeoanthropological research.)

Q4. With reference to the 2019 study on the Rakhigarhi woman’s DNA, consider the following statements:

1. The study was published in the journal Cell on 5 September 2019.
2. The Rakhigarhi woman’s genome had Iranian-related farmer ancestry mixed with Ancient Ancestral South Indian (AASI) ancestry.
3. The genome showed zero steppe pastoralist ancestry.
4. The lead author of the study was Dr. David Reich of the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the co-first authors were Vasant Shinde (Deccan College) and Vagheesh Narasimhan; David Reich is from Harvard Medical School; Niraj Rai is from Birbal Sahni Institute.)

Q5. With reference to the Indus-Saraswati (Harappan) Civilisation, consider the following statements:

1. The Harappan Civilisation was discovered in 1921 at Harappa by Dayaram Sahni.
2. Mohenjo-daro was discovered in 1922 by R.D. Banerji.
3. The mature phase of the Harappan Civilisation is dated 2600–1900 BCE.
4. Dholavira and Lothal are major Harappan sites located in Pakistan.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Dholavira and Lothal are major Harappan sites located in Gujarat, India, NOT Pakistan.)

Q6. With reference to the planned scientific techniques to be applied to the Rakhigarhi remains, consider the following statements:

1. Ancient DNA (aDNA) analysis will be used to study ancestry and population history.
2. Stable isotope studies will help reveal diet, mobility, and geographical origins.
3. Palaeopathological investigations will identify ancient diseases and injuries.
4. The research will be conducted exclusively by Indian institutions without international collaboration.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the research will be conducted in collaboration with international institutions, including University College London (UCL).)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because remains went to Kolkata, not Delhi.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Rakhigarhi is Harappan, not Vedic, and is in the Saraswati basin.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because excavations are conducted by ASI, not AnSI.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Vasant Shinde and Narasimhan were co-first authors.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Dholavira and Lothal are in Gujarat, India.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because UCL and others are international collaborators.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims	GS Paper I on Indian Heritage & Culture (Harappan Civilisation, Indus Valley sites); GS Paper II on Government Bodies (ASI, AnSI, Ministry of Culture); GS Paper III on Science & Technology (Ancient DNA, Palaeogenomics)
UPSC Mains	GS Paper I on Indian Culture, Ancient History, Bronze Age civilisations; GS Paper II on Indian polity (statutory bodies, intergovernmental collaboration); GS Paper III on Science applications

2. IAS e-Civil List 2026

Source: News on Air

Context

Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology, Earth Sciences and Minister of State for PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr. Jitendra Singh, launched the IAS e-Civil List 2026 on 22 June 2026 (Monday) at Kartavya Bhawan, New Delhi. The launch marks the 71st edition of the Civil List and the sixth edition to be released as an e-book in PDF format. Dr. Singh emphasised that technology-enabled databases can help governments identify officers with appropriate expertise for diverse developmental requirements, calling the transition from printed publications to digital platforms as aligned with the Digital India vision. The publication, prepared by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), contains comprehensive details of all IAS officers, including batch, cadre, present posting, pay level, educational qualifications, and date of superannuation. It also provides cadre-wise strength, officers retiring during the next five years, and appointment data from 1969 onwards. As of 1 January 2026, 5,755 IAS officers are in position against an authorised cadre strength of 7,026 across 25 cadres. The e-book is available on the DoPT website (dopt.gov.in).

The Launch

• Venue: Kartavya Bhawan, New Delhi.
• Launched by: Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State.
• Available at: dopt.gov.in.

About the Civil List

What is the Civil List?

• An annual publication compiled by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
• Contains details of all serving IAS officers in India.
• Cadre Controlling Authority: DoPT.
• Updated annually: Based on inputs from State Cadres and Centre.

Civil List History

• 1st Civil List: Published in 1955-56.
• Has been published annually since then.
• Digital edition introduced in 2021 (66th edition).
• 70th edition: 2025 (5th e-book).
• 71st edition: 2026 (6th e-book).

About the IAS (Indian Administrative Service)

• Premier civil service of India.
• Recruited through: Civil Services Examination by UPSC.
• Established: 1858 as Indian Civil Service (ICS).
• Renamed: Indian Administrative Service (IAS) in 1946 (Constitutional Assembly).
• Cadre Controlling Authority: DoPT, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• Total cadres: 25 (24 state cadres + Joint Cadres: AGMUT, J&K, etc.).

About the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)

• Under: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
• Headed by: Minister of State (PMO, Personnel), currently Dr. Jitendra Singh.
• Functions:
  • Cadre control of IAS, CSS, CSSS.
  • Civil Services Examination coordination.
  • Personnel policy.
  • Training of civil servants.
  • Vigilance and discipline.
  • Pay and allowances.
• DoPT website: dopt.gov.in.

About the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

• Headed by: Prime Minister (currently) — held by Narendra Modi.
• MoS (Independent Charge): Dr. Jitendra Singh.
• Three Departments:
  1. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
  2. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
  3. Department of Pensions and Pensioners’ Welfare.

Why is This Significant?

For Digital India

• Part of broader Digital India mission.
• Modernises public administration.
• Eco-friendly governance (no paper printing).

For Administrative Efficiency

• Quick search for officer-specific information.
• Talent mapping for special projects.
• Better human resource planning.

For Transparency

• Public access to administrative leadership data.
• Standardised information about all IAS officers.
• Reduces information asymmetry.

For Federal Governance

• Consolidated all-India view of IAS deployment.
• Better Centre-State coordination.
• Supports cadre allocations and deputations.

India’s Civil Services Reforms

• Mission Karmayogi: Civil services capacity building (launched 2020).
• iGOT Karmayogi: Online training platform.
• Performance Management Division: Outcomes-based assessment.
• Annual Cadre Reviews of IAS.
• Lateral Entry for specialised positions (since 2018).
• NRA (National Recruitment Agency): Common Eligibility Test.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the IAS e-Civil List 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched on 22 June 2026 at Kartavya Bhawan, New Delhi.
2. It is the 71st edition of the Civil List and the sixth edition as an e-book in PDF format.
3. It was launched by Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State.
4. It is published by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the IAS e-Civil List is published by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, NOT the Ministry of Home Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the contents of the IAS e-Civil List 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The list contains officers’ batch, cadre, present posting, pay level, educational qualifications, and date of superannuation.
2. It provides cadre-wise strength and details of officers retiring over the next five years.
3. It includes information on IAS officers appointed through the Civil Services Examination since 1969.
4. It contains no information about IAS officers’ photographs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; officers’ photographs were introduced in the 2025 (70th) edition and continue in 2026.)

Q3. With reference to the IAS cadre strength as on 1 January 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The authorised cadre strength is 7,026.
2. The actual number of IAS officers in position is 5,755.
3. IAS officers are deployed across 25 cadres.
4. There is no shortage of IAS officers vis-à-vis the authorised strength.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; there is a shortage of about 1,271 IAS officers vis-à-vis authorised strength.)

Q4. With reference to the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), consider the following statements:

1. The IAS was originally known as the Indian Civil Service (ICS) under the British administration.
2. It was renamed Indian Administrative Service (IAS) in 1946.
3. The cadre controlling authority of the IAS is the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
4. The IAS is the only All India Service in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India has three All India Services: IAS, IPS, and IFoS (Indian Forest Service).)

Q5. With reference to Dr. Jitendra Singh and his current ministerial portfolios, consider the following statements:

1. He is the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology.
2. He also holds Independent Charge for Earth Sciences.
3. He is Minister of State for PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy, and Space.
4. He is the Cabinet Minister for External Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is the External Affairs Minister, NOT Dr. Jitendra Singh.)

