Current Affairs July 2026

Context

Union Health Minister Shri J.P. Nadda on Monday, 29 June 2026 in New Delhi launched “Ayushman Sarathi” — the official PM-JAY WhatsApp chatbot — developed by the National Health Authority (NHA) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It provides citizens with secure, 24×7, API-based access to Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) services — including eligibility check, card management (apply/download/lock-unlock), eKYC, Aadhaar linking, Ayushman Vaya Vandana Card for senior citizens 70+ years, wallet balance, treatment history, empanelled hospital locator, grievance registration, and post-discharge feedback. Beneficiaries access it by sending “Hi” to +91 72908 23838 on WhatsApp or scanning the official NHA QR code. Nadda simultaneously launched the Unified Drug Registry, Unified Health Interface (UHI), and Aarogya Setu 2.0 (Personal Health Record platform under ABDM).

Key Features

• Comprehensive Card Management (apply, download, lock/unlock, eKYC, Aadhaar linking).
• Dynamic Security Grid (lock/unlock cards to prevent misuse).
• Ayushman Vaya Vandana Card module for senior citizens 70+ years.
• Real-Time Financial + Clinical Lookups (wallet balance, treatment history, empanelled hospital search).
• Automated Grievance Redressal (register/track/withdraw + post-discharge feedback).
• Instant Activation 24×7 via WhatsApp.

What is PM-JAY?

• Full Form: Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (under Ayushman Bharat).
• Launched: 23 September 2018.
• Coverage: Up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary + tertiary care.
• Implementing Agency: NHA under MoHFW.

Ayushman Vaya Vandana Card

• Launched 29 October 2024 by PM Modi.
• All senior citizens 70+ years, irrespective of income.
• ₹5 lakh top-up cover under PM-JAY.

Simultaneous Launches

Initiative	Detail
Unified Drug Registry	Standardised digital platform for drug information
Unified Health Interface (UHI)	Interoperability layer for health services under ABDM
Aarogya Setu 2.0	Personal Health Record (PHR) platform under Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)

What is ABDM?

• Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission — launched 27 September 2021.
• Builds India’s digital health infrastructure — ABHA ID (14-digit), Healthcare Professionals Registry, Health Facility Registry, PHR.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to “Ayushman Sarathi” launched on 29 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by Union Health Minister Shri J.P. Nadda in New Delhi.
2. It is developed by the National Health Authority (NHA) under the MoHFW.
3. It is a WhatsApp-based chatbot providing 24×7 access to AB PM-JAY services.
4. It is a paid application requiring monthly subscription for beneficiaries.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Ayushman Sarathi is FREE for beneficiaries — no subscription is required.)

Q2. With reference to the features of the Ayushman Sarathi chatbot, consider the following statements:

1. Beneficiaries can check PM-JAY eligibility, apply for and download Ayushman Card, and re-do eKYC.
2. Beneficiaries can lock/unlock their PM-JAY cards to prevent misuse.
3. Beneficiaries can view wallet balance, treatment history, and locate empanelled hospitals.
4. Beneficiaries cannot register or track grievances through the chatbot.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; automated grievance registration, tracking, and withdrawal are among Ayushman Sarathi’s key features.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Free, not paid.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Grievance features included.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
RBI Grade B (Phase I + II)	High — ESI on health governance, DPI health
NABARD Grade A	High — Rural health scheme access
SIDBI/SEBI/IRDAI Grade A	Medium — Digital governance
Banking (SBI PO, IBPS)	Very High — Recurring GA: PM-JAY, NHA, ABDM
UPSC Prelims & Mains	Very High — GS-II (Schemes, Governance)
State PCS	High
SSC, Railway, Insurance	Very High

5. Project BRAHMANK of Border Roads Organisation (BRO) Celebrates 16th Raising Day

Source: PIB

Context

Project BRAHMANK of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) celebrated its 16th Raising Day on Monday, 29 June 2026 at Ranaghat, East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh — marking 15 years of service in developing strategic infrastructure and connectivity along India’s north-eastern frontier. Project BRAHMANK was raised on 29 June 2011 and became operational on 3 December 2011. It develops + maintains strategic road infrastructure across 5 districts of Arunachal Pradesh — Siang, East Siang, West Siang, Upper Siang, and Shi-Yomi — along with parts of Dhemaji district in Assam. Under its charge: 811 km of roads and 86 bridges (culverts to major steel + arch bridges). Notable engineering: the 100-m steel arch bridge over Siyom Nallah and the 165-m Pre-Stressed Concrete (PSC) bridge over Simang Nallah on the Along-Yingkiong Road. In FY 2025-26, the project completed 13 bridges (cumulative 390 m span) and blacktopped 61 km of roads to National Highway Double Lane (NHDL) standards. It also develops tactical helipads for IAF logistics + emergency evacuation in the LAC-adjacent zone.

What is BRO?

The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a premier executive force under India’s Ministry of Defence. It builds and maintains critical infrastructure in remote border regions and friendly neighboring countries. Headquartered in New Delhi.

• Full Form: Border Roads Organisation.
• Established: 7 May 1960.
• Under: Ministry of Defence (from 2015; earlier under MoRTH).
• Motto: “Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam” (Everything is achievable through hard work).
• Founding Force: General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) + military engineers.
• DG-BRO: Lt Gen Raghu Srinivasan (as of 2025).

What is Project BRAHMANK?

A BRO road-development project raised on 29 June 2011 at Ranaghat, East Siang, AP; develops strategic roads + bridges across 5 AP districts + Dhemaji (Assam).

BRO Projects Across Border Regions

Region	Projects
Arunachal Pradesh	Vartak, Arunank, Udayak, BRAHMANK
Ladakh	Himank, Beacon, Deepak, Vijayak, Yojak
Sikkim	Swastik
Mizoram	Pushpak
Assam + Meghalaya	Setuk
Nagaland + Manipur	Sewak
J&K	Sampark
Rajasthan	Chetak

Key BRO Iconic Infrastructure

• Sela Tunnel (Arunachal, inaugurated 9 March 2024) — longest bi-lane tunnel above 13,000 ft.
• Nechiphu Tunnel, Sisseri Bridge, Siyom Bridge (Arunachal).
• Atal Tunnel (Rohtang) — 9.02 km long, inaugurated 3 October 2020.
• Shinku La Tunnel (Ladakh) — under construction; world’s highest tunnel at 15,800 ft.
• Darbuk-Shyok-DBO Road (Ladakh).
• Srinagar-Leh Highway.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Project BRAHMANK, consider the following statements:

1. It functions under the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) of the Ministry of Defence.
2. It was raised on 29 June 2011 at Ranaghat, East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh, and became operational on 3 December 2011.
3. It celebrated its 16th Raising Day on 29 June 2026.
4. Project BRAHMANK operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; BRO is under the Ministry of Defence (since 2015) — NOT the Ministry of Home Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to Project BRAHMANK’s area of responsibility, consider the following statements:

1. It develops strategic road infrastructure across five Arunachal Pradesh districts — Siang, East Siang, West Siang, Upper Siang, and Shi-Yomi.
2. It also covers parts of Dhemaji district in Assam.
3. It maintains 811 km of roads and 86 bridges under its charge.
4. Project BRAHMANK operates in the Ladakh region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Project BRAHMANK operates in Arunachal Pradesh + parts of Assam, NOT Ladakh. BRO projects in Ladakh include Himank, Beacon, Deepak, Vijayak, Yojak.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: BRO under MoD, not MHA.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: BRAHMANK in AP/Assam, not Ladakh.

6. Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah Launches “FCRA 2.0 Portal” + “e-OCI Card”

Context

Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah on Tuesday, 30 June 2026 launched two major digital initiatives of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in New Delhi — the FCRA 2.0 Portal and the electronic Overseas Citizen of India (e-OCI) Card. Attending the launch were Union Home Secretary Shri Govind Mohan, Foreign Secretary Shri Vikram Misri, Intelligence Bureau (IB) Director Shri Mahesh Dixit, and other senior officials. The FCRA 2.0 Portal, hosted on MeghRaj (National Government Cloud), aims to reduce paperwork, speed up processing of registration applications under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, and enable real-time monitoring of foreign fund inflows. Features include process re-engineering, integrated dashboard, Aadhaar-based authentication, e-Sign, OCR-based document analysis, and API integration with PAN, Aadhaar, NGO Darpan, OCI, and ICAI UDIN. Currently, ~14,500 active FCRA organisations operate in India, receiving 15,000-20,000 applications and ~17,000 annual returns each year. The e-OCI Card — designed for the 50+ lakh OCI cardholders globally — enables a fully digital application-to-download experience, ends the need to re-issue the OCI booklet upon issuance of a new passport after 20 years of age, allows real-time self-verification, and eliminates risk of loss/damage. The launch aligns with Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2026 and the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026. Future features include an AI-powered chatbot, FCRA mobile app, and dedicated bank dashboard.

What is the FCRA 2.0 Portal?

• A revamped digital platform for the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010.
• End-to-end digital: Applications, renewals, annual returns, other services.
• Hosted on: MeghRaj (National Government Cloud).

What are the key features of FCRA 2.0?

Feature	Detail
Process re-engineering	Streamlined workflow
Integrated dashboard	Single login-based view
Aadhaar-based authentication	For identity verification
e-Sign facility	Digital signatures
OCR-based document analysis	Auto-extract text from uploaded PDFs
API integration	PAN, Aadhaar, OCI, NGO Darpan, ICAI’s UDIN
Future features	AI-powered chatbot, FCRA mobile app, dedicated bank dashboard

What is FCRA?

• Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 — replaced FCRA 1976.
• Purpose: Regulate acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, companies.
• Ministry: MHA.

Key features of FCRA (2010)

• Prior permission or registration required to receive foreign contributions.
• No sub-granting (Section 7 — foreign funds cannot be transferred to another entity).
• Bank account: Must be in State Bank of India, New Delhi Main Branch (Sansad Marg).
• Aadhaar required for office-bearers.
• Utilisation cap: 20% of foreign contribution for administrative expenses.
• Renewal: Every 5 years.

What are the FCRA Amendment Rules, 2026?

• Recently notified by MHA.
• Modifies: FCRA Rules, 2011.
• Introduces a dedicated schedule listing permissible activities under the religious category.
• Tightens compliance requirements.
• Requires 75% utilisation of previous funds before receiving next installment.
• Expands accountability to key functionaries.

What is the e-OCI Card?

• Electronic Overseas Citizen of India Card — fully digital OCI.
• Beneficiaries: 50+ lakh OCI cardholders globally.
• Fully online: Application → document upload → download digitally generated card.
• Existing cardholders can transition to e-OCI without fresh application or physical verification in most cases.

Key benefits of e-OCI

Old system	e-OCI system
Physical OCI booklet re-issuance on new passport (after 20 yrs)	Just update passport details online
Fresh application/verification for booklet renewal	Not required for most existing holders
Risk of loss/damage of physical booklet	Digital — no loss/damage risk
Verification requires MHA contact	Real-time self-verification by cardholder
Registration number could change	Unique registration number retained

What is the OCI Scheme?

• Introduced: August 2005 by GoI.
• Under: Citizenship Act, 1955.
• Eligibility: Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were Indian citizens on/after 26 January 1950 or eligible to become so.
• Excludes: Citizens of Pakistan, Bangladesh, or notified countries.
• Not a dual citizenship — OCI is a lifetime multi-entry visa + certain economic/educational rights, NOT full Indian citizenship.

What is NGO Darpan?

• NITI Aayog’s portal for registration + reporting by NGOs receiving GoI funding.
• Integrated with FCRA 2.0.

What is ICAI’s UDIN?

• Unique Document Identification Number system by ICAI.
• Generates unique numbers for CA certifications.
• Integrated with FCRA 2.0 for audit compliance verification.

What is MeghRaj?

• Government of India Cloud Initiative launched February 2014.
• Under Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY).
• Purpose: Accelerate e-governance service delivery via cloud.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the FCRA 2.0 Portal launched on 30 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The FCRA 2.0 Portal was launched by Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah in New Delhi.
2. The portal is hosted on MeghRaj, the National Government Cloud, under MeitY.
3. The portal includes features such as Aadhaar-based authentication, e-Sign facility, and OCR-based document analysis.
4. The FCRA 2.0 Portal is administered by the Ministry of External Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the FCRA 2.0 Portal is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), NOT the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010, consider the following statements:

1. FCRA 2010 replaced the earlier FCRA 1976.
2. It regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and companies in India.
3. Currently, approximately 14,500 active FCRA-registered organisations operate in India, receiving 15,000-20,000 applications and about 17,000 annual returns each year.
4. Under FCRA 2010, foreign contributions can be freely sub-granted from one recipient entity to another.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; under Section 7 of FCRA 2010 (amended 2020), NO sub-granting is allowed — foreign contributions received by an entity cannot be transferred to another entity.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: FCRA 2.0 administered by MHA, not MEA.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Sub-granting is prohibited under Section 7 of FCRA.

Banking/Finance

1. EPFO’s Centralised IT-Enabled System (CITES 2.01) Migration Undertaken

Source: The Hindu

Context

The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) recently sent text messages to subscribers announcing a “planned database consolidation and upgradation of software applications” from 26 June to 1 July 2026 as part of the Centralised IT-Enabled System (CITES) project — designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC). During the migration window, claim submission, passbook download, and other member services (including EPFO services on the UMANG app until 2 July 2026) remained temporarily unavailable. CITES modernises EPFO’s service delivery via automation and rule-based processing, replacing the earlier decentralised system of 120+ separate databases across field/regional offices — which had tied members to a single regional office and made claims employer-centric. Under CITES: any PF office can process any member’s service request, members can access services online with UAN + password, KYC updates are online, and all previous Member IDs under one UAN are visible with a single Aadhaar KYC. CITES has been functional since 2023 and already delivered the Centralised Pension Payment System (CPPS) — approved by the EPFO Central Board of Trustees (CBT) in November 2024 and live from 1 January 2025 — benefiting 78+ lakh EPS pensioners with “any bank, any branch, anywhere in India” pension access. The next phase is transition to the Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS).

What is CITES 2.01?

• Full Form: Centralised IT-Enabled System, version 2.01.
• Type: EPFO’s core IT architecture overhaul.
• Purpose: Replace legacy office-based platforms with a single centralised system.
• Designed by: Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) — under MeitY.
• Functional Since: 2023.
• Delivery Approach: Automation + rule-based processing.

What are CITES 2.01’s 6 Modules?

#	Module	Function
1	Member Accounts	UAN, KYC, service history, balances
2	Employer Filings	ECR, employer registration, contribution filings
3	Claims	Withdrawal, transfer, advance claims
4	Pensions	EPS pensions, CPPS disbursement
5	Finance	Interest crediting, budget, treasury
6	Compliance & Grievance Redressal	Damages, penalties, grievances (under testing as of 2026)

What are CITES’s key benefits?

Feature	Detail
Single National Database	Replaces 120+ decentralised databases
Any PF Office Processes	Members can approach any PF office in India
Online Services	KYC, claims, transfers, service history
Unified UAN Access	UAN + password to access all Member IDs
One Aadhaar KYC	Links all previous Member IDs
Automation + Rule-Based Processing	Reduces manual delays
Digital Query Resolution	EPFO can raise queries online; members respond online

What was CPPS (Centralised Pension Payment System)?

Aspect	Detail
Framework	Under CITES 2.01
Approval	EPFO Central Board of Trustees (CBT) on 30 August 2024
Beneficiaries	78+ lakh EPS pensioners
Key Feature	“Any bank, any branch, anywhere in India” access
No PPO Transfers	Pensioners no longer need to transfer Pension Payment Orders (PPOs) when moving/changing banks
Immediate Pension Credit	No verification branch visits needed
Next Phase	Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS)

What is EPFO?

• Full Form: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation.
• Under: Ministry of Labour & Employment, GoI.
• Governing Law: Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions (EPF & MP) Act, 1952.
• Established: 1952.
• HQ: New Delhi.
• Managed by: Central Board of Trustees (CBT) — chaired by Union Labour Minister.
• Union Labour Minister: Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya.
• Subscribers: 70+ million (7+ crore) active members.
• PF Interest Rate: 8.25% (approved February 2024 for FY 2023-24).