Q6. With reference to the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, consider the following statements:

1. It has three departments: DoPT, DARPG, and Department of Pensions and Pensioners’ Welfare.
2. The Ministry is headed by the Prime Minister.
3. The DoPT is the cadre controlling authority for the IAS.
4. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) oversees pension matters.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; pension matters are handled by the Department of Pensions and Pensioners’ Welfare, NOT DARPG.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because DoPT publishes it.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because photographs are included.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because there is a shortage.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because there are three All India Services.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because he is not External Affairs Minister.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because DARPG does not oversee pensions.

3. INS Dunagiri, INS Sanshodhak, and INS Agray into Indian Navy at Kolkata

Source: PIB

Context

Prime Minister Narendra Modi presided over the historic tri-commissioning of three indigenously designed and built warships — INS Dunagiri (stealth frigate), INS Sanshodhak (Survey Vessel, Large), and INS Agray (Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft) — at Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata, on 21 June 2026 (Sunday). All three vessels were designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau (WDB) and constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata. The ceremony was attended by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, Admiral Krishna Swaminathan (Chief of the Naval Staff), and other senior officials. PM Modi noted the symbolic coincidence that 21 June is also World Hydrography Day, even as India’s most advanced hydrographic survey vessel INS Sanshodhak was commissioned. The three vessels represent the Indian Navy’s layered capability approach: blue-water combat (Dunagiri), deep-water hydrographic survey (Sanshodhak), and coastal anti-submarine warfare (Agray). With indigenous content exceeding 75% and contributions from over 200 MSMEs, the tri-commissioning marks a major milestone in Aatmanirbhar Bharat in defence shipbuilding. This is the second tri-commissioning in 2026, after the January 2025 induction of INS Surat, INS Nilgiri, and submarine INS Vagsheer at Mumbai. The Navy aims to commission 19 warships in 2026, the largest annual force accretion in its history — 33 ships in 24 months (Jan 2025 to Dec 2026) combined.

The Ceremony

• Venue: Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port (formerly Kolkata Port), Kolkata.
• Host: Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
• Chief Guest: Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Other Attendees: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, Admiral Krishna Swaminathan (CNS).

1. INS Dunagiri — The Blue-Water Combatant

Feature	Details
Type	Stealth Guided-Missile Frigate
Class	Nilgiri-class (Project 17A)
Position in Class	5th of 7 Project 17A frigates to be commissioned
Built by	GRSE, Kolkata (2nd Project 17A built by GRSE)
Predecessor Class	Shivalik-class (Project 17)
Build Time	80 months (improved from 93 months for lead ship INS Nilgiri)
Propulsion	CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas)
Indigenous Content	~75%

Key Weapons & Systems of INS Dunagiri

• BrahMos surface-to-surface missiles (supersonic, long-range).
• MRSAM (Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile) defence network.
• MFSTAR Radar: Multi-Function Surveillance, Track And Guidance Radar.
• Anti-submarine warfare rockets.
• Integrated hull sonar.
• Close-in Weapon Systems (CIWS).
• Helicopter operations: Capable of operating HAL Dhruv ALH and Sea King helicopters.

Project 17A Family — All 7 Sister Ships

#	Ship	Built By	Status
1	INS Nilgiri	MDL	Commissioned (Jan 2025)
2	INS Himgiri	GRSE	Commissioned
3	INS Udaygiri	MDL	Commissioned
4	INS Taragiri	MDL	Commissioned
5	INS Dunagiri	GRSE	Commissioned 21 June 2026
6	INS Vindhyagiri	GRSE	Expected
7	INS Mahendragiri	MDL	Expected

2. INS Sanshodhak — The Deep-Water Surveyor (Verified)

Feature	Details
Type	Survey Vessel (Large) — SVL
Class	Sandhayak-class
Position in Class	4th and FINAL of Sandhayak-class
Built by	GRSE, Kolkata
Length	~110 m
Displacement	~3,300–3,400 tonnes
Range	6,500 nautical miles
Contract Signed	2018

Key Equipment & Capabilities

• Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUVs).
• Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs).
• Multi-Beam Echo Sounders.
• Digital Side-Scan Sonar systems.
• 4 Survey Motor Boats.
• Helicopter operations capable.
• Convertible to Hospital Ship for HADR roles.
• Linked to Maritime Vision 2030 and Blue Economy ambitions.

Roles of INS Sanshodhak

• Hydrographic surveys (mapping seabed).
• Oceanographic research (collecting water and biological data).
• Geophysical data collection.
• Nautical chart preparation (for naval and civil shipping).
• Port approach channel mapping.
• Search-and-rescue (SAR) missions.
• Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR).

3. INS Agray — The Coastal Submarine Hunter (Verified)

Feature	Details
Type	Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC)
Class	Arnala-class
Position in Class	4th built by GRSE, 5th overall ASW-SWC commissioned
Built by	GRSE, Kolkata (in PPP with L&T Kattupalli)
Length	~77.6 m
Displacement	900 tonnes (gross tonnage 1,490 t)
Speed	25 knots
Range	1,800 nautical miles at 14 knots
Propulsion	Waterjet (high manoeuvrability, low noise)
Indigenous Content	>80%
Crest Inspired by	Arjuna’s Gandiva bow (unveiled 10 June 2026)

Key Weapons & Sensors of INS Agray

• RBU-6000 anti-submarine rocket launcher (forward-mounted).
• 324 mm Lightweight Torpedo tubes (triple, port & starboard) with Advanced Light-Weight Torpedo (ALWT).
• Abhay Hull-Mounted Sonar (DRDO NPOL + BEL).
• Towed Low-Frequency Variable Depth Sonar (LFVDS) (CFF Fluid Control + Atlas Elektronik).
• 30 mm Naval Surface Gun.
• 12.7 mm OFT M2 SRCG (Stabilized Remote Controlled Gun).
• Anti-submarine mine-laying rails.
• Integrated Anti-Submarine Warfare Defence Suite (IADS).

ASW-SWC Programme

• Approved: 2013 by Defence Acquisition Council (DAC).
• Total Cost: ~₹13,440 crore.
• Total Ships: 16 vessels (8 by GRSE, 8 by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)).
• Replaces: Abhay-class corvettes (commissioned 1989–1991).
• Two Subclasses:
  • Arnala-class: Built by GRSE/L&T, based with Eastern Fleet.
  • Mahe-class: Built by CSL, based with Western Fleet.
• First in Class: INS Arnala (lead ship, commissioned 2025).

About the Indian Navy’s Modernisation Programme

• Force Accretion 2026: 19 warships planned for commissioning — largest in Navy’s history.
• Combined 2025–26: 33 ships in 24 months.
• Maritime Vision 2030: Aims for 170+ warship Navy by 2030.
• Project 17A: 7 stealth frigates totalling ~₹45,000 crore.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the tri-commissioning ceremony in June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The ceremony was held at Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata on 21 June 2026.
2. All three vessels — INS Dunagiri, INS Sanshodhak, and INS Agray — were built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
3. The date coincided with World Hydrography Day.
4. This was the first-ever tri-commissioning in the history of the Indian Navy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; this was the second tri-commissioning of 2026; the first was the January 2025 commissioning of INS Surat, INS Nilgiri, and INS Vagsheer at Mumbai.)

Q2. With reference to INS Dunagiri, consider the following statements:

1. It is the fifth Project 17A Nilgiri-class stealth frigate.
2. It is the second Project 17A frigate built by GRSE Kolkata.
3. Project 17A frigates are the successors to the Shivalik-class (Project 17) frigates.
4. INS Dunagiri is powered by nuclear propulsion.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; INS Dunagiri is powered by CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas) propulsion, NOT nuclear propulsion.)

Q3. With reference to INS Sanshodhak, consider the following statements:

1. It is the fourth and final ship of the Sandhayak-class Survey Vessel (Large) programme.
2. Its sister ships are INS Sandhayak, INS Nirdeshak, and INS Ikshak.
3. It is equipped with Autonomous Underwater Vehicles (AUVs), Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs), and multi-beam echo sounders.
4. INS Sanshodhak is a stealth guided-missile destroyer.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; INS Sanshodhak is a Survey Vessel (Large) for hydrographic and oceanographic survey, NOT a stealth guided-missile destroyer.)

Q4. With reference to INS Agray and the Arnala-class, consider the following statements:

1. INS Agray is part of the Arnala-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) programme.
2. The ASW-SWC programme involves 16 vessels split between GRSE and Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
3. The Arnala-class is designed to replace the ageing Abhay-class corvettes of the Indian Navy.
4. INS Agray is powered by nuclear propulsion for unlimited endurance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; INS Agray uses waterjet propulsion for high manoeuvrability and low noise, NOT nuclear propulsion.)

Q5. With reference to BrahMos missiles and MRSAM, consider the following statements:

1. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India (DRDO) and Russia (NPO Mashinostroyeniya).
2. The name BrahMos is derived from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
3. MRSAM (Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile) is jointly developed by DRDO and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
4. BrahMos is a subsonic anti-ship cruise missile with a limited range of 50 km.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile (Mach 2.8–3.0) with extended-range variants reaching 800+ km, NOT a subsonic missile with 50 km range.)

Q6. With reference to India’s naval modernisation in 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Navy plans to commission 19 warships in 2026, the largest annual force accretion in its history.
2. Including 2025, this means 33 warships across 24 months (January 2025 to December 2026).
3. Defence production in India has grown from approximately ₹40,000 crore in 2014 to nearly ₹1.8 lakh crore in 2026.
4. All Indian Navy warships are currently being built exclusively by foreign shipyards.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Indian Navy emphasises indigenous construction; INS Dunagiri, Sanshodhak, and Agray were built by GRSE Kolkata with >75% indigenous content.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because this was the second tri-commissioning in 2026.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because INS Dunagiri uses CODOG propulsion.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because INS Sanshodhak is a survey vessel.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because INS Agray uses waterjet propulsion.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because BrahMos is supersonic with longer range.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Indian warships are predominantly indigenous now.

4. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)

Source: PIB

Context

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, has facilitated India’s first-ever commercial export shipment of dried whole egg powder from Balangir, Odisha, to Austria. The shipment, comprising 22.6 metric tonnes (MT) of dried whole egg powder, was virtually flagged off on 20 June 2026 (Saturday) by APEDA Chairman Shri Abhishek Dev, IAS, marking a significant milestone in promoting value-added agricultural and processed food exports from India. The export was carried out by OVO Farm Pvt Ltd, Balangir, an APEDA-registered exporter, which had established a state-of-the-art egg processing facility in Balangir in 2025. The facility is certified under FSSC 22000 Version 6, HALAL, and KOSHER standards, and complies with Export Inspection Council (EIC) requirements and European Union hygiene regulations. Dried whole egg powder, produced via the spray-drying of liquid eggs, has wide applications in food processing, bakery, confectionery, and pharmaceutical industries due to its long shelf life, ease of transportation, and versatility. The event was attended by Prem Chand, IAS (Commissioner-cum-Secretary, F&ARD Department, Government of Odisha) and Gaurav Shivaji Isalwar, IAS (Collector & District Magistrate, Balangir). APEDA extended financial assistance for processing infrastructure, quality management systems, and laboratory testing. The export underscores India’s growing presence in the EU’s processed food market and validates the quality of Indian poultry products against stringent EU standards.

The Export Shipment

• Date Flagged Off: 20 June 2026 (Saturday).
• Product: Dried Whole Egg Powder.
• Quantity: 22.6 metric tonnes (MT).
• From: Balangir district, Odisha, India.
• To: Austria (European Union).
• Exporter: OVO Farm Pvt Ltd, Balangir.
• Facilitating Agency: APEDA.
• Flagged Off (Virtually) By: Shri Abhishek Dev, IAS (Chairman, APEDA).

About the Exporter — OVO Farm Pvt Ltd

• Location: Balangir, Odisha.
• Status: APEDA-registered exporter.
• Facility Established: 2025.
• Type: State-of-the-art egg processing facility.

About APEDA — Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (Verified)

Feature	Details
Type	Statutory body (apex export-promotion authority)
Established Under	APEDA Act, 1985 (Act 2 of 1986)
Act Passed	December 1985
Came into Effect	13 February 1986
Parent Ministry	Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India
Department	Department of Commerce
HQ	New Delhi
Chairman	Shri Abhishek Dev, IAS (since 1 April 2024)
Replaced	Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC)

APEDA’s Vision & Mission

• Vision: Establish India as a supplier of quality agro and food products in global markets.
• Mission: Act as an interface between trade/industry and Government to promote and develop agro exports from India.

APEDA’s Functions Under the Act (Verified)

1. Development of industries related to scheduled products for export (with financial assistance, surveys, feasibility studies).
2. Registration of exporters of scheduled products (on payment of fees).
3. Fixing standards and specifications for scheduled products.
4. Inspection of meat and meat products for quality.
5. Improving packaging and marketing of scheduled products.
6. Collection of statistics from owners of factories/establishments.
7. Training in various aspects of the industries connected with scheduled products.
8. Promotion of organic exports via National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).
9. Implementation of National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).

APEDA’s Scheduled Products (17 Categories)

#	Category
1	Fruits, Vegetables and their Products
2	Meat and Meat Products
3	Poultry and Poultry Products
4	Dairy Products
5	Confectionery, Biscuits and Bakery Products
6	Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products
7	Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds
8	Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages
9	Cereal and Cereal Products
10	Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts
11	Pickles, Papads and Chutneys
12	Guar Gum
13	Floriculture and Floriculture Products
14	Herbal and Medicinal Plants
15	De-oiled rice bran
16	Green pepper in brine
17	Cashew Nuts and its Products

Plus: Various millets under cereal products.

APEDA’s Organisational Structure

• Chairman: Appointed by the Central Government.
• Director: Appointed by APEDA.
• Secretary: Appointed by the Central Government.
• Other Officers/Staff: Appointed by the Authority.
• Total Sanctioned Strength: ~73 (Group A: 41, Group B: 42, Group C: 60 — Group C abolished on vacancy).
• Authority Composition:
  • Chairman + Agricultural Marketing Adviser (ex officio).
  • 1 member from NITI Aayog.
  • 3 Members of Parliament (2 from Lok Sabha + 1 from Rajya Sabha).
  • 8 members from Central Ministries.
  • 5 members representing States/UTs (by rotation).
  • 7 members representing different stakeholder categories.
  • 2 specialists/scientists.

Recent APEDA Initiatives

• “One District, One Product (ODOP)” alignment for exports.
• Farm-to-Port supply chain integration.
• Krishi Udan Scheme with Civil Aviation Ministry for air freight.
• GI-tagged products promotion (Darjeeling tea, Basmati rice, etc.).
• Vocal for Local abroad campaigns.
• Coffee Table Books on regional foods.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the first-ever commercial export of dried whole egg powder from India, consider the following statements:

1. The export was facilitated by APEDA from Balangir, Odisha to Austria.
2. The shipment comprised 22.6 metric tonnes of dried whole egg powder.
3. The exporter was OVO Farm Pvt Ltd, an APEDA-registered exporter.
4. The shipment was flagged off by the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry in person at Balangir.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the shipment was virtually flagged off by APEDA Chairman Shri Abhishek Dev, IAS, NOT by the Union Minister of Commerce in person.)

Q2. With reference to APEDA, consider the following statements:

1. APEDA is a statutory body established under the APEDA Act of 1985.
2. The APEDA Act came into effect on 13 February 1986.
3. APEDA functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
4. APEDA replaced the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; APEDA replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC), NOT MPEDA. MPEDA is a separate body for marine products.)