What are EPFO’s key schemes?

Scheme	Detail
Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF)	12% + 12% (employee + employer); 3.67% of employer to EPF
Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995	8.33% of employer’s share goes to EPS; min pension ₹1,000/month
Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI)	Life cover for members

Eligibility for EPS pension

• Minimum 10 years of service.
• Pension age: 58 years (standard); early pension at 50.
• Pension calculated on average salary of last 60 months × years of service.

Key allied concepts

• UAN (Universal Account Number): 12-digit unique ID for all EPF members, provides single window access.
• PPO (Pension Payment Order): 12-digit unique number issued for pension disbursement.
• DLC (Digital Life Certificate): Jeevan Pramaan — biometric-based annual life certification for pensioners.
• ECR (Electronic Challan-cum-Return): Monthly filing by employers.
• ABPS (Aadhaar-Based Payment System): Aadhaar-anchored payment method.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to EPFO’s Centralised IT-Enabled System (CITES) migration undertaken from 26 June – 1 July 2026, consider the following statements:

1. CITES is designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
2. The project consolidates 120+ decentralised regional databases into a single national database.
3. CITES has been functional since 2023, and its current version is CITES 2.01.
4. CITES is designed exclusively for the Ministry of External Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; CITES is designed for the EPFO under the Ministry of Labour & Employment, NOT the Ministry of External Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the Centralised Pension Payment System (CPPS), consider the following statements:

1. CPPS enables pensioners to receive their pensions from any bank, any branch, anywhere in India.
2. CPPS was launched nationwide on 1 January 2025 as part of the CITES 2.01 framework.
3. CPPS benefits more than 78 lakh EPS pensioners.
4. Under CPPS, pensioners need to transfer their Pension Payment Orders (PPOs) between Regional Offices when they change banks.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; under CPPS, PPOs are NO LONGER transferred between Regional Offices — this is one of the key reforms.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: CITES for EPFO under MoL&E, not MEA.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: No PPO transfers under CPPS.

2. RBI Revises Certificate of Registration (CoR) Voluntary Surrender Norms for NBFCs + HFCs

Source: Business Standard

Context

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Tuesday, 30 June 2026 revised the application form and indicative checklist for NBFCs (including HFCs) seeking voluntary surrender of their Certificate of Registration (CoR), following changes to the regulatory framework for Unregistered Type I NBFCs. The revised documents are hosted on the PRAVAAH portal — RBI’s single-window online application gateway launched 28 May 2024. The changes follow RBI’s Amendment Directions dated 29 April 2026 (the RBI (NBFC – Registration, Exemptions, and Framework for Scale Based Regulation) Amendment Directions, 2026), which introduced the “Unregistered Type I NBFCs” category — entities that do not accept public funds, have no customer interface, and have asset size below ₹1,000 crore — exempted from mandatory registration under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934. The transition window for existing NBFCs eligible for deregistration is 1 April – 30 September 2026.

What is a CoR (Certificate of Registration)?

• Statutory certification issued by RBI under Section 45-IA of RBI Act, 1934.
• Mandatory for any entity carrying on the business of a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFI).
• Confers regulatory recognition + supervision on the NBFC.

Why do NBFCs surrender CoR?

• Cease NBFC business operations.
• Convert to unregistered Core Investment Company (CIC).
• Amalgamation / merger with another entity.
• Now (post-April 2026): To become an Unregistered Type I NBFC — reducing compliance burden.

What is the new “Unregistered Type I NBFCs” category?

Introduced via the RBI (NBFC – Registration, Exemptions, and Framework for Scale Based Regulation) Amendment Directions, 2026 (dated 29 April 2026), following the parent Directions, 2025 notification of 28 November 2025.

Criteria for Unregistered Type I NBFCs
No acceptance of public funds (direct or indirect)
No customer interface
Asset size < ₹1,000 crore

• Effect: Exempt from mandatory RBI registration under Section 45-IA of RBI Act, 1934.
• Rationale: Reduce “regulatory cholesterol” for private family offices, captive treasuries, single-family investment vehicles.
• Aligns Indian regime with global proportionate regulation for non-systemic proprietary structures.

What are the transition requirements for existing NBFCs eligible for deregistration?

Requirement	Detail
Application Mode	PRAVAAH portal only
Original CoR	Must be physically surrendered to RBI
Auditor Certification (SAC)	Confirming no public funds/customer interface for past 3 years
Financials	3 years of audited balance sheets
Board Resolution	Disclosing status + confirming no intent to access public funds/customer interface + agreement to seek Type II NBFC registration if breached

What is the PRAVAAH portal?

• Full Form: Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation and Authorisation.
• Launched: 28 May 2024 by then RBI Governor Shri Shaktikanta Das.
• Purpose: Single-window online application gateway for all RBI approvals, licences, and authorisations.
• Consolidates ~60+ types of RBI applications across regulatory departments.
• Reduces e-mail + paper filings; auto-tags to concerned regional office.

What are the categories under the revised NBFC regulatory framework (2025/2026)?

Category	Public Funds	Customer Interface	Asset Size	RBI Registration
Unregistered Type I NBFC	No	No	< ₹1,000 crore	NOT required
Registered Type II NBFC	Yes/No	Yes	Various	Required
Systemically Important NBFC (NBFC-UL/ML/BL)	Yes	Yes	Threshold-based	Required + heightened supervision

Statutory basis

• RBI Act, 1934 — Section 45-IA: Mandates CoR for NBFCs.
• RBI (NBFC – Registration, Exemptions, and Framework for Scale Based Regulation) Directions, 2025 (28 November 2025).
• RBI (NBFC – Registration, Exemptions, and Framework for Scale Based Regulation) Amendment Directions, 2026 (29 April 2026).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s revised norms for voluntary surrender of Certificate of Registration (CoR) by NBFCs on 30 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. NBFCs and HFCs intending to surrender their CoR must submit the revised application form through the PRAVAAH portal.
2. The changes follow the RBI’s amendment directions issued on 29 April 2026.
3. PRAVAAH is RBI’s single-window online application gateway launched on 28 May 2024.
4. Once an NBFC files a CoR surrender application on PRAVAAH, its NBFC status is automatically cancelled.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; filing the application does NOT amount to automatic cancellation — the entity continues to be an NBFC/HFC until RBI issues a formal cancellation letter, and must continue complying with all regulations.)

Q2. With reference to the new “Unregistered Type I NBFCs” category, consider the following statements:

1. Unregistered Type I NBFCs are entities that neither accept public funds nor have any customer interface, with asset size below ₹1,000 crore.
2. They are exempted from mandatory registration under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934.
3. The transition window for existing NBFCs to surrender their CoR and become Unregistered Type I is 1 April 2026 to 30 September 2026.
4. Unregistered Type I NBFCs are permitted to accept unlimited public deposits without any restrictions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Unregistered Type I NBFCs must NOT accept public funds — this is a core eligibility criterion.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: No automatic cancellation on filing.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Unregistered Type I cannot accept public funds.

3. Bima Sugam

Source: BL

Context

Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority of India (IRDAI) Chairman Shri Ajay Seth announced on Tuesday, 30 June 2026 at the National Insurance Awareness Day event (organised by the Life Insurance Council in Mumbai) that the initial products under Bima Sugam should be available by end of September 2026, adding that the consultation paper on distribution reforms is expected by end of July 2026. The three priority products are motor, health, and term life insurance. Bima Sugam — India’s ambitious “Amazon-like” digital marketplace for insurance — is part of IRDAI’s broader Bima Trinity framework, which also includes Bima Vistaar (a rural-focused composite insurance product) and Bima Vahaak (a women-centric agent network that will sell Bima Vistaar products through the Sugam platform). The Bima Sugam website was launched in September 2025; the implementing entity — Bima Sugam India Federation — has an authorised capital of ₹500 crore + paid-up capital of ~₹310 crore, with shareholding distributed across life, general, and health insurers. On the Government’s 100% FDI in insurance (approved via the Insurance Amendment Bill 2025), IRDAI has already approved one 100%-foreign-owned general insurance licence, with another under process, and one in life insurance received. Key recent deals: KIWI General Insurance (backed by Westbridge Capital) approved; Australia’s QBE acquiring 51% of Raheja QBE from Prism Johnson (₹324 crore); Mahindra Group + Canada’s Manulife planning a 50:50 life insurance JV (₹3,600 crore each); Prudential plc acquiring 75% of Bharti Life Insurance while reducing its ICICI Prudential Life stake; Angel One preparing a digital-first life venture with LivWell. Seth also said insurance IPOs should only be pursued when there is a genuine need to raise capital, not merely for transparency.

What is Bima Sugam?

• An “Amazon-like” digital marketplace for insurance in India.
• Positioned as market infrastructure — brings insurers + intermediaries + customers onto a single interface.
• Website launched: September 2025.
• Value Proposition: Lower costs (platform doesn’t need high commission); may require a modest fee.
• Priority Products: Motor, Health, Term life insurance.

Who runs Bima Sugam?

Entity	Detail
Implementing Entity	Bima Sugam India Federation
Shareholding	Distributed across life, general, and health insurers

What is the Bima Trinity?

IRDAI’s 3-pillar framework for universalising insurance:

Pillar	Detail
Bima Sugam	Digital marketplace (technology infrastructure)
Bima Vistaar	Rural-focused composite insurance product (bundled life + health + property)
Bima Vahaak	Women-centric agent network — sells Bima Vistaar products through the Sugam platform

What are the recent developments in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in insurance?

• Insurance Amendment Bill 2025 — approved 100% FDI in insurance (up from earlier 74%).
• Allows foreign insurers to enter India without an Indian JV partner.
• IRDAI-approved deals under new 100% FDI:

What is IRDAI?

• Full Form: Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India.
• Established: 1999 under the IRDAI Act, 1999.
• HQ: Hyderabad.
• Under: Ministry of Finance.
• Mandate: Protect interests of insurance policyholders + regulate and develop the insurance industry.
• Chairman: Shri Ajay Seth.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Bima Sugam and the announcement on 30 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. IRDAI Chairman Shri Ajay Seth announced that Bima Sugam’s initial products should be available by end-September 2026.
2. The three priority products under Bima Sugam are motor, health, and term life insurance.
3. Bima Sugam is a digital marketplace bringing insurers, intermediaries, and customers onto a single interface.
4. The Bima Sugam website was launched in December 2023.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Bima Sugam website was launched in September 2025, NOT December 2023.)

Q2. With reference to the “Bima Trinity” framework of IRDAI, consider the following statements:

1. Bima Sugam is the digital marketplace pillar.
2. Bima Vistaar is a rural-focused composite insurance product.
3. Bima Vahaak is a women-centric agent network that sells Bima Vistaar products through the Sugam platform.
4. Bima Trinity includes a compulsory public sector monopoly on insurance sales.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Bima Trinity does NOT include any compulsory public sector monopoly — it is a market infrastructure and product framework open to all licensed insurers.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Bima Sugam website launched September 2025, not December 2023.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: No public sector monopoly.

Exam Relevance

IRDAI Grade A

CRITICAL — Direct subject — Bima Sugam, Bima Trinity, FDI, IRDAI structure, Ajay Seth

Agriculture

1. NABARD Inaugurates India’s FIRST PACS-Based RuTAGe Smart Village Centre (RSVC)

Source: The Hindu

Context

Two RuTAGe Smart Village Centres (RSVCs) were virtually inaugurated — one at Beerpur PACS in Jagtial district (India’s first PACS-based RSVC) and the other at Nandanam Farmers Service Cooperative Society (FSCS) in Hanumakonda district — both in Telangana, to bring science, innovation, and practical technology solutions to rural communities. The initiative is led by the Office of Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India, Dr. Ajay Kumar Sood, in partnership with NABARD (Chairman Shri Shaji K.V.), aiming to convert primary cooperative societies into local technology hubs delivering affordable, need-based solutions for agriculture, value addition, and rural entrepreneurship. The Beerpur RSVC deploys agri drones, soil testing device, smart irrigation, poha + puffed rice processing units, happy seeder, and solar sky tubes; the Nandanam RSVC features agri drones, cold-press oil extraction, smart irrigation, puffed rice machine, soil testing device, and subjee cooler. Together, the two centres serve 20 villages, 18,000+ hectares, and ~5,000 farmers/cooperative members, and will generate employment via drone operations, machinery handling, processing, and service delivery. The Beerpur RSVC operates under a NABARD grant of ₹33.52 lakh from the Gramya Vikas Nidhi (GVN), is being implemented over a 3-year period (2026-2029), with technical support from Cornell Sathguru Foundation, Hyderabad.

What is an RSVC?

• Full Form: Rural Technology Action Group Smart Village Centre.
• Also called: RuTAGe Smart Village Centre (Rural Technology Action Group extension).
• Type: Permanent Panchayat-level rural technology hub.
• Aim: Bridge the gap between rural needs and technological advancements.

What is RuTAG?

• Full Form: Rural Technology Action Group.
• Conceptualised by PSA: 2003-04.
• Launched: 2004.
• Under: Office of Principal Scientific Adviser to Government of India.
• Objective: Develop + disseminate appropriate technologies for rural India.
• RuTAG 2.0 flagship: RSVC model.

Technologies deployed at Beerpur RSVC

Technology	Purpose
Agri Drones	Precision spraying, soil scanning, aerial mapping
Soil Testing Device	Real-time nutrient analysis
Smart Irrigation System	Water conservation, targeted application
Poha Processing Unit	Value addition — flattened rice
Puffed Rice Processing Unit	Value addition — puffed rice
Happy Seeder	No-till seeding to reduce stubble burning
Solar Sky Tubes	Sustainable indoor lighting

Technologies deployed at Nandanam RSVC

Technology	Purpose
Agri Drones	Precision agriculture
Cold-Press Oil Extraction	Value-added oil processing
Smart Irrigation Device	Water efficiency
Puffed Rice Machine	Value addition
Soil Testing Device	Nutrient assessment
Subjee Cooler	Post-harvest cold storage for vegetables

What is Gramya Vikas Nidhi (GVN)?

• NABARD’s dedicated fund for rural development promotional activities.
• Established under NABARD Act, 1981.
• Supports capacity building, technology dissemination, pilot projects.
• Beerpur RSVC financed under GVN.

What is a FSCS?

• Farmers Service Cooperative Society — village-level cooperative body providing credit + input supply + technical services to farmers.
• Similar to PACS but with wider service focus.

Key Terms

• What is RSVC?
  RuTAGe Smart Village Centre — Panchayat-level rural technology hub launched by PSA + partners; serves 15-20 villages.
• What is RuTAG?
  Rural Technology Action Group — conceptualised by PSA in 2003-04; develops appropriate rural technology.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RuTAGe Smart Village Centres (RSVCs) inaugurated on 24 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The two RSVCs were established at Beerpur PACS in Jagtial district and Nandanam FSCS in Hanumakonda district, both in Telangana.
2. The Beerpur RSVC is India’s first PACS-based RuTAGe Smart Village Centre.
3. The initiative is led by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India, in partnership with NABARD.
4. The two RSVCs were inaugurated by the Union Home Minister, Shri Amit Shah.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the RSVCs were virtually inaugurated by NABARD Chairman Shri Shaji K.V., PSA Dr. Ajay Kumar Sood, and Telangana Agriculture & Cooperation Secretary Shri K. Surendra Mohan — NOT by the Union Home Minister.)