Q3. With reference to APEDA’s scheduled product categories, consider the following statements:

1. APEDA is mandated with the export promotion of 17 scheduled product categories.
2. The scheduled products include fruits, vegetables, dairy, poultry, and confectionery.
3. APEDA’s scheduled product exports in 2024-25 amounted to approximately USD 28.59 billion.
4. APEDA’s mandate covers marine and fishery products as scheduled categories.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; marine and fishery products are NOT under APEDA; they fall under the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) under the same Ministry.)

Q4. With reference to the certifications held by OVO Farm Pvt Ltd, consider the following statements:

1. The facility is certified under FSSC 22000 Version 6.
2. It holds both HALAL and KOSHER certifications.
3. The facility complies with European Union hygiene regulations and EIC standards.
4. FSSC 22000 is a financial accounting standard for export-oriented companies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; FSSC 22000 is a Food Safety System Certification scheme, NOT a financial accounting standard.)

Q5. With reference to the dried whole egg powder, consider the following statements:

1. It is produced through the spray-drying of liquid eggs.
2. It has a longer shelf life than fresh eggs and is easier to transport and store.
3. It is widely used in the food processing, bakery, confectionery, and pharmaceutical industries.
4. India is currently the world’s largest producer of eggs, ahead of China and the United States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is the 3rd largest egg producer globally, after China (1st) and the United States (2nd).)

Q6. With reference to the institutional context of APEDA, consider the following statements:

1. The current Chairman of APEDA is Shri Abhishek Dev, IAS.
2. APEDA is headquartered in New Delhi and has 15 Regional Offices across India.
3. APEDA implements the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).
4. APEDA’s Chairman is appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; APEDA’s Chairman is appointed by the Central Government (Section 4 of APEDA Act), NOT by the CAG.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the APEDA Chairman flagged off the shipment virtually.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because APEDA replaced PFEPC, not MPEDA.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because marine products fall under MPEDA, not APEDA.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because FSSC 22000 is a food safety standard.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India is 3rd, not 1st.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Chairman is appointed by the Central Government.

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, Agri-exports, APEDA, Food processing
NABARD Grade A	Very high importance, Direct subject — Agriculture, Rural development, Agro-processing
RBI Grade B	ESI awareness, Agri-trade, External sector
SIDBI Grade A	MSME-led food processing, Rural enterprises

5. India Becomes World’s Top Ship Recycling Nation in 2025

Source: News on Air

Context

India has emerged as the world’s leading ship recycling nation in 2025, with its share of global ship recycling rising to 35.4 per cent, up from 30.1 per cent in 2024, according to the latest report by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) announced on 22 June 2026 (Monday) that ship recycling in India rose significantly to 2.99 million gross tonnes (GT) in 2025, up nearly 60 per cent from 1.86 million GT in 2024. With this achievement, the target set under the Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030 to become the world’s leading ship recycling nation has been achieved five years ahead of schedule. Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Sarbananda Sonowal, emphasised that this reflects the success of sustained policy reforms, industry efforts, and adherence to international environmental and safety standards under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He underlined that the achievement reinforces India’s position as a global hub for responsible and sustainable ship recycling. According to the Baltic and International Maritime Council (BIMCO), more than 16,000 vessels are expected to be recycled globally over the next decade, and with its current market share, India is well-positioned to recycle 500 to 600 vessels annually.

The Announcement

• Announced by: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW).
• Source Report: UNCTAD’s Latest Report on Maritime Transport.
• Achievement: World’s Top Ship Recycling Nation in 2025.

About Sarbananda Sonowal

• Position: Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (Cabinet Minister).
• Also holds: Minister of AYUSH.
• Native State: Assam.
• Member of Parliament: Rajya Sabha (Assam).

Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030

• Launched: 2021 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Goal: Comprehensive blueprint for maritime sector development by 2030.
• Ship Recycling Target: To become the world’s leading ship recycling nation by 2030.
• Achievement: Target met in 2025, five years ahead of schedule.

Hong Kong International Convention (HKC)

• Full Name: Hong Kong International Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships, 2009.
• Adopted: 2009 in Hong Kong.
• Entered into Force Globally: 26 June 2025.
• Aim: Ensure ships, when recycled, do not pose risks to human health, safety, or the environment.
• Key Requirements: Inventory of Hazardous Materials (IHM), Ship Recycling Plan, certifications.

About Alang-Sosiya Ship Recycling Yard (ASSRY)

• Location: Bhavnagar district, Gujarat, on the Gulf of Khambhat.
• Established: 1983 (first ship MV Kota Tenjong, beached on 13 February 1983).
• Stretches: 10 km long beach.
• Geographical Advantages:
  • Tidal range: 10-11 metres (up to 36 feet at peak).
  • Beach gradient: 15 degrees, ideal for beaching ships.
  • Sheltered location in Gulf of Khambhat.
• Regulated by: Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to India becoming the world’s top ship recycling nation in 2025, consider the following statements:

1. India’s share of global ship recycling increased to 35.4% in 2025 from 30.1% in 2024.
2. The achievement was based on the latest report by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
3. Ship recycling volume rose to 2.99 million gross tonnes in 2025, up nearly 60% from 2024.
4. The achievement was announced by the Ministry of External Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the achievement was announced by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), NOT the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched in 2021 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
2. It is a 10-year blueprint for comprehensive development of India’s maritime sector.
3. The ship recycling target under MIV 2030 has been achieved five years ahead of schedule in 2025.
4. The vision is implemented by the Ministry of Defence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; MIV 2030 is implemented by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, NOT the Ministry of Defence.)

Q3. With reference to the Recycling of Ships Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1. It received Presidential assent on 13 December 2019.
2. It aligns India’s ship recycling ecosystem with the Hong Kong International Convention.
3. India acceded to the Hong Kong Convention on 28 November 2019.
4. The Act permits unrestricted use of hazardous materials on new ships.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Act restricts and prohibits the use of hazardous materials on new ships from the date the legislation comes into force.)

Q4. With reference to the Hong Kong International Convention (HKC), consider the following statements:

1. It was adopted in 2009 in Hong Kong under the aegis of the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
2. It entered into force globally on 26 June 2025.
3. It aims to ensure safe and environmentally sound recycling of ships.
4. India is yet to ratify the HKC.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India ratified/acceded to the HKC on 28 November 2019.)

Q5. With reference to the Alang-Sosiya Ship Recycling Yard (ASSRY), consider the following statements:

1. It is located in Bhavnagar district of Gujarat on the Gulf of Khambhat.
2. It accounts for approximately 98% of India’s ship recycling and around 32% of global volume.
3. It is regulated by the Gujarat Maritime Board (GMB).
4. It was established in 2019 after the Recycling of Ships Act.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Alang was established in 1983, with the first ship MV Kota Tenjong beached on 13 February 1983, decades before the 2019 Act.)

Q6. With reference to the Ship-breaking Credit Note Scheme and BIMCO projections, consider the following statements:

1. Under the scheme, ship owners receive a credit note equivalent to 40% of the scrap value of a recycled ship.
2. The credit note can be used towards up to 5% of the value of a new vessel built at an Indian shipyard.
3. According to BIMCO, more than 16,000 vessels are expected to be recycled globally over the next decade.
4. BIMCO is a United Nations specialised agency for global shipping.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; BIMCO (Baltic and International Maritime Council) is an international shipping association based in Denmark, NOT a UN specialised agency. The UN specialised agency for shipping is the IMO (International Maritime Organization).)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because MoPSW announced it, not MEA.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because MoPSW (not Defence) implements MIV 2030.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the Act restricts hazardous materials.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India acceded to HKC in November 2019.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Alang was established in 1983.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because BIMCO is a private association, not a UN agency.