Q2. With reference to the RuTAG programme, consider the following statements:

1. The Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAG) was conceptualised by the PSA in 2003-04.
2. The first-ever RuTAGe Smart Village Centre (RSVC) was inaugurated at Mandaura village, Sonipat district, Haryana on 14 February 2025.
3. Each RSVC serves 15-20 villages and offers 12 technology tracks including agriculture, waste management, homestays, and village tourism.
4. RuTAG is administered by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; RuTAG is administered by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA), NOT the Ministry of Agriculture.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: NABARD Chairman + PSA + Telangana Secretary inaugurated, not Amit Shah.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: RuTAG under PSA Office, not Ministry of Agriculture.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

CRITICAL — Direct subject — RSVC, PACS, Gramya Vikas Nidhi, cooperative tech empowerment; Phase II essay-worthy

2. World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan under the Cooperative Sector (WLGSP-Coops)

Context

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) organised a stakeholders’ capacity-building and sensitisation workshop on the “World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan under the Cooperative Sector (WLGSP-Coops)” at Jugijan Samabai Samity Ltd in Hojai district, Assam on Sunday, 28 June 2026. The workshop brought together officials from the Cooperative Department, National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), Food Corporation of India (FCI), Assam State Warehouse Corporation, District Industries & Commerce Centre, Assam Cooperative Apex Bank, and representatives of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). NABARD’s District Development Manager (DDM) Shri Rajendar Perna highlighted the scheme objectives, and Assistant Registrar of Cooperative Societies Shri Deepak Bathari announced that Kapashbari Samabai Samity Ltd has been identified for establishing a grain storage godown, and encouraged other eligible societies to participate. WLGSP-Coops — approved by the Union Cabinet on 31 May 2023 and launched by the Ministry of Cooperation under Union Home + Cooperation Minister Shri Amit Shah — aims to create decentralised agricultural infrastructure (godowns, custom hiring centres, processing units, Fair Price Shops) at the PACS level through convergence of existing schemes: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), and PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME).

What is WLGSP-Coops?

• Full Form: World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector.
• Approved by: Union Cabinet on 31 May 2023.
• Ministry: Ministry of Cooperation, GoI.
• Union Minister: Shri Amit Shah (Home + Cooperation).
• Ministry of Cooperation Established: 6 July 2021.
• Vision: “Sahakar Se Samriddhi” (Prosperity through Cooperatives).
• Type: Central Sector Initiative / Pilot Project.
• Coverage: 24 States/UTs.

What are the WLGSP-Coops objectives?

• Reduce food grain wastage (post-harvest losses).
• Strengthen food security.
• Prevent distress sales by farmers.
• Enable farmers to realise better prices.
• Save transportation costs between procurement centres, warehouses, Fair Price Shops.
• Empower PACS as multifunctional entities.

What infrastructure is created at PACS level?

Facility	Purpose
Godowns / Warehouses	Decentralised storage
Custom Hiring Centres (CHC)	Machinery access
Processing Units	Sorting, grading, milling
Fair Price Shops (FPS)	PDS retail
Procurement Centres	Direct FCI/state agency link

What are the converging schemes?

Scheme	Ministry
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)	Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI)	Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM)	Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME)	Food Processing Industries

What are PACS?

• Full Form: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
• Grassroots tier of India’s 3-tier cooperative credit structure.
• India has 100,000+ PACS with 130 million+ farmer members.
• 3-Tier Structure: NABARD → StCBs (State Cooperative Banks) → DCCBs (District Central Cooperative Banks) → PACS.

Why does this matter?

Impact	Detail
Food Security	Decentralised storage strengthens buffer stocks + PDS
Farmer Income	Better prices via delayed sale
Post-Harvest Losses	Reduces India’s estimated ~15% food grain losses
Rural Economy	Empowers PACS as multifunctional entities
Logistics Efficiency	Cuts transportation costs; grain stored near production
Cooperative Movement	Realises Sahakar Se Samriddhi vision
Second Green Revolution	Shifts focus from output to storage-credit-processing

Key Terms

• What is WLGSP-Coops?
  World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector — Cabinet approved 31 May 2023; creates decentralised godowns + agri-infrastructure at PACS level.
• What is a PACS?
  Primary Agricultural Credit Society — village-level cooperative in India’s 3-tier cooperative credit structure; ~100,000+ PACS with 130 million+ farmer members.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the “World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector (WLGSP-Coops)”, consider the following statements:

1. WLGSP-Coops was approved by the Union Cabinet on 31 May 2023.
2. It is implemented under the Ministry of Cooperation, headed by Union Home & Cooperation Minister Shri Amit Shah.
3. The plan aims to create decentralised agri-infrastructure such as godowns, custom hiring centres, processing units, and Fair Price Shops at the PACS level.
4. WLGSP-Coops is implemented directly by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; WLGSP-Coops is implemented by the Ministry of Cooperation with support from NABARD, NDDB, NFDB, NCDC, FCI, and State Governments — NOT directly by the RBI.)

Q2. With reference to the scheme convergence under WLGSP-Coops, consider the following statements:

1. WLGSP-Coops converges existing schemes including Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), and PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME).
2. Under AIF, the loan repayment period for PACS has been extended from 2+5 years to 2+8 years.
3. The AMI subsidy for PACS has been raised from 25% to 33.33%.
4. WLGSP-Coops has no linkage with the Food Corporation of India (FCI).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PACS godowns built under WLGSP-Coops are being hired by FCI + state warehousing corporations — there IS a strong linkage with FCI.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Ministry of Cooperation implements, not RBI.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: FCI hires PACS godowns; strong linkage.

Exam Relevance

NABARD Grade A

CRITICAL — Direct subject — WLGSP-Coops, PACS, cooperative sector, rural infrastructure; Phase II essay-worthy

Facts To Remember

1. General Dhiraj Seth Takes Charge as 31st Army Chief

General Dhiraj Seth assumed charge as the 31st Chief of the Army Staff, succeeding Upendra Dwivedi. He took over after General Dwivedi retired following over four decades of service. His appointment marks a new leadership phase for the Indian Army.

2. JP Nadda Chairs 16th CCHFW, Launches Key Health Initiatives

Union Minister Jagat Prakash Nadda chaired the 16th Conference of the Central Council of Health and Family Welfare in New Delhi. He launched SSBSK, revamped Anaemia Mukt Bharat guidelines, and SUMAN Roadmap 2030. These initiatives aim to improve maternal and child healthcare outcomes.

3. MoSPI Releases SDG Publications on India’s Progress

Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released SDG publications during Statistics Day 2026. The reports assess India’s progress under the National Indicator Framework. The framework now includes 277 indicators covering all 17 Sustainable Development Goals.

4. PM Family Care Tracker Pilot Launched in Gujarat

Union Minister Amit Shah launched the PM Family Care Tracker pilot project in Gandhinagar. The digital platform will monitor children’s health, nutrition, education, and welfare benefits. It aims to ensure timely delivery of government schemes.

5. Cabinet Approves Rs 30,000 Crore Additional Investment in NIIF

The Union Cabinet approved an additional ₹30,000 crore investment in National Investment and Infrastructure Fund. This doubles the government’s total commitment to ₹60,000 crore. The fund will support infrastructure and emerging sectors like e-mobility.

6. OPSA Launches TRL Compass Platform

The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser launched the TRL Compass platform with DSCI. It standardizes technology readiness assessment using a 9-level scale. The platform will support innovation funding and research evaluation.

7. MCA Launches Corporate Mitra Scheme for MSMEs

Ministry of Corporate Affairs signed an MoU with Indian Institute of Technology Madras and partner institutions to launch Corporate Mitra Scheme. The programme will train youth to assist MSMEs in compliance and governance. It includes online learning and practical training.

8. Piyush Goyal Visits UK Ahead of India-UK CETA Rollout

Union Minister Piyush Goyal visited the United Kingdom from June 25–27, 2026. The visit focused on implementation of the India-UK CETA and Double Contribution Convention. He also launched a business utilisation manual for trade.

9. Indian Navy Participates in RIMPAC 2026

The Indian Navy participated in the 30th edition of RIMPAC 2026 in Hawaii, USA. The exercise includes warships, submarines, aircraft, and 30,000 personnel. It strengthens interoperability and Indo-Pacific maritime cooperation.

10. PayGlocal Launches Google Pay Card Payments

PayGlocal introduced Google Pay card payments on its international payment gateway. This enables Indian merchants to access customers in over 90 countries. The integration enhances global e-commerce transactions.

11. Kakinada Cooperative Town Bank Achieves Tier-III Status

Kakinada Cooperative Town Bank attained Tier-III status after deposits crossed ₹2,000 crore. The bank now ranks among Andhra Pradesh’s largest urban cooperative banks. It also reported zero net NPAs.

12. Kidambi Srikanth Finishes Runner-Up at US Open 2026

Kidambi Srikanth finished runner-up in the men’s singles at the 2026 US Open Badminton. Su Li-yang won the title. The tournament was held in California, USA.

13. George Russell Wins Austrian Grand Prix 2026

George Russell won the 2026 Austrian Grand Prix for Mercedes-AMG Petronas F1 Team. He finished ahead of Max Verstappen. This marked his second win of the 2026 season.

14. India Women Qualify Directly for LA 2028 Olympics

India’s women’s cricket team secured direct qualification for the 2028 Summer Olympics. The team earned Asia’s automatic berth in the qualification pathway. Cricket will return to the Olympics after 128 years.

15. National Statistics Day Observed on June 29

National Statistics Day is observed annually on June 29. It commemorates statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis. The 2026 theme was “Unlocking the Potential of Administrative Data.”

16. International Day of the Tropics Observed on June 29

International Day of the Tropics raises awareness about tropical regions. It highlights environmental, economic, and social opportunities and challenges. The observance commemorates the launch of the State of the Tropics Report.

17. International Asteroid Day Observed on June 30

International Asteroid Day is observed annually on June 30. It promotes awareness about asteroid impact hazards and planetary defense. The day marks the anniversary of the 1908 Tunguska event.

Context

On 30 June 2026, NITI Aayog Member Dr. R. Balasubramaniam released the National Study Report on Low Participation in Gram Sabha Across States and UTs — a two-volume assessment prepared by NIRD&PR, Hyderabad for the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, covering ~7,790 respondents across 400 Gram Panchayats in 26 States/UTs. The Hindu editorial “Yes and No” (2 July 2026) engages critically, arguing that while the state frames the issue as “vibrancy”, the report’s push for more meetings + NIRNAY app minutes-uploading may deepen alienation of rural workers — and that 73rd Amendment-empowered Gram Sabhas have been reduced to scheme clearinghouses, ignoring their PESA-backed right to say “no” (Hasdeo Arand cited).

Key findings

• 18-28% of respondents cite lack of outcomes as reason for low interest.
• Only 4% of meeting time on revenue generation; 13% on identifying local issues.
• Low participation is multi-dimensional (socio-economic + institutional + governance + behavioural).
• Report claims PESA areas have “reasonably strong physical infrastructure”.
• >50% of barriers to participation are livelihood-related.

Report’s recommendations

• Greater use of NIRNAY app for real-time meeting minutes.
• More Gram Sabha meetings + oversight.
• Line departments to present service updates at Gram Sabhas.
• Targeted interventions for women, youth, marginalised groups.

What is a Gram Sabha?

• Village assembly of all registered voters in a Gram Panchayat area.
• Constitutional basis: Article 243A (73rd Amendment).
• Nature: Direct democracy at village level.
• Powers: Approve budget + plans, audit accounts, select beneficiaries, oversee implementation.
• Quorum: Usually 10% of voter list (varies by state).

What is the 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992)?

Aspect	Detail
Effective	24 April 1993 (National Panchayati Raj Day)
Added	Part IX + 11th Schedule (29 subjects)
Articles	243 to 243-O
Structure	3-tier PRI (Village/Intermediate/District)
Reservation	1/3 for SC/ST/Women
Term	5 years
Financial Commission	Article 243-I
Election Commission	Article 243-K

What is PESA Act 1996?

• Full Form: Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
• Enacted: 24 December 1996.
• Extends: 73rd Amendment to Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas.
• Applies to 10 States: AP, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HP, Jharkhand, MP, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Telangana.
• Gram Sabha Powers under PESA:
  • Prior informed consent for land acquisition + mining.
  • Manage minor water bodies + minor forest produce.
  • Regulate moneylending + intoxicants.
  • Preserve tribal customs + traditions.

What is the NIRNAY app?

• Panchayat NIRNAY — GoI digital platform for Gram Sabha agenda, resolutions, real-time minutes.
• Under Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
• Part of e-Panchayat Mission Mode Project + e-Gram Swaraj.
• Reach: 2.5+ lakh Gram Panchayats onboarded.
• Companion: Vibrant Gram Sabha Portal (tracks outcomes).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the National Study Report on Low Participation in Gram Sabha released on 30 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. The report was released by Dr. R. Balasubramaniam, Member, NITI Aayog.
2. It was prepared by the National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRD&PR), Hyderabad.
3. The two-volume study covered approximately 7,790 respondents across 400 Gram Panchayats in 26 States and UTs.
4. The report was released by the Reserve Bank of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; released by NITI Aayog Member with Ministry of Panchayati Raj — NOT the RBI.)

Q2. With reference to the Gram Sabha and the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, consider the following statements:

1. Article 243A of the Constitution provides the basis for the Gram Sabha.
2. The 73rd Amendment came into effect on 24 April 1993, celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Day.
3. It added Part IX and the 11th Schedule (29 subjects) to the Constitution.
4. The 73rd Amendment abolished the Gram Sabha system.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the 73rd Amendment CONSTITUTIONALISED Gram Sabhas — it did NOT abolish them.)

Q3. With reference to the PESA Act 1996, consider the following statements:

1. It extends 73rd Amendment provisions to Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule.
2. It applies to 10 States including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HP, Jharkhand, MP, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana.
3. Under PESA, Gram Sabhas have the right to prior informed consent for land acquisition and mining.
4. PESA extends 73rd Amendment provisions to Sixth Schedule tribal areas of the North-East.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PESA applies to Fifth Schedule areas — NOT Sixth Schedule areas of the North-East (which have autonomous district councils).)

Q4. With reference to The Hindu editorial “Yes and No” (2 July 2026), consider the following statements:

1. It notes that only 4% of Gram Sabha meeting time is spent on revenue generation, compared to 13% on identifying local issues.
2. It highlights that 18-28% of respondents cite lack of outcomes as the reason for low interest.
3. It argues that tied 14th and 15th Finance Commission grants linked to Central priorities like Jal Jeevan Mission and Swachh Bharat reduce local discretion.
4. The editorial argues that Gram Sabhas should have no role in decision-making on state schemes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the editorial argues that Gram Sabhas MUST have genuine decision-making power including the right to say “no” — NOT no role at all.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Released by MoPR/NIRD&PR, not RBI.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: 73rd Amendment constitutionalised Gram Sabhas.
3. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: PESA for Fifth Schedule, not Sixth.
4. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Editorial argues for MORE role, not none.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
UPSC Prelims & Mains	Very High — GS-II (Polity, Governance, PRI), Essay
State PCS	Very High — Direct subject — Gram Sabha, PRI, PESA
RBI Grade B (Phase I + II)	Medium-High — ESI on governance, rural sector, fiscal federalism
NABARD Grade A	High — Rural governance, decentralisation, PESA, tribal welfare

2. Delegation of Financial Powers to DRDO (DFP-2026)

Source:

Context

Defence Minister Shri Rajnath Singh on 29 June 2026 released the Delegation of Financial Powers to DRDO (DFP-2026) in New Delhi — a revised financial-governance framework to grant DRDO enhanced financial autonomy for accelerated defence R&D. Alongside, he also released the Delegation of Financial Powers to Defence Services (DFPDS-2026) to expedite defence procurement. Key features of DFP-2026: dedicated funding for trial campaigns, testing, and evaluation; authority to sanction pre-project R&D; and separate schedules for Extra-Mural Research Projects (EMRPs), Defence Innovation Accelerator-Centres of Excellence (DIA-CoEs), and Technology Development Fund (TDF) grants. The reform aligns with Aatmanirbhar Bharat and aims to reduce procedural delays in translating DRDO innovation to Armed Forces induction.

Objectives

• Speed up research, development, testing, and induction of indigenous defence technologies.
• Enhance financial efficiency + accountability + self-reliance.
• Encourage industry-academia-startup-MSME collaboration.
• Support Aatmanirbhar Bharat vision.

Key features of DFP-2026

Feature	Detail
Enhanced Financial Autonomy	Higher-level delegation for quicker project approval + execution
Dedicated Funding for Trials	First-time provision for trial campaigns + testing + evaluation
Pre-Project R&D Funding	Authorises grants for early-stage research before formal project approval
Separate Schedules	For EMRPs, DIA-CoEs, TDF — clearer + streamlined grant management
Empowered Project Directors	Reduces administrative bottlenecks; faster decision-making
Retained Safeguards	Subject to fund availability + rule/regulation compliance

What is DRDO?

Aspect	Detail
Full Form	Defence Research and Development Organisation
Established	1958 (merged 3 institutions)
HQ	DRDO Bhawan, New Delhi
Under	Department of Defence Research and Development (DDR&D), Ministry of Defence
Chairman DRDO + Secretary DDR&D	Dr. Samir V. Kamat
Labs	50+ laboratories across India
Vision	Empowering India with cutting-edge defence tech

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Delegation of Financial Powers to DRDO (DFP-2026) released on 29 June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. DFP-2026 was released by Defence Minister Shri Rajnath Singh in New Delhi.
2. The framework aims to enhance efficiency, accountability, and timely execution of strategic defence R&D projects.
3. It segregates financial powers for Extra-Mural Research Projects (EMRPs), DIA-CoEs, and TDF under separate schedules.
4. The framework eliminates all internal approval hierarchies and grants unrestricted financial autonomy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the framework retains internal approval hierarchies + safeguards (subject to availability of funds + compliance) — it does NOT grant unrestricted financial autonomy.)

Q2. With reference to the key features of DFP-2026, consider the following statements:

1. It introduces, for the first time, dedicated financial provisions for trial campaigns, testing and evaluation.
2. It authorises the sanction of pre-project R&D initiatives before formal project approval.
3. It empowers project directors and reduces administrative bottlenecks.
4. It applies only to defence procurement and not to research and development activities.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; DFP-2026 is specifically for DRDO’s R&D activities — procurement is covered by the SEPARATE DFPDS-2026 released alongside.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Retains approval hierarchies; not unrestricted autonomy.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: DFP-2026 for R&D; DFPDS-2026 for procurement.

3. Akashvani Marks 90 Years — Launches “Swar Prerna Veethika” Ahead of 2027 Radio Centenary

Context

Akashvani (All India Radio) on 1 July 2026 inaugurated “Swar Prerna Veethika” — a permanent photo gallery honouring India’s legendary musicians associated with the broadcaster — as part of its 90-year celebrations and in the run-up to the centenary of radio broadcasting in India in 2027. The gallery was inaugurated by Padma Vibhushan Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia at the Akashvani Rang Bhavan Auditorium, Akashvani Bhavan, New Delhi, in the presence of Prasar Bharati CEO Shri Gaurav Dwivedi. Akashvani, officially launched as All India Radio on 8 June 1936, adopted the name “Akashvani” in 1956 (from Rabindranath Tagore’s 1938 Bengali poem for Kolkata’s shortwave inauguration). Today it runs 460+ stations covering 92% of India’s area, broadcasts in 23 official languages + 146 dialects, and reaches 100+ countries through External Services.

Swar Prerna Veethika

Aspect	Detail
Inauguration Date	1 July 2026
Venue	Akashvani Rang Bhavan Auditorium, Akashvani Bhavan, New Delhi
Inaugurator	Padma Vibhushan Pt. Hariprasad Chaurasia (flute maestro)
Type	Permanent photo gallery
Purpose	Honour legendary musicians associated with Akashvani + civilian-honour recipients
Next Phase	Portraits to be added; similar galleries at Akashvani centres nationwide
Prasar Bharati CEO	Shri Gaurav Dwivedi

What is Akashvani?

• Official name: All India Radio (AIR).
• India’s premier national public radio broadcaster.
• Parent: Prasar Bharati — autonomous statutory corporation.
• Doordarshan is Prasar Bharati’s TV wing.
• Among world’s largest multi-lingual, multi-cultural broadcasting networks.

What is Prasar Bharati?

• Autonomous statutory public service broadcaster of India.
• Established: 23 November 1997 under Prasar Bharati Act, 1990.
• Two Wings: Akashvani (AIR) + Doordarshan (DD).
• HQ: New Delhi.
• CEO: Shri Gaurav Dwivedi.
• Recommendations: Chanda Committee (1966) + P.C. Joshi Committee (1985) + Verghese Committee (1978).

Key Terms

• What is Akashvani? Official on-air name for All India Radio (AIR) — India’s national public radio broadcaster; adopted 1956.
• What is Swar Prerna Veethika? Permanent photo gallery at Akashvani Bhavan honouring legendary musicians; inaugurated 1 July 2026.
• What is Prasar Bharati? Autonomous public service broadcaster established 23 November 1997 under Prasar Bharati Act 1990; runs Akashvani + Doordarshan.
• What is Vividh Bharati? AIR’s commercial entertainment service launched 1957; runs FM Gold + FM Rainbow.
• What is the External Services Division? AIR’s foreign broadcasting arm — reaches 100+ countries in 27 languages; a soft-power diplomacy tool.
• What is WAVES OTT? Prasar Bharati’s OTT platform for public broadcasting content.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to “Swar Prerna Veethika” inaugurated by Akashvani, consider the following statements:

1. It was inaugurated on 1 July 2026 as part of Akashvani’s 90-year celebrations.
2. It was inaugurated by Padma Vibhushan Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia at Akashvani Bhavan, New Delhi.
3. It is a permanent photo gallery celebrating India’s legendary musicians associated with Akashvani.
4. Swar Prerna Veethika was inaugurated to mark the 50-year anniversary of Akashvani.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the inauguration marks 90 years of Akashvani + the run-up to the 2027 centenary of radio broadcasting — NOT the 50-year anniversary.)

Q2. With reference to the history of Akashvani (All India Radio), consider the following statements:

1. Radio broadcasting in India began in June 1923 with the Radio Club of Bombay.
2. The Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS) was established on 1 April 1930 by the British colonial government.
3. All India Radio (AIR) was officially named on 8 June 1936.
4. The name “Akashvani” was formally adopted as the on-air name in 1976.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the name “Akashvani” was adopted in 1956 — NOT 1976.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: 90-year celebration + 2027 centenary, not 50-year.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Name “Akashvani” adopted 1956, not 1976.

4. Himalayan Ray-Finned Fish (Schizothorax pelzami)

Source: The Hindu

Context

Members of the Sangno clan (Nyishi tribe) of East Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh launched a community-led translocation drive to conserve the endangered Himalayan Ray-Finned Fish (Schizothorax pelzami) — locally called “Ngarsing” in the Nyishi language. The clan translocated 52 fingerlings from the Lapabung stream (Talo village) to a stretch of the Richaso stream (Weshi village) that is inaccessible to the predatory Mahseer (“tiger of the water”). A 5-year blanket fishing ban in the Richaso stream is proposed. The species — commonly known as the Transcaspian marinka — belongs to the Cyprinidae family (carp + minnow) and is classified as Endangered by IUCN. Long-term community goals include eco-angling + stream-trail trekking tourism.

Species at a glance

Aspect	Detail
Scientific Name	Schizothorax pelzami
Common Name	Transcaspian marinka
Local Nyishi Name	Ngarsing
Family	Cyprinidae (carp + minnow)
Infraclass	Teleostei (modern bony fishes)
IUCN Status	Endangered
Native Distribution	Sub-Himalayan + Transcaspian zones (Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Iran) + Himalayan streams

What is the Mahseer?

• Called “tiger of the water” in Himalayan + sub-Himalayan rivers.
• Aggressive, fast-swimming predator.
• Prized sport fish across northern India.
• Preys heavily on smaller native fish.
• Genera: Tor (Golden Mahseer) — Tor putitora is the Himalayan Golden Mahseer.

Nyishi tribe context

• Largest ethnic group in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Spread across Papum Pare, East Kameng, West Kameng, Kra Daadi, Kurung Kumey, and Lower Subansiri districts.
• Nyishi language belongs to Sino-Tibetan family.
• Traditional community fishing is central to livelihoods.

Related conservation frameworks

Framework	Detail
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972	Central law governing wildlife protection
Biological Diversity Act, 2002	Governs access + benefit-sharing for biological resources
CITES	Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
IUCN Red List	Global inventory of species’ conservation status
NBSAP (National Biodiversity Strategy & Action Plan)	India’s biodiversity roadmap
PBRs (People’s Biodiversity Registers)	Community-level biodiversity documentation

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Himalayan Ray-Finned Fish (Schizothorax pelzami), consider the following statements:

1. It is commonly known as the Transcaspian marinka.
2. It is locally called “Ngarsing” in the Nyishi language of Arunachal Pradesh.
3. It belongs to the Cyprinidae family (carp and minnow).
4. It is classified as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Schizothorax pelzami is classified as ENDANGERED on the IUCN Red List — NOT Least Concern.)

Q2. With reference to the community-led conservation initiative by the Sangno clan, consider the following statements:

1. The Sangno clan belongs to the Nyishi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. The initiative is in East Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh.
3. 52 fingerlings were translocated from the Lapabung stream (Talo village) to the Richaso stream (Weshi village).
4. The initiative was launched by the Government of Kerala.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the initiative is a COMMUNITY-LED effort by the Sangno clan of Arunachal Pradesh — NOT launched by the Government of Kerala.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: IUCN Endangered, not Least Concern.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Community-led in AP, not Kerala government.

Exam Relevance

UPSC Prelims & Mains	Very High — GS-III (Environment, Biodiversity, Species in News, Community Conservation), Essay
State PCS (esp. AP + NE states)	Critical — Direct subject — Sangno clan, Nyishi, AP fauna
Forest Service (IFS/IFoS)	Critical — Direct subject — Schizothorax, IUCN, Mahseer, Cyprinidae

5. Vikram-1: India’s First Private Orbital Rocket to Launch

Source: The Hindu

Context

Hyderabad-based Skyroot Aerospace announced on 2 July 2026 a launch window of 12 July – 4 August 2026 for Vikram-1 — India’s first privately developed orbital-class rocket — from Satish Dhawan Space Centre-SHAR, Sriharikota. The mission, named Aagaman (“the Arrival”), is Skyroot’s second flight after the successful suborbital Vikram-S (Mission Prarambh, 18 November 2022) — India’s first private rocket to reach space. Vikram-1 will target a 450 km Low Earth Orbit at 60° inclination, carrying small satellites up to 350 kg.

Mission Aagaman at a glance

Aspect	Detail
Rocket	Vikram-1 — Test Flight-1
Mission Name	Aagaman (Sanskrit for “Arrival”)
Announced by	Skyroot Aerospace (2 July 2026)
Launch Window	12 July – 4 August 2026
Launch Site	Satish Dhawan Space Centre-SHAR, Sriharikota (First Launch Pad)
Target Orbit	450 km altitude, 60° inclination, Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
Type	Partially commercial (domestic + international customer payloads)

Vikram-1 rocket specifications

Feature	Detail
Height	~Seven storeys
Configuration	Multi-stage orbital launch vehicle
Structure	All-carbon composite
Propulsion	In-house developed — 3D-printed engines + high-thrust solid-fuel boosters
Manufacturing	Rapid-fabrication + high launch cadence design

Mission objectives

• Capture real-time in-flight performance data across:
  • Propulsion.
  • Stage separation.
  • Guidance, Navigation, Control (GNC).
  • Overall vehicle performance.
• Validate designs for future variants.
• Build foundation for a reliable, high-cadence commercial launch programme.

Vikram-S (Mission Prarambh) — first Skyroot flight

Aspect	Detail
Launch Date	18 November 2022
Mission Name	Prarambh (“Beginning”)
Type	Suborbital
Peak Speed	Mach 5+
Significance	India’s first privately built rocket to reach space

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Mission Aagaman and Vikram-1, consider the following statements:

1. Vikram-1 is India’s first privately developed orbital-class rocket.
2. It is developed by Hyderabad-based Skyroot Aerospace.
3. The launch window for Mission Aagaman is 12 July to 4 August 2026 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
4. Mission Aagaman is Skyroot’s first-ever rocket launch.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Skyroot’s first rocket launch was Vikram-S (Mission Prarambh) on 18 November 2022 — Aagaman is its SECOND mission.)

Q2. With reference to Vikram-1’s specifications, consider the following statements:

1. Vikram-1 is a seven-storey-tall, multi-stage orbital launch vehicle.
2. It is built with an all-carbon composite structure.
3. It can carry small satellites weighing up to 350 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
4. Vikram-1’s maiden mission targets a geostationary orbit at 36,000 km altitude.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Vikram-1’s maiden mission targets a Low Earth Orbit at 450 km altitude with 60° inclination — NOT geostationary orbit at 36,000 km.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Vikram-S was Skyroot’s first launch; Aagaman is the 2nd.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: LEO at 450 km, not geostationary.

Banking/Finance

1. Mission SAKSHAM — RBI’s Capacity-Building Push for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)

Source: News on Air

Context

Mission SAKSHAM (Sahakari Bank Kshamta Nirman) — a sector-wide, mission-mode, all-India capacity-building initiative for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) — was launched by RBI Governor Shri Sanjay Malhotra on 28 April 2026 (announced in the MPC of 6 February 2026). Over 24 months, it will train ~1.40 lakh (140,000) participants across UCBs through in-person + e-learning modules in over a dozen Indian languages + English. Target groups: board members, senior executives, and officers in assurance functions (risk, compliance, audit), IT, and cybersecurity. SAKSHAM = “capable/competent”. Shri Swaminathan Janakiraman, Deputy Governor, RBI, writing in Business Standard on 3 July 2026, positioned it alongside the RBI’s 4-tier UCB regulatory framework, the NUCFDC (Umbrella Organisation, live since March 2024), and the January 2026 Discussion Paper on Licensing of New UCBs — collectively aimed at preserving UCBs’ cooperative promise while building governance, prudential + tech capabilities.

Mission SAKSHAM at a glance

Aspect	Detail
Full Form	Sahakari Bank Kshamta Nirman
Meaning	SAKSHAM = “Capable / Competent”
Launched by	RBI Governor Shri Sanjay Malhotra
Launch Date	28 April 2026 (first announced in MPC 6 Feb 2026)
Duration	24 months
Delivery Modes	In-person + e-learning
Languages	English + more than a dozen Indian regional languages
Framework Type	Capacity-building + certification
Designed in Consultation with	NUCFDC (Umbrella Organisation) + national + state cooperative federations

Objectives

• Enhance managerial + operational capabilities.
• Improve compliance culture.
• Strengthen institutional resilience.
• Build continuous learning ecosystem for systemic stability + healthy growth of UCB sector.

What are Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)?

• Primary Cooperative Banks as defined under Section 5(ccv) read with Section 56 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
• Located in urban + semi-urban areas.
• Registered under State Cooperative Societies Act OR Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
• Dual control: RBI (banking) + Registrar of Cooperative Societies (RCS/CRCS) (registration + management).

4-Tier Regulatory Framework (based on N.S. Vishwanathan Committee 2021)

Tier	Deposit Size
Tier 1	≤ ₹100 crore (incl. all unit + salary earners’ UCBs)
Tier 2	₹100 crore – ₹1,000 crore
Tier 3	₹1,000 crore – ₹10,000 crore
Tier 4	> ₹10,000 crore

Capital requirements

Aspect	Tier 1	Tier 2-4
Minimum Net Worth	₹2 cr (single district) / ₹5 cr (others)	₹5 crore
CRAR	9%	12%

What is NUCFDC?