6. 16th BRICS National Security Advisers’ Meeting Begins in New Delhi

Context

India is hosting the 16th BRICS National Security Advisers’ (NSAs) Meeting in New Delhi from 22 to 23 June 2026, chaired by National Security Adviser (NSA) Ajit Doval, KC. The two-day gathering brings together security chiefs and heads of delegation from all 11 BRICS member countries — Brazil, China, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Indonesia, Iran, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). The deliberations focus on the theme ‘Non-traditional Security Challenges Confronting the World Today’, with sessions covering the rapidly evolving nature of national security threats, the role of new technologies in emerging security risks, cybersecurity, digital vulnerabilities, and AI-driven threats. Delegates will also review outcomes of the recently-held BRICS Joint Working Groups on Counter-Terrorism and on Security in the Use of Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs). The meeting takes place as India holds the BRICS Chairship for the fourth time in 2026 (after 2012, 2016, and 2021), under the theme ‘Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability’ (BRICS) — reflecting Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s people-centric and humanity-first vision articulated at the 17th BRICS Summit in Rio de Janeiro (July 2025). Key attendees include Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi, Russian Security Council Secretary Sergey Shoigu, and Iran’s Deputy Secretary of the Supreme National Security Council Ghadir Nezamipour.

The Meeting

• Event: 16th BRICS National Security Advisers’ Meeting.
• Venue: New Delhi.
• Chair: NSA Ajit Doval, KC.
• Theme: ‘Non-traditional Security Challenges Confronting the World Today’.
• Organising body: Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), Government of India.

11 BRICS Member Countries (Verified)

#	Country	Joined
1	Brazil	Founding (2006/2009)
2	Russia	Founding (2006/2009)
3	India	Founding (2006/2009)
4	China	Founding (2006/2009)
5	South Africa	2010 (BRIC → BRICS)
6	Egypt	1 January 2024
7	Ethiopia	1 January 2024
8	Iran	1 January 2024
9	United Arab Emirates (UAE)	1 January 2024
10	Indonesia	6 January 2025
11	Saudi Arabia	2025 (formally became member)

Discussion Themes

• Rapidly evolving nature of national security threats.
• Role of new technologies in emerging security risks.
• Cybersecurity and digital vulnerabilities.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI)-driven threats.
• Counter-terrorism cooperation.
• Security in the use of ICTs.
• Climate-related security risks.
• Food and energy security.

India’s BRICS Chairship 2026

• 4th Chairship (after 2012, 2016, 2021).
• Theme: “Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability” (BRICS acronym).
• Vision: People-centric and humanity-first approach by PM Modi articulated at 17th BRICS Summit, Rio de Janeiro (July 2025).
• Logo: Lotus (purity, resilience, progress) with petals in colours of all BRICS members.
• 18th BRICS Summit: Scheduled for 12–13 September 2026 in New Delhi.

Three Core Pillars of BRICS Cooperation

1. Political and Security Cooperation.
2. Economic and Financial Cooperation.
3. Cultural and People-to-People Exchanges.

India’s Previous BRICS Chairships

Year	Chairship	Summit	Venue
2012	1st	4th BRICS Summit	New Delhi
2016	2nd	8th BRICS Summit	Goa
2021	3rd	13th BRICS Summit	Virtual
2026	4th	18th BRICS Summit	New Delhi (12–13 Sept 2026)

What is BRICS?

• An intergovernmental organisation of major emerging market economies.
• Acronym: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa (later expanded).
• Formed: 2006 at UN General Assembly (UNGA) sidelines in New York.
• 1st Summit: Yekaterinburg, Russia, 2009.
• Not a treaty-based organisation: Operates through annual summits, rotating chair, and ministerial meetings.
• Economic Weight (2025–26): ~40% of global GDP (PPP), ~46% of world population, ~26% of international trade.

BRICS History

• 2001: Term “BRIC” coined by Jim O’Neill, Goldman Sachs economist.
• 2006: 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting at UNGA sidelines, New York.
• 2009: 1st BRIC Summit at Yekaterinburg, Russia.
• 2010: South Africa invited to join.
• 2011: 3rd Summit at Sanya, China — first as BRICS.
• 2023: 15th Summit, Johannesburg — 6 countries invited.
• 2024: Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE joined (1 January).
• 2024: 16th Summit at Kazan, Russia — Partner country category created.
• 2025: Indonesia joined (6 January); Saudi Arabia formalised membership.
• 2025: 17th Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil (July).
• 2026: India holds Chairship; 18th Summit at New Delhi (12–13 Sept).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the 16th BRICS National Security Advisers’ Meeting held in New Delhi, consider the following statements:

1. The meeting was held on 22–23 June 2026 and chaired by National Security Adviser Ajit Doval.
2. The theme of the meeting was “Non-traditional Security Challenges Confronting the World Today”.
3. The meeting included a review of outcomes from BRICS Joint Working Groups on Counter-Terrorism and Security in the Use of ICTs.
4. The meeting was attended by representatives from only the original 5 BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the meeting was attended by all 11 BRICS member countries, including the new members Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE, Indonesia, and Saudi Arabia.)

Q2. With reference to BRICS membership in 2026, consider the following statements:

1. BRICS currently has 11 full member countries.
2. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the UAE joined as full members on 1 January 2024.
3. Indonesia became a full member on 6 January 2025.
4. Argentina is currently a full member of BRICS.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Argentina was invited in 2023 but withdrew its application under President Javier Milei in December 2023; Argentina is NOT a member of BRICS.)

Q3. With reference to India’s BRICS Chairship in 2026, consider the following statements:

1. India holds the BRICS Chairship for the fourth time in 2026, having previously chaired in 2012, 2016, and 2021.
2. India’s BRICS Chairship is guided by the theme “Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability”.
3. The theme reflects PM Narendra Modi’s people-centric vision articulated at the 17th BRICS Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 2025.
4. The 18th BRICS Summit will be hosted by Brazil in 2026.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 18th BRICS Summit will be hosted by India in New Delhi on 12–13 September 2026, NOT Brazil.)

Q4. With reference to the BRICS grouping, consider the following statements:

1. The term “BRIC” was coined by economist Jim O’Neill of Goldman Sachs in 2001.
2. The first BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009.
3. South Africa joined the bloc in 2010, transforming it from BRIC to BRICS.
4. BRICS is a treaty-based military alliance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; BRICS is NOT a treaty-based organisation and NOT a military alliance; it operates through annual summits, rotating chair, and ministerial meetings.)

Q5. With reference to the three core pillars of BRICS cooperation, consider the following statements:

1. The pillars are: political and security cooperation; economic and financial cooperation; and cultural and people-to-people exchanges.
2. The agenda has expanded beyond the original economic focus to include counter-terrorism, climate change, and ICT security.
3. The New Development Bank (NDB) was established in 2014 and is headquartered in Shanghai.
4. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is a $50 billion liquidity backstop for BRICS members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is a $100 billion liquidity backstop, NOT $50 billion.)

Q6. With reference to NSA Ajit Doval’s bilateral engagements on the sidelines of the 16th BRICS NSAs Meeting, consider the following statements:

1. He met Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi in discussions described as “constructive and forward-looking”.
2. He held talks with South Africa’s Minister in the Presidency, Khumbudzo Ntshavheni.
3. He met Russian Security Council Secretary Sergey Shoigu, who arrived in New Delhi for the meeting.
4. He held bilateral talks with the US Secretary of State on the sidelines of the meeting.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the US is NOT a BRICS member, so the US Secretary of State did not attend the BRICS NSAs meeting; NSA Doval’s bilateral engagements were with BRICS counterparts only.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because all 11 BRICS members attended.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because Argentina withdrew its application in December 2023.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because India (not Brazil) hosts the 18th Summit.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because BRICS is not a treaty-based military alliance.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the CRA is $100 billion, not $50 billion.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because the US is not a BRICS member.

Banking/Finance

1. SEBI Approves Wider Use of Intraday Borrowing by Mutual Funds for Liquidity Management

Source: News on Air

Context

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), India’s capital markets regulator, has approved amendments to the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 2026 allowing mutual funds to use intraday borrowing facilities for a wider range of liquidity management purposes, beyond just redemption and unitholder payouts. This decision was approved at the 214th SEBI Board Meeting held in Mumbai on 19 June 2026, following a Consultation Paper issued on 13 May 2026 (with public comments invited till 3 June 2026) and detailed discussions with the Mutual Fund Advisory Committee (MFAC), the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI), and other stakeholders. The expanded framework allows Asset Management Companies (AMCs) to use intraday borrowings for: (a) trade settlements (pay-in/pay-out timing mismatches), (b) foreign exchange (forex) obligations, (c) derivative-related Mark-to-Market (MTM) payments, and (d) repayment of existing borrowings. Intraday borrowings can now also exceed the value of guaranteed receivables from the Government of India, RBI, and clearing corporations, provided they are extinguished by end of day or converted into overnight borrowings within prescribed limits. SEBI clarified that intraday borrowings cannot be used as a source of leverage, and the cost or charges must be borne by the AMC, not by investors. The decision was taken under the chairmanship of SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey.

The Decision

• Venue: 214th SEBI Board Meeting, Mumbai.
• Chair: Tuhin Kanta Pandey, SEBI Chairman.
• Amendments to: SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 2026.

Existing Framework

• SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 2026: Came into effect on 1 April 2026.
• Original Provision: Intraday borrowing only for redemption/unitholder payouts.
• Restriction: Borrowing limited to guaranteed receivables from GoI, RBI, CCIL and other clearing corporations.
• Implementation Deferred: Till 15 July 2026 due to operational challenges raised by AMFI/AMCs.

Why the Change?

• AMFI Representations: Highlighted that narrow scope did not reflect actual industry usage.
• Real-world Practice: Mutual funds use intraday borrowing for:
  • Trade pay-in obligations.
  • Forex settlements.
  • Derivative margin requirements.
  • Repayment of existing borrowings.

Revised Framework

Feature	Previous Framework	Revised Framework
Purposes Permitted	Redemption/unitholder payouts only	Trade settlements, forex, MTM derivatives, repayment of borrowings, redemptions
Receivable Basis	Only guaranteed receivables (GoI, RBI, CCIL)	Expected inflows including non-guaranteed (secondary market, maturity proceeds)
Borrowing Cap	Limited to guaranteed receivables	Can exceed receivables if repaid by end-of-day
Use as Leverage	Restricted	Explicitly prohibited as leverage
Cost Bearer	AMC	AMC (no change; investors protected)
Existing 20% Cap	Applies	Continues to apply for unitholder payouts

Existing Borrowing Limits (Verified — Regulation 42(1) of SEBI MF Regulations, 2026)

• Maximum borrowing: Up to 20% of scheme’s net assets.
• Maximum duration: 6 months.
• Purposes: Temporary liquidity needs for:
  • Repurchase/redemption of units.
  • Payment of interest/IDCW payouts.
  • Trade settlement by equity index/ETFs on account of under-execution.

Open Market Share Buybacks

• Reintroduced through stock exchanges from 1 August 2026.
• Amendments to SEBI (Buy-back of Securities) Regulations, 2018.
• Timeline: Must be completed within 66 working days.
• First half: At least 40% of earmarked funds to be deployed.
• Routes: In addition to existing tender offer and book-building routes.

GARUDA Mechanism for AIFs

• GARUDA = Green-Channel: AIF Rollout Upon Document Acknowledgement.
• New scheme launch timeline reduced to 10 working days for regular AIFs.
• Accredited-investor-only schemes and angel funds: Can launch immediately upon registration.
• Aim: Faster, more efficient capital deployment by Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).

What is a Mutual Fund?

• A pooled investment vehicle managed by an Asset Management Company (AMC).
• Collects money from multiple investors and invests in equity, debt, hybrid securities, etc.
• Regulated by: SEBI, since 1996 through SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations.
• Industry size: Average AUM ≈ ₹82 lakh crore (as of April 2026).

About AMFI

• Full Name: Association of Mutual Funds in India.
• Established: 22 August 1995.
• HQ: Mumbai.
• Function: Industry body for development of mutual fund industry, self-regulation, investor education.
• Tagline: “Mutual Funds Sahi Hai”.

About SEBI

• Full Name: Securities and Exchange Board of India.
• Established: 12 April 1988 (non-statutory); statutory powers via SEBI Act, 1992.
• HQ: Mumbai.
• Chairman: Tuhin Kanta Pandey (since 1 March 2025).
• Functions: Regulator of securities and commodity markets.
• Reports to: Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the SEBI proposal/approval on intraday borrowing by mutual funds, consider the following statements:

1. The consultation paper was issued on 13 May 2026 and the proposal was approved at the 214th SEBI Board Meeting on 19 June 2026.
2. Mutual funds can now use intraday borrowing for trade settlements, forex obligations, and derivative-related payments.
3. Any cost or charges related to intraday borrowing must be borne by the Asset Management Company (AMC), not by investors.
4. Intraday borrowings can be used as a source of leverage to enhance investment exposure.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; SEBI explicitly clarified that intraday borrowings cannot be used as a source of leverage.)

Q2. With reference to the existing borrowing framework for mutual funds under Regulation 42(1) of SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Mutual funds cannot borrow more than 20% of a scheme’s net assets.
2. Borrowings cannot extend beyond six months.
3. Borrowings can be used to meet temporary liquidity needs for redemption, interest payments, and IDCW payouts.
4. Mutual funds are permitted unlimited borrowing for any purpose at all times.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; borrowings are strictly capped at 20% of net assets and restricted to temporary liquidity needs.)

Q3. With reference to the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI), consider the following statements:

1. AMFI was established on 22 August 1995.
2. It is headquartered in Mumbai.
3. Its functions include industry development, investor education, and self-regulation.
4. AMFI is a statutory regulator of the mutual fund industry in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; AMFI is an industry body, NOT a statutory regulator; the statutory regulator of mutual funds is SEBI.)

Q4. With reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:

1. SEBI was established as a non-statutory body on 12 April 1988.
2. It was granted statutory powers through the SEBI Act, 1992.
3. The current Chairman of SEBI is Tuhin Kanta Pandey, who took charge on 1 March 2025.
4. SEBI is headquartered in New Delhi.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; SEBI is headquartered in Mumbai, NOT New Delhi.)

Q5. With reference to other SEBI reforms approved at the 214th Board Meeting on 19 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Open market share buybacks through stock exchanges have been reintroduced from 1 August 2026.
2. Such buybacks must be completed within 66 working days.
3. The GARUDA mechanism reduces the AIF scheme launch timeline to 10 working days for regular AIFs.
4. GARUDA stands for “General Authority for Regulating Underwriting and Distribution Activities”.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; GARUDA stands for “Green-Channel: AIF Rollout Upon Document Acknowledgement”, NOT “General Authority for Regulating Underwriting and Distribution Activities”.)

Q6. With reference to the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL), consider the following statements:

1. CCIL was established on 30 April 2001 and is headquartered in Mumbai.
2. It provides clearing and settlement services for transactions in money, G-Secs, forex, and derivative markets.
3. Receivables from CCIL are considered guaranteed receivables for mutual funds.
4. CCIL is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; CCIL is NOT a subsidiary of the RBI; it is an independent clearing corporation with shareholders including major banks and financial institutions, though RBI plays a supervisory role.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because intraday borrowings cannot be used as leverage.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because borrowings are capped at 20% of net assets.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because AMFI is an industry body, not a statutory regulator.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because SEBI is headquartered in Mumbai.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because GARUDA’s expansion is different.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because CCIL is not an RBI subsidiary.