Aspect	Detail
Full Form	National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited
Status	Umbrella Organisation (UO) for UCBs
Set Up	March 2024 (functional since February 2024)
Inaugurated by	Union Cooperation Minister Shri Amit Shah
RBI Approval	NBFC + Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) for UCB sector
CEO	Shri Prabhat Chaturvedi
Role	Shared services, capital support, liquidity, technology, capacity building, standards
Products	Sahakar Digipay (PoS/NPCI-compliant), Cyber insurance (with New India Assurance + Aon)

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Mission SAKSHAM launched by the RBI, consider the following statements:

1. Mission SAKSHAM stands for “Sahakari Bank Kshamta Nirman”.
2. It is a sector-wide capacity-building and certification framework for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs).
3. It aims to train approximately 1.40 lakh participants over 24 months through in-person and e-learning modules in Indian regional languages and English.
4. Mission SAKSHAM was launched by the Union Finance Minister.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Mission SAKSHAM was launched by RBI Governor Shri Sanjay Malhotra on 28 April 2026 — NOT the Union Finance Minister.)

Q2. With reference to the target participants and objectives of Mission SAKSHAM, consider the following statements:

1. It targets board members, senior executives, and officers handling risk, compliance, audit, IT, and cybersecurity functions.
2. It seeks to enhance managerial + operational capabilities, improve compliance culture, and strengthen institutional resilience.
3. It has been designed in consultation with the NUCFDC and national and state cooperative federations.
4. Mission SAKSHAM excludes IT and cybersecurity personnel from its training scope.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; IT and cybersecurity personnel are EXPLICITLY INCLUDED as target groups.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Launched by RBI Governor, not FM.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: IT + cybersecurity explicitly included.

2. The RBI’s Financial Stability Report (FSR), June 2026

Source: Mint/ RBI Financial Stability Report June 2026 / Business Standard / Outlook Business

Context

The Reserve Bank of India released the June 2026 Financial Stability Report (FSR) on 30 June 2026 — reflecting the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) on risks to India’s financial stability. Governor Shri Sanjay Malhotra’s foreword emphasizes that the domestic financial system is “resilient underpinned by strong bank and non-bank balance sheets” despite elevated global risks. Key highlights: GNPA at multi-decadal low of 1.8% (March 2026); strong stress-test resilience; but concerns flagged on global public debt, bond market fragilities, stretched asset valuations, leveraged NBFIs, stablecoin monetary-sovereignty risk, AI-driven volatility, and structural issues in the insurance sector (3 PSU general insurers below solvency; rising surrenders + claims + distribution costs).

What is the FSR?

Aspect	Detail
Full Name	Financial Stability Report
Publisher	Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Frequency	Biannual — June + December
First Edition	March 2010 (post-Lehman crisis)
Reflects	Collective assessment of Sub-Committee of FSDC
Sub-Committee Chair	RBI Governor
Contributors	RBI + SEBI + IRDAI + PFRDA + IBBI + Ministry of Finance
June 2026 Edition Released	30 June 2026
Foreword by	Governor Shri Sanjay Malhotra

What is the FSDC?

• Full Form: Financial Stability and Development Council.
• Established: December 2010 — India’s apex macroprudential body.
• Type: Non-statutory body under Ministry of Finance.
• Chaired by: Union Finance Minister.
• Members: RBI Governor, SEBI Chairman, IRDAI Chairman, PFRDA Chairman, IBBI Chairman, Finance Secretary, CEA, Secretaries of DFS/DEA/Revenue/MCA.
• Sub-Committee of FSDC: Chaired by RBI Governor; provides operational-level inputs to the FSR.
• India was one of the earliest EMs to establish a macroprudential oversight body post-Lehman.

Global assessment (June 2026 FSR)

Risk	Detail
Global Risk Level	Elevated despite West Asia interim peace deal
Rising Geopolitical Conflicts + Fragmentation	Increased risk of adverse external shocks
AI Optimism	May mask underlying vulnerabilities + create job + regulatory uncertainties
Persistent Supply Chain Uncertainties	Could tighten financial conditions, revive inflation
Public Debt	Elevated globally
Bond Market	Fragile — stretched asset valuations
Leveraged NBFIs	Key global vulnerability
Tighter Monetary Policy in AEs	May keep global financial conditions restrictive

Indian domestic assessment

Sector	Status
Banking	Resilient — GNPA at multi-decadal low 1.8% (March 2026)
NBFCs	Healthy — strong capital, asset quality, profitability
Life Insurance	Solvency above threshold; structural concerns on surrenders + mis-selling
General Insurance (PSU)	3 of 4 below solvency 1.5 — “direct financial stability concern”
General Insurance (Private)	Rising claims (health + motor) pressure
Corporate Sector	Improving asset quality; large borrower GNPA 2.4% → 1.2%
Financial Markets	Functioning in an orderly manner

Banking sector — key metrics (March 2026)

Metric	Value
GNPA Ratio (SCBs)	1.8% (multi-decadal low)
Annual Slippage Ratio (FY25-26)	1.2% — declined steadily over 4 years
Agriculture GNPA	5.1% (highest among sectors); 37.2% of total SCB GNPAs
Share of Large Borrowers in Credit	44.5%
Large Borrower GNPA	1.2% (March 2026) — from 2.4% (Sept 2024)

Stress test scenarios (macro)

Scenario	GNPA Projection (March 2028)
Baseline	1.9%
Adverse (Medium Stress)	~3.8%
Severe Stress	~4.1%

Even under severe stress, capital ratios projected to remain comfortably above regulatory thresholds.

Insurance sector — structural risks flagged

Concern	Detail
Life Insurance Surrenders	Rising — weaker persistency; ALM uncertainty
General Insurance Claims	Rising in health + motor
Distribution Costs	Private life insurers’ commission ratio doubled since FY22
PSU General Insurers Solvency	National + Oriental + United India Insurance — below 1.5 — “direct financial stability concern”
New India Assurance	Only PSU non-life at 1.84 solvency
Mis-selling Risk	Elevated due to commission-driven sales
Underwriting Margins	Negative across much of the sector
ICRA Capital Estimate	₹38,900-39,800 crore needed by March 2027 to restore PSU solvency

Fintech sector

• Fintech lending grew 36.1%.
• Concern: elevated impairment among borrowers with unsecured loans from 5+ lenders.

Emerging risks flagged

Risk	Detail
Stablecoins	Widespread adoption of foreign-currency-denominated stablecoins could undermine monetary sovereignty, weaken policy transmission, facilitate money laundering
AI Concentration	Market optimism on AI may mask underlying vulnerabilities
Fintech Multi-lending	Unsecured loans from 5+ lenders elevate impairment risk
Cyber Risk	Rising due to digital adoption
Climate Risk	Growing systemic concern
Regulatory Supervision Gaps	AI raises regulatory + supervisory uncertainty

Beyond prudential regulation

Financial stability is NOT limited to prudential regulation. It also depends on:

• Fair business conduct.
• Better customer experience.
• Efficient financial services.
• Greater financial inclusion.
• A dynamic, resilient financial ecosystem supporting households, businesses, and long-term growth.

Interpretive significance

• FSR is RBI’s forward-looking systemic risk assessment — not just entity-level.
• “FSR is where RBI says what it is worried about before it acts.”
• Sectors flagged in FSR often see regulatory tightening within 12 months.
• Early-warning system for systemic issues.

Historical evolution

Year	Milestone
2008	Lehman Brothers collapse
December 2010	FSDC established
March 2010	First FSR published
2010 onwards	Biannual publication (June + December)

Related concepts (RBI + FSDC ecosystem)

Framework	Detail
FSDC (2010)	Apex macroprudential body chaired by Union FM
Sub-Committee of FSDC	Chaired by RBI Governor; contributes to FSR
Systemic Risk Survey (SRS)	Semi-annual RBI survey of financial market participants
Macro Stress Tests	Simulate baseline + adverse + severe scenarios
Financial Stability Board (FSB)	Global counterpart body (established 2009) at Basel

Governance snapshot

Position	Incumbent
RBI Governor	Shri Sanjay Malhotra
Deputy Governors	4 (Financial Stability: Shri M. Rajeshwar Rao)
Union Finance Minister (FSDC Chair)	Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
SEBI Chair	Shri Tuhin Kanta Pandey
IRDAI Chair	Shri Ajay Seth
PFRDA Chair	Shri S. Ramann

Key Terms

• What is the FSR? RBI’s biannual (June + December) publication — assesses risks + resilience of India’s financial system.
• What is FSDC? Financial Stability and Development Council — India’s apex macroprudential body established 2010; chaired by Union FM.
• What is the Sub-Committee of FSDC? Sub-body chaired by RBI Governor; provides operational inputs to FSR.
• What is GNPA? Gross Non-Performing Asset — loan account overdue 90+ days; expressed as % of total loans.
• What is CRAR? Capital-to-Risk Weighted Assets Ratio — measure of bank capital adequacy; minimum 9% under Basel III.
• What is a stress test? Simulation of adverse economic scenarios to check bank resilience.
• What is a macroprudential body? Institution overseeing system-wide stability, not just individual institutions.
• What is a NBFI? Non-Bank Financial Institution — includes NBFCs, insurance, pension funds, mutual funds.
• What is Systemic Risk Survey (SRS)? Semi-annual RBI survey of market participants on perceived risks.
• What are stablecoins? Cryptocurrencies pegged to fiat currencies; RBI has flagged them as a monetary sovereignty risk.
• What is the FSB? Financial Stability Board — global regulator coordination body established 2009; based in Basel.
• What is slippage ratio? Ratio of fresh NPAs to total advances during a period — measure of new credit stress.
• What is persistency? Ratio of policies remaining in force to those issued; life insurance metric.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s Financial Stability Report (FSR), consider the following statements:

1. It is a biannual publication released in June and December.
2. It reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
3. The Sub-Committee of the FSDC is chaired by the RBI Governor.
4. The first FSR was published in January 2020 in response to the COVID-19 pandemic.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the first FSR was published in March 2010 following the Lehman Brothers crisis of 2008 — NOT in January 2020.)

Q2. With reference to the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), consider the following statements:

1. FSDC was established in December 2010 as India’s apex macroprudential body.
2. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
3. Its members include the RBI Governor, SEBI Chairman, IRDAI Chairman, PFRDA Chairman, and IBBI Chairman.
4. FSDC is a statutory body created under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; FSDC is a NON-STATUTORY administrative body under the Ministry of Finance — NOT created under the RBI Act, 1934.)

Q3. With reference to the FSR June 2026 findings on the banking sector, consider the following statements:

1. The Gross Non-Performing Asset (GNPA) ratio of Scheduled Commercial Banks declined to a multi-decadal low of 1.8% in March 2026.
2. Under stress test baseline scenario, GNPA may rise marginally from 1.8% (March 2026) to 1.9% (March 2028).
3. Under adverse stress scenarios, GNPA could increase to 3.8-4.1%.
4. The agriculture sector has the LOWEST GNPA ratio at 5.1%.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; agriculture has the HIGHEST GNPA at 5.1% — accounting for 37.2% of total SCB GNPAs — NOT the lowest.)

Q4. With reference to the FSR June 2026 findings on the insurance sector, consider the following statements:

1. Life insurers’ solvency ratio remains above the minimum threshold.
2. Three of India’s four state-owned general insurers (National, Oriental, United India) have remained below the regulatory solvency ratio of 1.5.
3. Private life insurers’ commission ratio has more than doubled since FY22, raising concerns of mis-selling.
4. All four PSU general insurers reported profits in FY26.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; only New India Assurance among the 4 PSU general insurers reported profit in FY26 — the other three reported significant losses.)

Q5. With reference to global and emerging risks flagged in FSR June 2026, consider the following statements:

1. Global financial stability risks remain elevated due to persistent supply chain uncertainties, elevated public debt, and bond market fragilities.
2. The RBI warned that widespread adoption of foreign-currency-denominated stablecoins could undermine monetary sovereignty and weaken policy transmission.
3. Fintech lending grew 36.1%, with concerns about impairment among borrowers with unsecured loans from five or more lenders.
4. The FSR concluded that global markets are completely insulated from any future shocks.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the FSR explicitly warned that global financial stability risks REMAIN ELEVATED — NOT that markets are completely insulated.)

Q6. With reference to Governor Sanjay Malhotra’s foreword and broader themes, consider the following statements:

1. Governor Malhotra said financial stability, like price stability, is a “necessary condition” for boosting growth but not sufficient on its own.
2. He said the outlook for inflation is benign with greater confidence in durable alignment with the RBI’s target.
3. Financial stability, according to the RBI, extends beyond prudential regulation and requires fair business conduct, better customer experience, and greater financial inclusion.
4. The FSR is prepared solely by the SEBI without any RBI input.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the FSR is prepared under the Sub-Committee of the FSDC, chaired by the RBI Governor — NOT by SEBI.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: First FSR in March 2010, not January 2020.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: FSDC is non-statutory, not created under RBI Act.
3. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Agriculture has HIGHEST GNPA, not lowest.
4. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Only New India Assurance reported profit; 3 PSU insurers reported losses.
5. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Global risks remain elevated, not insulated.
6. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: FSR is by RBI/FSDC-SC, not SEBI.

Exam Relevance

Exam	Relevance
RBI Grade B (Phase I + II)	CRITICAL — Direct subject — FSR, FSDC, stress tests, GNPA, systemic risk; Phase II FM + ESI essay-worthy
SEBI / NABARD / SIDBI / IRDAI Grade A	Very High — FSR is inter-regulatory; direct relevance
Banking (SBI PO, IBPS, RBI Assistant)	Very High — Recurring GA: FSR, GNPA, FSDC, systemic risk
UPSC Prelims & Mains	Very High — GS-II (Governance, Bodies), GS-III (Economy, Financial Sector), Essay
State PCS	High — Economy, financial regulation GA
SSC, Railway, Insurance	Very High — FSR, FSDC, RBI, GNPA

Agriculture

1. ICRISAT + Partners Develop Two High-Oleic Groundnut Varieties — ICGV 201214 & ICGV 181030

Source: The Hindu Businessline

Context

The Variety Identification Committee (VIC) of the All India Coordinated Research Project on Groundnut (AICRP-G) under ICAR has identified two new high-oleic groundnut varieties — ICGV 201214 (ICGG 107) and ICGV 181030 (ICDh 181030) — for national release. The decision was taken at the AICRP-G Annual Group Meeting held at Pune, 21–23 April 2026. Both are medium-duration Spanish bunch varieties developed by ICRISAT — ICGV 201214 jointly with Junagadh Agricultural University (JAU), and ICGV 181030 jointly with the University of Agricultural Sciences (UAS), Dharwad. ICGV 181030 is the FIRST high-oleic groundnut variety approved for cultivation in Odisha and the Northeastern States. The varieties promise higher yields, premium oil quality (78–81% oleic acid), longer shelf life, and support India’s efforts to reduce edible oil import dependence.

Announcement + approval

• Approving Body: Variety Identification Committee (VIC) of AICRP-G under ICAR
• Venue: AICRP-G Annual Group Meeting, Pune

The two varieties

• ICGV 201214 (alternate name ICGG 107) — jointly developed by ICRISAT + Junagadh Agricultural University, Gujarat.
• ICGV 181030 (alternate name ICDh 181030) — jointly developed by ICRISAT + University of Agricultural Sciences (UAS), Dharwad, Karnataka.

ICGV 201214 — specifications

• Type: Medium-duration Spanish bunch.
• Season: Kharif.
• Zone recommended: Zone II (Gujarat + Rajasthan).
• Oleic acid: 81%.
• Oil content: 53%.
• Protein content: 27%.
• Kernel: Bold and attractive — preferred by both farmers and market.
• Yield performance: +19% kernel yield over widely grown check variety JL 501 (across 3 years of multi-location testing).
• Oil content advantage: Consistently higher oil content than zonal check varieties.

ICGV 181030 — specifications

• Type: Medium-duration Spanish bunch.
• Season: Kharif.
• Zones recommended: Zone II (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra) + Zone IV (Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Northeastern States).
• Oleic acid: ~78%.
• Yield vs Girnar 3 (Zone IV): +7% pod yield over 3 years.
• Yield advantage (Zone II): +12% yield advantage.
• Special significance: FIRST high-oleic variety approved for Odisha + NE States.

What is High-Oleic groundnut?