2. RBI Defers Revised Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Directions Implementation to 1 January 2027

Source: Business Standard

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has deferred the implementation of the revised Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Directions by six months — to 1 January 2027 from the originally proposed 1 July 2026 — after accepting stakeholder feedback on operational and technology-related challenges. The announcement was made via an RBI release on Friday, 19 June 2026, formally issuing the final KCC Directions, 2026 for Commercial Banks, Small Finance Banks (SFBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Rural Co-operative Banks. The Directions follow draft norms issued on 12 February 2026 for public consultation. KCC loans sanctioned before 1 January 2027 will continue to be governed by existing KCC guidelines until maturity or the next renewal. Key modifications accepted include: standardising crop seasons at 12 months for short-duration crops and 18 months for long-duration crops (aligned with Income Recognition and Asset Classification (IRAC) norms); incorporating references to District Level Technical Committees (DLTCs); including an indicative list of technological interventions; extending Flexi KCC to allied activities; and rounding off KCC credit limits to the nearest ₹1,000. The RBI also clarified that term loans exceeding 6 years will be treated as separate credit facilities outside the KCC framework; banks may maintain separate loan accounts for short-term working capital and long-term investment components; and collateral-free agricultural lending remains at ₹2 lakh (extended to ₹3 lakh for loans with hypothecation and tie-up arrangements). RBI declined suggestions to raise the Flexi KCC limit, permit lending beyond Scale of Finance (SoF), raise the collateral-free limit, allow renewals based on interest servicing, and consolidate credit sub-limits. Interest subvention under MISS, cooperative reporting to CICs, and KCC portability were declared outside the scope of these Directions.

The Announcement

• Released by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Document: KCC Directions, 2026 (Master Direction).
• Original Implementation Date: 1 July 2026.
• Revised Implementation Date: 1 January 2027 (deferred by 6 months).
• Draft Issued On: 12 February 2026.

Applicable Banks

• Commercial Banks (Public & Private).
• Small Finance Banks (SFBs).
• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
• Rural Co-operative Banks.

Transition Rule

• KCC loans sanctioned before 1 January 2027: Continue under existing guidelines until maturity or next renewal.
• KCC loans sanctioned on/after 1 January 2027: Governed by the new Directions.

Suggestions Accepted by RBI (Key Modifications)

1. Crop Season Standardisation (aligned with IRAC norms):
   • Short-duration crops: 12 months.
   • Long-duration crops: 18 months.
2. Inclusion of DLTC references in the Directions.
3. Indicative list of technological interventions for KCC framework.
4. Flexi KCC applicability to allied activities (animal husbandry, fisheries, etc.).
5. Rounding off credit limits to nearest ₹1,000.
6. Borrower consent for insurance premiums can be obtained at the application stage.

Clarifications Made by RBI

Clarification	Details
SoF Continuity	If Scale of Finance is not revised for a subsequent year, banks should continue with existing SoF; no automatic increase in drawing limits.
SoF Determination	KCC loans require SoF determined by State Level Technical Committees (SLTC) or District Level Technical Committees (DLTC).
Term Loans > 6 Years	Treated as separate credit facilities outside KCC framework.
Loan Accounts	Banks may maintain separate accounts for short-term (working capital) and long-term (investment) components.
Insurance Premiums	Explicit borrower consent at the application stage required.

Suggestions NOT Accepted by RBI

• Increase Flexi KCC limit.
• Permit lending beyond notified Scale of Finance (SoF).
• Increase collateral-free lending limit (RBI noted limit was revised in December 2024).
• Allow KCC renewals based on interest servicing alone.
• Single consolidated credit limit (instead of separate sub-limits).

Issues Outside the Scope of Directions

• Interest subvention under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS).
• Reporting by cooperative institutions to Credit Information Companies (CICs).
• KCC portability across banks.

Key Features of the Revised KCC Framework

Feature	Details
Type	Composite credit facility
Tenure	6 years
Crop Seasons	12 months (short-duration), 18 months (long-duration)
Sub-limits	Permitted for operational convenience
Repayment	Based on crop season or cash flow of allied activities
Collateral-Free Limit	₹2 lakh per borrower
Hypothecation + Tie-up Limit	₹3 lakh per borrower
Voluntary Pledge	Gold/silver pledge not treated as violation of collateral-free norms
Above ₹2 lakh	Banks decide collateral and margin as per internal credit policy

Eligible Borrowers Under KCC

• Farmers (individual/joint) — owner cultivators.
• Tenant farmers, oral lessees, sharecroppers.
• Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
• Joint Liability Groups (JLGs).

Coverage of KCC Credit

• Short-term credit for crop cultivation (seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, labour).
• Post-harvest expenses.
• Working capital for farm assets and allied activities.
• Investment credit for agriculture and allied activities.
• Allied activities: animal husbandry, fisheries, aquaculture, sericulture, lac culture, beekeeping.
• Household consumption (limited).

About the Kisan Credit Card Scheme

Genesis

• Launched: August 1998.
• Conceptualised by: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
• Based on: R.V. Gupta Committee recommendations.
• Purpose: Provide timely and adequate institutional credit to farmers, replacing dependence on moneylenders.

Historical Milestones

Year	Milestone
1998 (August)	KCC Scheme launched
2004	Expanded to investment credit and non-farm allied activities
2006-07	Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) began
2018-19	Extended to animal husbandry and fisheries
December 2020	Revised KCC Scheme launched by PM Modi
September 2023	Kisan Rin Portal launched to digitise claims
2024-25	MISS limit raised from ₹3 lakh to ₹5 lakh (Budget 2025-26)
June 2026	Final KCC Directions, 2026 issued for 1 January 2027

Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS)

• Effective Rate: 4% for farmers with prompt repayment.
• Components:
  • Card Rate: 9% p.a.
  • Interest Subvention (IS): 2% to banks (Govt of India).
  • Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI): 3% to farmers.
• Loan Limit Under MISS (Budget 2025-26): Raised from ₹3 lakh to ₹5 lakh.
• Coverage Expansion: 10 million additional farmers.

Insurance Benefits Under KCC

• Personal Accidental Insurance:
  • Death/Permanent Disability: ₹50,000.
  • Other risks: ₹25,000.
• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) integration.

KCC Growth Statistics

Metric	Value
Operative KCC Loans (March 2014)	₹4.26 lakh crore
Operative KCC Loans (December 2024)	₹10.05 lakh crore
Total Cards Issued (2023)	Over 20 crore (200 million)
NAFIS 2021-22 Penetration	44.1% of agri households (up from 10.5%)

About the Reserve Bank of India (RBI, Verified)

Feature	Details
Established	1 April 1935 under RBI Act, 1934
Nationalised	1 January 1949
HQ	Mumbai
Governor (Current)	Sanjay Malhotra (since 11 December 2024)
Role	Central bank, monetary authority, regulator of banking and payment systems

About NABARD

Feature	Details
Established	12 July 1982 under the NABARD Act, 1981
HQ	Mumbai
Chairman	Shaji K.V.
Role	Apex development bank for agriculture and rural development.
Functions	Refinance, supervision (of RRBs and Cooperative banks), institutional capacity building, KCC model.

About Scale of Finance (SoF)

• The per-acre/hectare credit limit for various crops and activities.
• Determined annually by District Level Technical Committees (DLTCs) at the district level.
• State Level Technical Committees (SLTCs) approve state-wide standardisation.
• Includes: Cost of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, labour, electricity, water, etc.

Calculation of KCC Drawing Limit

• Formula: (SoF for crop × Area cultivated) + 10% of limit (for household/post-harvest expenses).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the revised KCC Directions issued by RBI in June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The RBI deferred implementation from 1 July 2026 to 1 January 2027.
2. KCC loans sanctioned before 1 January 2027 will continue under existing guidelines until maturity or next renewal.
3. The Directions apply to Commercial Banks, Small Finance Banks, Regional Rural Banks, and Rural Co-operative Banks.
4. The Directions were issued by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Directions were issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), NOT NABARD. NABARD conceptualised the original KCC scheme in 1998.)