• Kernels with ≥78% oleic acid are classified as high-oleic.
• Oleic-to-linoleic (O/L) ratio: ≥10:1.
• Shelf life: 5–10× longer than normal groundnut.
• Health: Reduces cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk; improves HDL:LDL ratio; oleic acid is the same monounsaturated fat as in olive oil.
• Superior oxidative stability — resists rancidity.
• Highly sought by food processors, manufacturers, and health-conscious consumers.
• Commands premium pricing across the value chain.
• Benchmark set globally by SunOleic 95R (US-bred; ~80% oleic acid).

AICRP-G Groundnut Cultivation Zones (India)

• Zone I (North): Punjab, Haryana, HP, J&K, western UP, north Rajasthan.
• Zone II (Northwest): Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, MP.
• Zone III (South): Karnataka, TN, Kerala, AP, Telangana.
• Zone IV (East): Jharkhand, Odisha, WB, Northeastern States, Bihar.

About ICRISAT

• Full Form: International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics.
• Founded: 28 March 1972 (under Memorandum of Agreement between Government of India and CGIAR).
• HQ: Patancheru, Hyderabad, India.
• Type: CGIAR-affiliated non-profit, apolitical intergovernmental research centre; has status of “International Organisation” under UN (Privileges and Immunities) Act, 1947.
• Focus Crops: Chickpea, Pigeonpea, Groundnut, Sorghum, Pearl Millet, Finger Millet, Small Millets.
• Director General: Dr. Himanshu Pathak (took charge 6 March 2025) — first Indian to hold this position (2nd Indian-origin CGIAR head after Dr. M.S. Swaminathan at IRRI).
• Coverage: Dryland tropics — India, Africa, Asia.

About ICAR

• Full Form: Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
• Founded: 16 July 1929 (as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research).
• HQ: New Delhi (Krishi Bhavan).
• Under: Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
• Type: Autonomous body registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
• Institutes: 102 ICAR institutes + 71 State Agricultural Universities.
• Director General: Dr. Mangi Lal (M.L.) Jat — appointed by ACC on 17 April 2025; three-year term; previously DDG (Research) at ICRISAT.

Development partners

• Junagadh Agricultural University (JAU): Founded 2004; Gujarat; developed Girnar-series high-oleic varieties.
• UAS Dharwad: Founded 1986; Karnataka; major crop-improvement institute.

Key persons quoted in the news

• Dr. Janila Pasupuleti — Principal Scientist – Groundnut Breeding, ICRISAT.
• Dr. Raman Babu — Global Research Program Director – Accelerated Crop Improvement (ACI), ICRISAT.
• Dr. Himanshu Pathak — Director General, ICRISAT.

India’s edible oil context

• Edible oil import dependence: ~56–60% (up from ~15% in 1995–96; ~16 MMT annually).
• Edible oil import bill (annual): ~₹1.5 lakh crore.
• Groundnut rank: India is 2nd largest producer globally (after China); 1st in castor, safflower, sesame, niger; 3rd in rapeseed-mustard; 5th in soybean.
• Groundnut production: ~5–8 million tonnes/year.
• Largest groundnut producer state: Gujarat.
• Other major producers: Rajasthan, AP, TN, Karnataka, MP.
• Rain-fed cultivation: ~76% of oilseed area is rain-fed.
• Oilseeds share of GCA: 14.3% of Gross Cropped Area.

Related national initiatives

• NMEO-Oilseeds (Nov 2024): National Mission on Edible Oils – Oilseeds; ₹10,103 crore; 7-year duration (2024-25 to 2030-31); target = Atmanirbharta in edible oils.
• NMEO-Oil Palm (2021): ₹11,040 crore; focus on North-East + island territories.
• Aatmanirbhar Bharat — Oilseeds: Reduce edible oil import dependency.
• PSS (Price Support Scheme): Government procurement of oilseeds at MSP.
• PDPS (Price Deficiency Payment Scheme): Compensates farmers for price deficiency below MSP.
• Customs duty hike (2024): Crude edible oils raised from 5.5% → 16.5%; refined edible oils raised from 13.75% → 35.75%.

Previous high-oleic varieties in India (all by ICRISAT + partners)

• Girnar 4 (ICGV 15083) — with ICAR-DGR (Directorate of Groundnut Research), Junagadh; released 2020.
• Girnar 5 (ICGV 15090) — with ICAR-DGR, Junagadh; released 2020.
• GG 40 (ICGV 16668) — with Junagadh Agricultural University.
• GG 39 (ICGV 16697) — with Junagadh Agricultural University.

Key Terms

• What is ICRISAT? International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics — founded 28 March 1972; HQ Patancheru, Hyderabad; CGIAR-affiliated non-profit intergovernmental research centre for dryland crops.
• What is ICAR? Indian Council of Agricultural Research — founded 16 July 1929; HQ New Delhi; India’s apex agricultural research body under DARE, Ministry of Agriculture.
• What is AICRP-G? All India Coordinated Research Project on Groundnut — ICAR’s national research coordination network for groundnut.
• What is a Spanish bunch groundnut? A type of groundnut with compact bunch growth habit; medium duration (100–110 days); popular for uniform maturity and easy mechanised harvest.
• What is oleic acid? Monounsaturated omega-9 fatty acid — the main fat in olive oil; high-oleic groundnuts contain ≥78% oleic acid.
• What is a Kharif crop? Crops sown at onset of southwest monsoon (June–July) and harvested Sept–Oct.
• What is CGIAR? Consortium of International Agricultural Research Centres — global agri-research network; ICRISAT is one of its 15 centres.
• What is NMEO? National Mission on Edible Oils — GoI umbrella scheme with two components (Oilseeds + Oil Palm) for edible oil self-reliance.
• Who is Dr. Janila Pasupuleti? Principal Scientist – Groundnut Breeding, ICRISAT.
• Who is Dr. Himanshu Pathak? Director General, ICRISAT (since 6 March 2025); first Indian to lead ICRISAT.
• Who is Dr. M.L. Jat? Director General, ICAR + Secretary DARE (since April 2025); previously DDG (Research) at ICRISAT.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the two high-oleic groundnut varieties identified for national release, consider the following statements:

1. The two varieties are ICGV 201214 and ICGV 181030.
2. They were identified by the Variety Identification Committee (VIC) of the All India Coordinated Research Project on Groundnut (AICRP-G) under ICAR.
3. Both varieties were developed with ICRISAT as one of the partners.
4. Both varieties were identified for release at the AICRP-G Annual Group Meeting held in New Delhi.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the AICRP-G Annual Group Meeting was held at PUNE from 21–23 April 2026 — NOT in New Delhi.)

Q2. With reference to ICGV 181030, consider the following statements:

1. It was jointly developed by ICRISAT and the University of Agricultural Sciences (UAS), Dharwad.
2. It is a medium-duration Spanish bunch variety recommended for Zone II (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra) and Zone IV (Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Northeastern States).
3. It is the first high-oleic groundnut variety recommended for cultivation in Odisha and the Northeastern States.
4. Its oleic acid content is only about 40%.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; ICGV 181030 contains approximately 78% oleic acid — NOT 40%. High-oleic groundnuts are defined as those with ≥78% oleic acid.)

Q3. With reference to ICGV 201214, consider the following statements:

1. It was jointly developed by ICRISAT and Junagadh Agricultural University.
2. It contains 81% oleic acid, 53% oil, and 27% protein.
3. It is a medium-duration Spanish bunch variety recommended for Kharif cultivation in Zone II (Gujarat and Rajasthan).
4. It has been recommended for cultivation exclusively in the Northeastern States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; ICGV 201214 has been recommended for Zone II (Gujarat + Rajasthan) — NOT the Northeastern States.)

Q4. With reference to the significance of high-oleic groundnut, consider the following statements:

1. Groundnut kernels with ≥78% oleic acid are considered high-oleic.
2. High-oleic groundnut oil has 5–10 times the shelf life of normal groundnut oil.
3. Consumption of oleic-rich diets reduces cardiovascular disease risk and improves the HDL:LDL ratio.
4. High-oleic groundnut oil has poorer oxidative stability than conventional groundnut oil.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; high-oleic groundnut oil has SUPERIOR oxidative stability — NOT poorer stability.)

Q5. With reference to ICRISAT and ICAR, consider the following statements:

1. ICRISAT was founded on 28 March 1972 and is headquartered in Patancheru, Hyderabad.
2. ICRISAT is affiliated with CGIAR and focuses on dryland crops such as chickpea, pigeonpea, groundnut, sorghum, and millets.
3. ICAR was founded on 16 July 1929 as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research and is headquartered in New Delhi.
4. ICRISAT is a Government of India department directly under the Ministry of Agriculture.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; ICRISAT is a non-profit, apolitical intergovernmental research centre affiliated with CGIAR — NOT a Government of India department under the Ministry of Agriculture. ICAR is the Indian government body.)

Q6. With reference to India’s edible oil context and related schemes, consider the following statements:

1. India imports approximately 56–60% of its edible oil requirement, with an annual import bill of ~₹1.5 lakh crore.
2. Groundnut is a major oilseed in India, with Gujarat as the largest producer.
3. The National Mission on Edible Oils – Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds) was approved by the Union Cabinet in November 2024 with an outlay of ₹10,103 crore.
4. India is a net exporter of edible oils, with no dependence on imports.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India is a NET IMPORTER of edible oils with ~56–60% import dependence — NOT a net exporter.)

Q7. With reference to key personalities in Indian agricultural research (2026), consider the following statements:

1. Dr. Himanshu Pathak took charge as Director General of ICRISAT on 6 March 2025 and is the first Indian to hold this position.
2. Dr. M.L. Jat, previously Deputy Director General (Research) at ICRISAT, was appointed as the Director General of ICAR and Secretary DARE in April 2025.
3. Dr. Janila Pasupuleti is the Principal Scientist for Groundnut Breeding at ICRISAT.
4. Dr. Himanshu Pathak is the second Indian-origin scientist to head a CGIAR institute after Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, who led IRRI from 1982–88.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(All statements are correct.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Pune, not New Delhi.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: 78% oleic acid, not 40%.
3. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: For Zone II only, not NE States.
4. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Superior oxidative stability, not poorer.
5. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: ICRISAT is CGIAR intergovernmental, not GoI department.
6. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: India is a net importer, not exporter.
7. (d) — All statements correct.

Exam Relevance

• NABARD Grade A: CRITICAL — Direct subject; oilseeds, ICAR, ICRISAT, edible oil self-reliance, agri research; Phase II descriptive.
• UPSC Prelims & Mains: Very High — GS-III (Agriculture, Food Security, S&T); Prelims (species + institutions); Essay.
• State PCS (esp. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Odisha, NE states): Very High — Direct subject; regional oilseed cultivation.

2. Balwaan Krishi Expands South India Operations with New Logistics & Distribution Hubs in Chennai and Visakhapatnam

Source: The Hindu Businessline

Context

Balwaan Krishi, a Jaipur-headquartered farm-equipment startup targeting small and marginal farmers, has launched two new logistics and distribution hubs — one in Chennai and another in Visakhapatnam — to accelerate its South India expansion across Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and Kerala. The Chennai facility spans 14,000 sq ft, involves an investment of ₹50 lakh, and will anchor supply-chain operations for all 38 districts of Tamil Nadu through a 34-dealer network, while simultaneously acting as the primary distribution gateway into Andhra Pradesh with 59 dealer partners stretching from Visakhapatnam in the north to key agri-belts in the south. Each operational cluster is projected to generate 5–8 direct + indirect jobs across warehousing, logistics, and field support. The expansion reflects Balwaan’s strategy to build ground-level physical presence, faster delivery, and localised farmer engagement in South India’s diverse farming landscape.

Product focus — Tamil Nadu

• Focus products: power weeders, brush cutters, sprayers, water pumps, and harvesting equipment.
• Growth channels: Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs), cooperatives, and agri-input dealer networks across all districts.

Product focus — Andhra Pradesh

• Focus products: power tillers, power weeders, battery-operated sprayers, and harvesters.
• Growth channels: on-ground dealer demonstrations, localised farmer engagement, and tie-ups with government programmes.

About Balwaan Krishi

• Type: Small farm-machinery / agritech startup.
• Founded: 2016.
• Founders: Rohit Bajaj + Shubham Bajaj (brothers).
• Headquarters: Jaipur, Rajasthan (22 Godam Circle, Industrial Area).
• Website: balwaan.com
• Mission: Empower small and marginal farmers (who form ~86% of India’s farming community) through affordable, mechanised farm equipment.
• Business model: Blended B2B + B2C — dealer network + e-commerce.
• Farmers served: 10+ lakh (over 1 million).
• E-commerce presence: Amazon, Flipkart, Moglix, BigHaat, IndustryBuying, Tractor Junction.
• Manufacturing hub: Jaipur (new state-of-the-art hub commissioned September 2025).
• Existing regional hubs (pre-July 2026): Maharashtra, Assam, West Bengal; regional warehouses added September 2025 in Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Northeast, and Kashmir.
• Product range: Sprayers, seeders, brush cutters, power weeders, water pumps, power tillers, harvesters, battery-operated equipment.
• Distinction: Launched India’s first ISI-marked agricultural equipment range (July 2023).

Key government schemes on farm mechanisation

• SMAM (Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation): Launched 2014–15. Provides 40–50% subsidy on tractors, power tillers, combine harvesters to small and marginal farmers. Merged with Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) in September 2022. About 14.2 lakh machines distributed since inception.
• Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs): Rent-based access to modern equipment for small farmers; SMAM 2026 reforms prioritise CHCs and FPOs over individual ownership.
• Formation & Promotion of 10,000 FPOs Scheme: Launched February 2020; ₹6,865 crore outlay; implementing agencies include NABARD, SFAC, NCDC.
• PM-KUSUM: Solar pumps for irrigation.
• Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF): ₹1 lakh crore corpus; interest subvention for warehousing, cold chains, primary processing.
• e-NAM: National agri-marketplace.

About FPOs (Farmer Producer Organisations)

• FPO: Legal entity formed by farmers (registered as Producer Company under Companies Act, 2013 / cooperative society).
• Aim: Aggregate small-holder produce, provide bulk input procurement, market access, value addition, credit access.
• Central scheme: Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs (launched Feb 2020, PM Modi at Chitrakoot); target = 10,000 new FPOs by 2027-28; outlay = ₹6,865 crore.
• Nodal implementing agencies: NABARD, SFAC (Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium), NCDC (National Cooperative Development Corporation).

Key Terms

• Who is Balwaan Krishi? Jaipur-based farm-machinery startup founded in 2016 by Rohit Bajaj and Shubham Bajaj; India’s first company to launch ISI-marked farm equipment (2023).
• What is a power weeder? Small motorised machine for removing weeds in row crops; alternative to manual weeding.
• What is a brush cutter? Handheld motorised tool for cutting shrubs, weeds, and grasses.
• What is a power tiller? Small walking tractor used for ploughing, puddling, and land preparation, especially on small holdings.
• What is a knapsack sprayer? Backpack-mounted sprayer for applying pesticides, fungicides, or fertilisers on crops.
• What is an FPO? Farmer Producer Organisation — collective of farmers registered as a producer company or cooperative to aggregate produce and improve bargaining power.
• What is SMAM? Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation — GoI scheme (since 2014-15) providing 40–50% subsidy on farm machinery to small and marginal farmers; merged with RKVY in September 2022.
• What is a Custom Hiring Centre (CHC)? Village-level facility that rents out modern farm machinery to small farmers who can’t afford to buy.
• Who is Rohit Bajaj? Co-founder of Balwaan Krishi; MBA-turned-agri-entrepreneur.
• What is ISI mark? Standardisation mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS); indicates product conformity to Indian Standards.
• What is JM Financial Private Equity? PE arm of JM Financial group; lead investor in Balwaan Krishi.
• What are Krishna delta and Godavari delta? Fertile alluvial deltas of Andhra Pradesh formed by the Krishna and Godavari rivers; major rice bowls of South India.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Balwaan Krishi’s July 2026 South India expansion, consider the following statements:

1. Balwaan Krishi has launched new logistics and distribution hubs in Chennai and Visakhapatnam.
2. The Chennai facility spans 14,000 sq ft with an investment of ₹50 lakh.
3. The Chennai hub will anchor supply-chain operations for all 38 districts of Tamil Nadu through 34 dealer partners.
4. The Chennai hub will also act as the primary distribution gateway into Andhra Pradesh with 59 dealer partners.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(All statements are correct as per the news report.)

Q2. With reference to Balwaan Krishi, consider the following statements:

1. It was founded in 2016 by Rohit Bajaj and Shubham Bajaj.
2. It is headquartered in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
3. It has served over 10 lakh farmers and partnered with over 2,000 dealers.
4. It is majority-owned by the Government of India through the Ministry of Agriculture.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Balwaan Krishi is a private-sector agritech startup backed by JM Financial Private Equity and other private investors — NOT a Government of India entity.)

Q3. With reference to India’s farm mechanisation landscape, consider the following statements:

1. As of August 2022, approximately 47% of agricultural activities in India were mechanised.
2. India’s mechanisation level is lower than that of China (~60%) and Brazil (~75%).
3. Small and marginal farmers account for about 86% of India’s operational holdings.
4. India’s average land holding size is greater than 5 hectares.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s average land holding is LESS THAN 1.1 hectares — NOT greater than 5 hectares. This is precisely why mechanisation of small holdings is a policy priority.)

Q4. With reference to the Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation (SMAM), consider the following statements:

1. SMAM was launched in 2014-15 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. It provides a subsidy of 40–50% of the cost of tractors, power tillers, or combine harvesters to small and marginal farmers.
3. It was merged with the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) in September 2022.
4. Under SMAM, no equipment can be provided through Custom Hiring Centres.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs) are a KEY component of SMAM, enabling small farmers to rent equipment they can’t afford to buy. SMAM 2026 reforms explicitly prioritise CHCs and FPOs over individual ownership.)

Q5. With reference to Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs), consider the following statements:

1. FPOs are typically registered as producer companies under the Companies Act, 2013.
2. The Central Sector Scheme for Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs was launched in February 2020 with an outlay of ₹6,865 crore.
3. NABARD, SFAC, and NCDC are among the implementing agencies for the FPO scheme.
4. FPOs are prohibited from procuring agricultural inputs in bulk for their member-farmers.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; bulk input procurement (fertilisers, seeds, pesticides) is a CORE function of FPOs, giving members significant cost savings and access to better-quality products — NOT prohibited.)

Q6. Regarding Balwaan Krishi’s product focus in South India, match the state with the primary product focus:

1. Tamil Nadu — Power weeders, brush cutters, sprayers, water pumps, harvesting equipment.
2. Andhra Pradesh — Power tillers, power weeders, battery-operated sprayers, harvesters.
3. Tamil Nadu — Growth through FPOs, cooperatives, and agri-input dealer networks.
4. Andhra Pradesh — Growth through dealer demonstrations, localised engagement, and government-scheme tie-ups.

How many of the above pairings are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(All four pairings are correct per the news report.)

Answer Key

1. (d) — All four correct.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Private startup, not GoI entity.
3. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Average holding <1.1 ha, not >5 ha.
4. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: CHCs are core to SMAM.
5. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Bulk input procurement is a core FPO function.
6. (d) — All four pairings correct.

Exam Relevance

• NABARD Grade A: Very High — Direct subject: farm mechanisation, small & marginal farmers, FPOs, SMAM, dealer networks; ARD paper (Phase II) + descriptive.
• UPSC Prelims & Mains: High — GS-III (Agriculture, Farm Mechanisation, Rural Economy); Essay on rural development.
• State PCS (esp. Tamil Nadu, AP, Telangana, Karnataka, Rajasthan): High — Regional agri-industry, state-level implementation.

Facts To Remember

1. RBI-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) 2026 Comes into Effect

The Reserve Bank of India launched the RBI-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) 2026 from 1 July 2026, replacing the 2021 framework. It provides a free, faster, and non-adversarial complaint resolution mechanism for banks, NBFCs, PPI issuers, and credit information companies. Compensation limits were raised to ₹30 lakh for financial loss and ₹3 lakh for mental harassment.

2. CCEA Reduces Broken Rice Content in PDS Rice

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved stricter quality norms for rice distributed under Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana and other welfare schemes. Broken rice content in raw rice was reduced from 25% to 10%, while parboiled rice was cut from 16% to 5%. The move improves rice quality, supports ethanol production, and reduces logistics costs.

3. Ravi Shankar Appointed RBI Executive Director

Ravi Shankar was appointed Executive Director of the Reserve Bank of India with effect from 1 July 2026. He will head the Department of Statistics and Information Management (DSIM). With over 30 years of RBI experience, he will oversee economic statistics and survey operations.

4. JP Nadda Launches Aarogya Setu 2.0

Jagat Prakash Nadda launched Aarogya Setu 2.0 and multiple digital health initiatives in New Delhi. The initiatives include Ayushman App, NHCX, UHI, Drug Registry, and Bharat Health Terminology Service. These platforms strengthen India’s digital public health infrastructure under ABDM.

5. MIB Announces Two Major Film Industry Reforms

The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting announced a High-Level Study Group and Model State Cinema Regulations. The study group, chaired by Prasoon Joshi, will examine opportunities and challenges in Indian cinema. The reforms aim to improve global competitiveness and expand cinema infrastructure.

6. Government Retains Small Savings Scheme Rates

The Ministry of Finance kept interest rates unchanged for all Small Savings Schemes for Q2 FY27. This marks the ninth consecutive quarter without revision. Schemes such as PPF, NSC, and Sukanya Samriddhi Account continue at existing rates.

7. Amit Shah Launches FCRA 2.0 Portal and e-OCI System

Amit Shah launched the FCRA 2.0 portal and electronic OCI card ecosystem in New Delhi. The platforms simplify compliance, enable online processing, and improve governance through AI-powered and API-based systems. The initiative promotes faster and paperless citizen services.

8. India Identifies 25 Tiger Reserves for Recovery

The Government of India identified 25 tiger reserves for priority recovery through science-based interventions. The decision was announced during the 18-year celebration of tiger reintroduction at Sariska Tiger Reserve. Key challenges include habitat fragmentation, low prey density, and Left Wing Extremism.

9. Rajnath Singh Releases DFP-2026 for DRDO

Rajnath Singh released Delegation of Financial Powers to DRDO (DFP-2026). The reform enhances financial and functional autonomy for defence R&D projects. It aims to accelerate indigenous defence technology development.

10. Haryana–Rajasthan Yamuna Water Agreement Signed

The Centre signed a water-sharing agreement with Haryana and Rajasthan to implement the Yamuna Water Project. The ₹34,102 crore project aims to resolve the long-pending interstate water dispute. It will provide drinking water and irrigation benefits to multiple districts.

11. India and Saudi Arabia Sign Water Cooperation MoU

India and Saudi Arabia signed an MoU on water resource cooperation during Saudi Water Week. The agreement focuses on sustainable water management, irrigation, and technical knowledge exchange. It strengthens bilateral strategic cooperation.

12. Punjab & Sind Bank Launches New Digital Initiatives

Punjab & Sind Bank launched digital banking initiatives on its 119th Foundation Day. New offerings include the Navjyoti HR app and PSB Bharat Connect Account. These initiatives promote customer convenience and digital transformation.

13. SEBI Forms Expert Group on Debenture Trustees

Securities and Exchange Board of India formed an expert group led by Ananta Barua to review debenture trustee regulations. The panel will recommend reforms to strengthen investor protection. Public feedback is invited until 15 July 2026.

14. SBI Life and IIT Bombay Partner for AI Cyber Defence

SBI Life Insurance partnered with Indian Institute of Technology Bombay to establish the Bharat AI & Cyber Innovation Hub. The centre will develop indigenous AI-driven cybersecurity solutions. It aims to strengthen digital resilience in insurance.

15. Ravi Agrawal Reappointed CBDT Chairman

Ravi Agrawal was reappointed Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes for six months. His term now extends until 31 December 2026. He continues to lead India’s direct tax administration.

16. DGCA Conducts India’s First Satellite Landing Trial

The Directorate General of Civil Aviation completed India’s first SLS approach trial on an Airbus A320 using GAGAN at Udaipur Airport. The test demonstrated satellite-guided precision landing capability. It marks a major aviation technology milestone.

17. Theatre Legend Vijaya Mehta Passes Away

Vijaya Mehta passed away at 92 in Mumbai. She was a pioneering figure in Marathi theatre and cinema. Her contributions earned her the Padma Shri in 1987.

18. International Day of Parliamentarism Observed on June 30

The United Nations observes International Day of Parliamentarism annually on 30 June. The 2026 theme is “The Future of Human Rights is Written in Parliaments.” The day highlights the role of legislatures in democracy and governance.

19. National Doctors’ Day Observed on July 1

India celebrates National Doctors’ Day on 1 July to honor doctors and healthcare workers. The day commemorates the birth and death anniversary of Bidhan Chandra Roy. The 2026 theme is “Behind the Mask: Who Heals the Healers?”

20. National Chartered Accountants Day Observed on July 1

National Chartered Accountants Day marks the foundation of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India in 1949. The 2026 celebration marks ICAI’s 78th foundation year. The day recognizes the role of chartered accountants in financial governance.

Context

The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD), under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, on 3 July 2026 successfully concluded Pashujanya Yudh Abhyas (PYA) — the 3rd national-level mock drill under the National One Health Mission (NOHM). The 5-day exercise (29 June – 3 July 2026) was held at Khari village, Vidisha District, Madhya Pradesh and simulated an outbreak of Influenza A (H1N1) in animals with spillover potential to humans and wildlife. Built around the One Health approach, the drill tested the full response chain — disease surveillance, early warning, sample collection + transport, laboratory diagnosis, risk assessment, biosecurity, containment, movement control, and public communication — with participation from DAHD, ICAR, NCDC, ICMR, Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA), ICAR-NIHSAD Bhopal, AIIMS Bhopal, MoEF&CC, and Madhya Pradesh’s state + district departments, under the coordination of the National Joint Outbreak Response Team (NJORT). DAHD Secretary Shri Naresh Pal Gangwar described the exercise as “the One Health approach in action.”

The exercise at a glance

• Name: Pashujanya Yudh Abhyas (PYA).
• Meaning: “Zoonotic Warfare Exercise” (Sanskrit-origin: Pashu = animal + Janya = originated from + Yudh Abhyas = war exercise/drill).
• Edition: 3rd national-level mock drill under the National One Health Mission.
• Organiser: Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.
• Duration: 29 June – 3 July 2026 (5 days).
• Venue: Khari village, Vidisha District, Madhya Pradesh.
• Framework: One Health approach.
• Simulated outbreak: Influenza A (H1N1) in animals with potential spillover to humans + wildlife.
• Concluding debrief: 3 July 2026 under the Chairmanship of the Animal Husbandry Commissioner, DAHD, with the Director, NCDC and Director, Animal Husbandry, MP in attendance.

What was tested during the drill?

The full “first alert to containment” response chain:

• Disease surveillance — active + passive.
• Early warning + outbreak reporting — chain-of-communication.
• Outbreak investigation + field epidemiology — case tracing.
• Sample collection + transportation — cold chain, biosafety.
• Laboratory diagnosis — RT-PCR, sequencing.
• Risk assessment — public health + wildlife impact.
• Incident management — Incident Command System.
• Biosecurity — PPE, quarantine, disinfection.
• Containment operations — culling, ring vaccination.
• Movement control — animal + human movement restrictions.
• Public communication — risk messaging, media briefings.

What is the One Health approach?

• An integrated, unifying approach recognising that the health of people, animals, plants, and the shared environment are interconnected.
• Approximately 75% of emerging infectious diseases in humans originate in animals (zoonoses).
• Enables cross-sectoral collaboration between human health, veterinary health, wildlife, and environment sectors.
• Endorsed globally by the Quadripartite Alliance — FAO + UNEP + WHO + WOAH.
• One Health Joint Plan of Action (OH-JPA) 2022–2026 — global framework by the Quadripartite.

What is the National One Health Mission (NOHM)?

• Approved by: The Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) at its 21st meeting in July 2022.
• Nodal Coordinator: Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA) to the Government of India.
• Anchor Institution: National Institute of One Health (NIOH), Nagpur — foundation stone laid by PM Modi in December 2022.
• Vision: Build an integrated disease control and pandemic preparedness system in India by unifying human, animal, and environmental sectors.
• Ministries involved: 13+ ministries and departments — Health, Animal Husbandry, Environment, Defence, DBT, CSIR, AYUSH, ICMR, ICAR, MoHFW, MoEFCC etc.

What is Influenza A (H1N1)?

• Also known as swine flu (in its 2009 pandemic strain).
• Caused the 2009-10 global H1N1 pandemic — first pandemic of the 21st century.
• A zoonotic virus — originally emerged in pigs; transmits to humans through respiratory droplets.
• Structure: RNA virus of the Orthomyxoviridae family; “H” = hemagglutinin, “N” = neuraminidase surface proteins.
• Symptoms: Fever, cough, sore throat, body ache, fatigue (like seasonal flu but potentially severe).
• Currently: H1N1 has become part of seasonal flu; monitored via India’s Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).

What is DAHD?

• Full form: Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
• Parent Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
• Union Minister: Rajiv Ranjan Singh (Lalan Singh) (2024-present).
• Secretary: Shri Naresh Pal Gangwar.
• Role: Overall development of livestock, dairy, and animal husbandry sector.
• Key programmes: National Livestock Mission, Rashtriya Gokul Mission, National Digital Livestock Mission.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Pashujanya Yudh Abhyas (PYA), consider the following statements:

1. It was the third national-level mock drill under the National One Health Mission.
2. It was conducted from 29 June to 3 July 2026 at Khari village in Vidisha District, Madhya Pradesh.
3. It simulated an outbreak of Influenza A (H1N1) in animals with spillover potential to humans and wildlife.
4. It was organised by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PYA was organised by the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying — NOT the Ministry of Home Affairs.)

Q2. With reference to the National One Health Mission (NOHM), consider the following statements:

1. It was approved by the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) in 2022.
2. It is anchored by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India.
3. Its anchor institution is the National Institute of One Health, Nagpur.
4. It is a single-ministry initiative led entirely by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; NOHM is a multi-ministerial initiative involving 13+ ministries and departments — including Health, Animal Husbandry, Environment, Defence, DBT, CSIR, AYUSH, ICMR, ICAR etc. — NOT a single-ministry initiative.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Organised by DAHD, not MHA.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: NOHM is multi-ministerial, not single-ministry.

Exam Relevance

• NABARD Grade A: Very High — ESI + ARD papers on livestock, animal health, zoonotic disease impact on rural economy.

Facts To Remember

1. Digital India Programme Completes 11 Years

Digital India completed 11 years on 1 July 2026. Launched by Narendra Modi in 2015, the programme aims to build a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. Its focus now includes Artificial Intelligence and semiconductor manufacturing.

2. Tourism Ministry Signs MoU with Google India

The Ministry of Tourism signed an MoU with Google India to boost digital tourism promotion. The partnership will use AI, analytics, and digital platforms to enhance global visibility of Indian tourism. It supports the Incredible India initiative through technology-driven outreach.

3. PM Modi Visits Seychelles

Narendra Modi visited Seychelles from 27–29 June 2026. India and Seychelles signed 9 MoUs covering defence, healthcare, maritime cooperation, and digital payments. PM Modi also received Seychelles’ highest honour, “Guardian of the Blue Horizon.”

4. Bank of Baroda Partners with Mizuho Bank

Bank of Baroda partnered with Mizuho Bank for M&A financing. The collaboration covers acquisition finance, co-underwriting, syndication, and advisory services. It strengthens cross-border financing capabilities.

5. NPCI Partners with HSBC and JP Morgan for Cross-Border UPI

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) partnered with HSBC India and JP Morgan Payments. The collaboration enables real-time forex settlement for cross-border UPI transactions. It improves speed, transparency, and payment efficiency for global users.