Q2. With reference to crop season standardisation under the new KCC Directions, consider the following statements:

1. Short-duration crops will be standardised at 12 months.
2. Long-duration crops will be standardised at 18 months.
3. The standardisation aligns with the Income Recognition and Asset Classification (IRAC) norms.
4. The standardisation will apply uniformly to all crops without distinction.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the standardisation distinguishes between short-duration (12 months) and long-duration (18 months) crops, not a uniform period.)

Q3. With reference to the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The KCC Scheme was launched in August 1998.
2. The scheme was conceptualised by NABARD based on the R.V. Gupta Committee recommendations.
3. In 2004, the scheme was expanded to include investment credit and non-farm allied activities.
4. The KCC scheme is administered exclusively by Public Sector Banks.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the KCC scheme is administered by Commercial Banks (public and private), Small Finance Banks, Regional Rural Banks, and Rural Co-operative Banks, NOT exclusively by PSBs.)

Q4. With reference to the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS) for KCC loans, consider the following statements:

1. The card rate is 9% per annum, with 2% interest subvention to banks and 3% Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) to farmers, making the effective rate 4%.
2. The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the MISS loan limit from ₹3 lakh to ₹5 lakh.
3. Issues relating to MISS were declared outside the scope of the new KCC Directions issued on 19 June 2026.
4. Interest subvention under MISS is provided to all categories of KCC borrowers regardless of loan repayment behaviour.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 3% Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) is conditional on timely repayment — farmers who do not repay on time get only the 2% subvention component.)

Q5. With reference to the proposals not accepted by RBI in the revised KCC Directions, consider the following statements:

1. RBI did not increase the collateral-free lending limit, noting it was revised as recently as December 2024.
2. RBI did not permit lending beyond the notified Scale of Finance (SoF).
3. RBI did not accept a proposal for single consolidated credit limit instead of separate sub-limits.
4. RBI agreed to allow KCC renewals based purely on interest servicing.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; RBI did NOT accept the proposal to allow KCC renewals based on interest servicing alone.)

Q6. With reference to clarifications by RBI in the revised KCC Directions, consider the following statements:

1. Term loans with a tenure exceeding 6 years will be treated as separate credit facilities outside the KCC framework.
2. Banks may maintain separate loan accounts for short-term working capital and long-term investment components.
3. KCC credit limits will be rounded off to the nearest ₹1,000.
4. Where Scale of Finance is not revised for a subsequent year, banks must automatically increase the drawing limit by 10%.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; RBI clarified that no automatic increase in drawing limits is envisaged; banks should continue using the existing SoF.)

Answer Key

1. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because RBI (not NABARD) issued the Directions.
2. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because standardisation distinguishes short and long-duration crops.
3. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because KCC is offered by multiple bank categories.
4. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because PRI is conditional on timely repayment.
5. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because RBI rejected the interest-servicing renewal proposal.
6. (c), Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct; Statement 4 is wrong because no automatic increase in SoF is envisaged.

Exam Relevance

Banking (RBI Gr B, SBI PO, IBPS, NABARD)	Very high importance, Direct subject matter on KCC, MISS, agricultural credit
RBI Grade B	Extremely high importance, Direct subject matter, Finance & Management
NABARD Grade A	Extremely high importance, Direct subject matter — KCC scheme
SIDBI Grade A	Rural finance, MSME-agri linkage

Facts To Remember

1. 19th Mumbai International Film Festival Concludes; Polish Documentary Silver Wins Golden Conch

The 19th Mumbai International Film Festival (MIFF 2026) concluded in Mumbai, where Polish documentary Silver won the prestigious Golden Conch Award. Maharashtra Governor Jishnu Dev Varma described MIFF as one of the world’s leading festivals for non-fiction cinema, highlighting its contribution to documentary and short filmmaking.

2. President Droupadi Murmu Reviews Project Cheetah at Kuno National Park

President Droupadi Murmu visited Kuno National Park to review the progress of Project Cheetah, India’s flagship wildlife conservation initiative aimed at reintroducing cheetahs into the wild after their extinction in the country. The visit focused on conservation progress and habitat management.

3. INS Tarkash Reaches Mauritius During Operational Deployment

INS Tarkash reached Port Louis, Mauritius, as part of its operational deployment in the South West Indian Ocean Region. The deployment strengthens India’s maritime cooperation and enhances regional security and naval diplomacy.

4. PM Modi Congratulates Indian Women’s Hockey Team on Nations Cup Victory

Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated the Indian Women’s Hockey Team for winning the FIH Women’s Nations Cup. He praised the team for their outstanding performance and acknowledged their achievement as a major milestone for Indian hockey.

5. KVIC Celebrates 12th International Yoga Day

The Khadi and Village Industries Commission celebrated the 12th International Yoga Day in New Delhi. KVIC Chairman Manoj Goel encouraged participants to embrace yoga for a healthier and more balanced lifestyle.

6. India to Host 11th BRICS Energy Ministers’ Meeting

India will host the 11th BRICS Energy Ministers’ Meeting in Gurugram, Haryana, on 25–26 June 2026 under its BRICS Chairship. The meeting will focus on energy security, clean energy transition, and sustainable cooperation among BRICS nations.

7. Ministry of Earth Sciences and IMD Observe International Yoga Day

The Ministry of Earth Sciences and India Meteorological Department celebrated the International Day of Yoga in New Delhi with the theme “Yoga for Healthy Ageing.” The event emphasized wellness and healthy living through yoga.

8. Gajendra Singh Shekhawat Extends Greetings on World Camel Day

Union Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat extended greetings on World Camel Day, highlighting the cultural, ecological, and economic significance of camels, especially in arid and desert regions of India.

9. Government Launches Nirbhay Chetna Training Module

The Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched the Nirbhay Chetna training module in New Delhi under the Nirbhaya Fund project. The initiative aims to enhance awareness, safety measures, and gender-sensitive governance at the grassroots level.

10. Bhavishya Platform Improves Pension Processing

The Bhavishya platform, developed by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare, has significantly improved pension processing for central government employees by digitizing procedures and reducing delays, thereby enhancing ease of living for pensioners.

11. First Batch of Kailash Mansarovar Yatra 2026 Pilgrims Crosses into China

The first batch of pilgrims undertaking the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra 2026 crossed into China through the Nathu La Pass, marking the start of their sacred pilgrimage to Mount Kailash and Lake Mansarovar.

12. World Bank Approves USD 1.5 Billion Loan to India

The World Bank approved a USD 1.5 billion loan to India to support structural reforms aimed at boosting private sector-led job creation and accelerating long-term economic growth.

13. Indian Women’s Hockey Team Wins FIH Women’s Nations Cup

India women’s national field hockey team won the FIH Women’s Nations Cup 2025–26 by defeating New Zealand 2–0 in the final. The victory secured India’s promotion to the FIH Pro League 2026–27.

14. World Refugee Day 2026 Observed

World Refugee Day was observed on 20 June 2026 with the theme “Until Everyone Is Safe.” The day honors the resilience of refugees displaced by conflict and persecution.

15. International Day of Yoga 2026 Observed

International Day of Yoga was celebrated on 21 June 2026 with the theme “Yoga for Healthy Ageing.” The global observance highlighted yoga’s benefits for physical, mental, and emotional well-being.

16. World Hydrography Day 2026 Observed

World Hydrography Day was observed on 21 June 2026 with the theme “Transforming how ocean data is shared.” The day emphasizes hydrography’s importance in navigation, marine resource management, and ocean safety.