6. Himachal Pradesh Gets 8 New GI Tags

Himachal Pradesh received eight new Geographical Indication tags, taking its total GI products to 17. Newly tagged products include Kinnauri Apple, Seabuckthorn, and Chamba Metal Art. The recognition boosts traditional products and rural livelihoods.

7. HDFC Bank Appoints Rajiv Kumar as Chairman

HDFC Bank appointed Rajiv Kumar as part-time Chairman for three years. He succeeds Keki Mistry. He has also been appointed Additional Independent Director.

8. RBI Appoints Ravi Shankar as Executive Director

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) appointed Ravi Shankar as Executive Director from 1 July 2026. He will head the Department of Statistics and Information Management. He brings over 30 years of central banking experience.

9. CCI Clears Major Acquisition Deals

Competition Commission of India (CCI) approved two major deals. These include DWS Group’s stake acquisition in Nippon Life India AIF and Aditya Birla-led acquisition of RCB. The approvals strengthen India’s asset management and sports sectors.

10. Kotak Mahindra Bank to Acquire Deutsche Bank India Business

Kotak Mahindra Bank will acquire Deutsche Bank India retail and wealth business for ₹281.7 crore. The acquisition includes loans, deposits, and assets under management. It strengthens Kotak’s affluent banking segment.

11. BPCL Acquires Stake in Tiki Tar–Shell India JV

Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) signed a deal to acquire 40% stake in Tiki Tar–Shell India JV. The ₹85 crore acquisition boosts BPCL’s bitumen and road materials business. It will make BPCL an equal joint venture partner.

12. MoEFCC Launches Animal Taxonomy Summit 4.0

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) launched ATS 4.0 in Kolkata. The summit marked the 111th Foundation Day of Zoological Survey of India. New biodiversity records and annual discovery reports were released.

13. Former Governor MM Lakhera Passes Away

Madan Mohan Lakhera passed away at 88. He served as Governor of Mizoram and Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry. He was decorated with PVSM, AVSM, and VSM for military service.

14. Tamil Poet Puviyarasu Passes Away

Puviyarasu passed away at 96 in Coimbatore. He authored over 120 books and translated global literary works into Tamil. He was a two-time Sahitya Akademi Award winner.

15. GST Day Observed on July 1

GST Day is observed annually in India on 1 July. The day marks the rollout of Goods and Services Tax in 2017. GST taxpayers increased from 66.5 lakh to 1.65 crore by 2026.

16. World Sports Journalists Day Observed

World Sports Journalists Day is observed on 2 July. It honors sports journalists for promoting fair and quality sports reporting. The day commemorates the founding of International Sports Press Association in 1924.

17. Biswanath Sinha Becomes Kerala Chief Secretary

Biswanath Sinha assumed charge as Chief Secretary of Kerala. He succeeds Dr. A. Jayathilak. His tenure will continue until September 2028.

18. Mylswamy Annadurai Appointed TN Curriculum Chairman

Mylswamy Annadurai was appointed Chairman of Tamil Nadu’s Curriculum Design Committee. He will lead curriculum modernization for 1.3 crore students. The initiative focuses on AI, science, and critical thinking.

Here are the news items converted into your preferred format with serial numbers continuing from 19, one-line headings, and 3-line concise descriptions:

19. PM Modi Dedicates Greenfield Refinery Project in Rajasthan

Narendra Modi dedicated India’s first greenfield integrated refinery-cum-petrochemical complex at Balotra. He also inaugurated the new terminal building of Jodhpur Airport. Development projects worth ₹1.06 lakh crore across energy, transport, and infrastructure were launched.

20. Jal Shakti Ministry Launches 7th National Water Awards

Ministry of Jal Shakti launched the 7th National Water Awards on the Rashtriya Puraskar portal. The awards aim to encourage water conservation, efficient water management, and public participation. They recognize individuals, institutions, and states for best water practices.

21. India’s First Export-Import Shipping Container Unveiled

Sarbananda Sonowal unveiled India’s first export-import shipping container manufactured in Dadri. The container was built for A.P. Moller–Maersk. The initiative strengthens India’s manufacturing and global shipping capabilities.

22. Third Batch of DAKSH Leadership Programme Inaugurated

Jitendra Singh inaugurated the third batch of the DAKSH leadership programme. The programme focuses on strengthening leadership, governance, and administrative capacity among public officials. It promotes the Whole-of-Government approach through institutional collaboration.

Context

The National Stock Exchange (NSE) has sought approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to launch Quanto Cross-Currency Derivatives — also called Quanto Derivatives — as revealed in the Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) filed by NSE with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on 17 June 2026 for its upcoming Initial Public Offering (IPO). Quanto derivatives are financial contracts that allow investors to take exposure to the exchange rate between two foreign currencies (e.g., Euro/USD, GBP/USD, USD/JPY) without directly assuming exchange rate risk in the settlement currency. They track the foreign currency pair, while profits and losses are settled in a pre-determined currency at a fixed conversion rate. Hence they are termed “quantity-adjusted”. The application comes at a time when currency derivatives turnover has fallen sharply — from ₹35,000+ crore ADTV to just ~₹5,000 crore in June 2026 — after the RBI mandated (April 2024) that participants must have underlying contracted foreign-currency exposure to trade currency derivatives. BSE’s currency derivatives volumes have been zero since January 2025. NSE is also awaiting SEBI approval for thermal coal (Platts) futures and interest-rate derivatives on the corporate bond index.

What is a Quanto Cross-Currency Derivative?

• A financial contract that lets an investor take exposure to the exchange rate between two foreign currencies — e.g., EUR/USD, GBP/USD, USD/JPY.
• Key feature: The investor does NOT bear exchange-rate risk in the settlement currency.
• The contract tracks the foreign currency pair’s movement.
• Profits and losses are settled in a pre-determined currency under a fixed conversion mechanism.
• Hence the name “Quantity Adjusted” (Quanto) — the notional (quantity) is adjusted to eliminate FX risk in the settlement currency.

How does it work

• Suppose an investor in India wants to bet on the Euro-Dollar (EUR/USD) exchange rate.
• Normally, they’d need to convert INR to USD or EUR and bear both the target FX move + the INR/USD or INR/EUR movement.
• With a Quanto contract, the investor fixes the settlement currency in advance (say, INR) at a pre-determined conversion rate.
• The only risk exposure is the EUR/USD movement itself; no INR/USD or INR/EUR risk is assumed.
• This is why “risk removal” is called the greatest asset of this product (per expert Uday Tardalkar).

Why does NSE want to launch this?

• Revive currency-derivatives volumes: These have collapsed since April 2024.
• Expand product range beyond rupee-based pairs (USD/INR, EUR/INR, GBP/INR, JPY/INR).
• Attract foreign investors who want India-based exchange access to global currency movements without INR risk.
• Formalise trading currently taking place outside the exchange ecosystem — bring it under a regulated domestic platform.
• Fill a hedging gap — Indian investors have limited tools to hedge global currency exposure.

Who is regulating what?

• SEBI: Primary regulator for capital markets, equity derivatives, commodity derivatives.
• RBI: Regulator for currency derivatives + interest rate derivatives + government securities — because these directly affect monetary policy, capital account, and financial stability.
• Joint regulation: Currency and interest-rate derivatives are jointly regulated by SEBI (market infrastructure) + RBI (product approval).

Currency derivatives in India — what’s currently allowed?

Only 4 rupee-based currency pairs are currently traded on Indian exchanges:

• USD/INR (US Dollar / Indian Rupee).
• EUR/INR (Euro / Indian Rupee).
• GBP/INR (British Pound / Indian Rupee).
• JPY/INR (Japanese Yen / Indian Rupee).

Cross-currency pairs (not involving INR) are NOT yet available on Indian exchanges — a gap Quanto contracts aim to close.

Who is NSE?

• Full name: National Stock Exchange of India Limited.
• Founded: 1992 (recognised as a stock exchange in 1994).
• HQ: Bandra Kurla Complex (BKC), Mumbai.
• Type: Market Infrastructure Institution (MII).
• MD & CEO: Ashishkumar Chauhan (since 2022).
• Regulator: Primarily SEBI; RBI for currency + interest rate segments.
• International arm: NSE International Exchange (NSEIX) — GIFT City subsidiary since 2016.

Key Terms

• What is a derivative? A financial contract whose value is derived from an underlying asset — stock, currency, commodity, interest rate, or index.
• What is a currency derivative? A derivative whose underlying is a currency pair (e.g., USD/INR); allows hedging or speculation on exchange rate movements.
• What is a cross-currency derivative? A derivative involving TWO foreign currencies (e.g., EUR/USD) — neither of which is the trader’s home currency.
• What is a Quanto derivative? A cross-currency derivative where the notional is denominated in one currency but the payoff is settled in another at a pre-fixed rate — eliminating FX risk in the settlement currency.
• What is a DRHP? Draft Red Herring Prospectus — the preliminary document filed by a company with SEBI before its IPO.
• What is an OFS? Offer for Sale — an IPO where existing shareholders sell their shares; the company itself does NOT receive fresh capital.
• What is ADTV? Average Daily Turnover Volume — a measure of trading activity.
• What is ‘underlying contracted exposure’? A real business-linked foreign currency requirement (e.g., an importer’s dollar payable) — needed to trade currency derivatives per RBI’s April 2024 mandate.
• What is the Nifty 50? NSE’s flagship index of the top 50 large-cap Indian companies.
• What is a Market Infrastructure Institution (MII)? A stock exchange, depository, or clearing corporation — critical for market functioning; heavily regulated.
• What is Bharat Bill Pay? A separate NPCI subsidiary (unrelated to this note).
• What is thermal coal (Platts)? Coal used in power generation; Platts provides its benchmark pricing.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Quanto Cross-Currency Derivatives, consider the following statements:

1. They allow investors to take exposure to the exchange rate between two foreign currencies, such as EUR/USD or GBP/USD.
2. The profits and losses are settled in a pre-determined currency under a fixed conversion mechanism.
3. Investors bear exchange rate risk in the settlement currency.
4. They are also termed as ‘Quantity Adjusted’ contracts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 3 is wrong; investors do NOT bear exchange rate risk in the settlement currency — this is the very defining feature of Quanto contracts. The “risk removal” via fixed conversion mechanism is what makes them attractive.)

Q2. With reference to India’s currency derivatives segment, consider the following statements:

1. Only 4 currency pairs — USD/INR, EUR/INR, GBP/INR, and JPY/INR — are currently allowed for trading on Indian exchanges.
2. In April 2024, the RBI mandated that participants must have underlying contracted foreign currency exposure to trade currency derivatives.
3. Following the RBI mandate, ADTV in currency derivatives has fallen sharply, with BSE recording zero turnover since January 2025.
4. Currency derivatives in India are regulated solely by the RBI without SEBI involvement.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; currency derivatives are JOINTLY regulated by SEBI and RBI — SEBI regulates market infrastructure while RBI approves the products themselves. Both regulators have a role.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 3 wrong: Quanto contracts remove settlement currency FX risk.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Currency derivatives jointly regulated by SEBI + RBI.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: Very High — GS-III (Indian Economy, Financial Markets, Regulatory Framework); Prelims (SEBI, RBI, NSE, derivatives); Mains (market development, financial inclusion).
• NABARD Grade A: Very High — ESI on financial markets, RBI’s role, market infrastructure.
• State PCS: Medium — Not directly regional but relevant for economics papers.
• RBI Grade B (Phase I + II): CRITICAL — Direct subject: derivatives, currency, RBI’s regulatory role, financial markets architecture; Phase II descriptive.

Agriculture

1. India’s Fisheries Crisis

Source: The Hindu

Context

An opinion piece by Prof. Maarten Bavinck, Emeritus Professor of Coastal Resource Governance at the University of Amsterdam, published in The Hindu on 4 July 2026, has challenged the Indian government’s official claim — released 11 February 2026 — that 91.1% of 135 fish stocks assessed by the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) in 2022 are sustainable. Drawing on 30 years of fieldwork along the Tamil Nadu coast, the author argues the real crisis is the accelerating destruction of India’s inshore fishing grounds — the shallow-water benthic (seabed) ecosystem where commercially valuable species like shrimp feed, breed, and grow. The critique highlights that CMFRI’s methodology relies primarily on landing data (what fishers bring ashore) rather than at-sea stock assessments used globally. Meanwhile, the FAO’s own India Country Profile describes marine fisheries as “plateaued and fully exploited.”

The government’s official claim (11 February 2026)

• Released by the Department of Fisheries, GoI based on CMFRI data.
• 91.1% of 135 fish stocks evaluated in 2022 were classified as sustainable.
• 8.2% overfished; 0.7% rebuilding.
• Overall message: Indian marine fisheries are “largely sustainable” — India has “avoided overfishing.”
• Landing value of marine fisheries 2022: ₹58,247 crore.

What does the FAO say about India’s fisheries?

• India’s fisheries production has “reached a plateau”.
• Most major stocks are “fully exploited”.
• “Unregulated access to these fisheries resulted in significant overcapacity” — especially of medium and small trawlers.
• Small trawlers “compete over dwindling fishery resources with mostly impoverished small-scale fishers.”
• FAO recommends: “Strenuous efforts are needed at federal and state levels to upgrade the country’s capacity to manage its marine fisheries.“

What is the “real crisis” the article highlights?

• Overfishing is NOT the central issue.
• The destruction of the inshore benthic (seabed) environment is the more pressing concern.
• Numerous fisheries scientists + policymakers now describe the inshore fishing environment as “destroyed”.

What defines India’s inshore fishing zone?

• India’s continental shelf: Relatively narrow overall.
• Widest continental shelf: Gujarat + part of Maharashtra.
• Narrowest: Rest of the subcontinent.
• Territorial Sea: 12 nautical miles (22 km) from shore — largely overlaps with the continental shelf.
• Ecological importance: Best conditions for commercial species like shrimp to feed, breed, and grow.
• India’s EEZ (Exclusive Economic Zone): 200 nautical miles (371 km) — covers ~2 million sq km of ocean.

Why is the inshore zone declining?

• Dams on major rivers: Prevent land-based nutrients from entering the sea (nutrient-poor coastal waters).
• Mangrove destruction: Loss of fish breeding grounds.
• Marine pollution: Industrial, agricultural, urbanisation-driven pollution flowing into the sea.
• Mechanised trawling: Continuous seabed disturbance destroying benthic life.

How large is India’s mechanised trawler fleet?

• 64,414 mechanised fishing vessels — per the government press release.
• Growing rapidly — “practically no restrictions on new entries.”
• Existing vessels continuously fitted with more powerful Chinese engines — enabling higher catch capacity.
• Origin: Semi-industrial trawling was NOT indigenous to India — introduced from abroad around 1960.

What are the existing regulations — and why do they fail?

• Annual 2-month closure of mechanised fishing — for stock rejuvenation. ✓ Exists.
• Prohibition on mechanised boats within 5 NM of shore — meant to protect small-scale fishers. ✗ Weakly enforced.

Why does the 5 NM zone protection fail?

• Insufficient patrolling capacity: Coastal States lack staff + craft to police inshore waters.
• Fishers excluded from management: Governments have precluded fisher participation in enforcement.
• Result: Continuous degradation of the inshore ecology.

What is the Palk Bay problem?

• Palk Bay — narrow strait between India (Tamil Nadu) and Sri Lanka.
• Indian mechanised trawler fleet routinely crosses into Sri Lankan waters — “piracy” of Sri Lankan fisheries.
• Detriment: Sri Lankan small-scale fishers on the other side of the international border.
• Katchatheevu island — an uninhabited island in Palk Bay ceded to Sri Lanka in 1974 via bilateral agreement; ownership doesn’t resolve the trawling issue.
• Ongoing tensions: Sri Lankan Navy frequently detains Indian fishermen.

What does the government recommend instead?

• Deep-sea fishing — encouraged as an alternative growth area.
• Author’s counter: The FAO estimates “only a marginal increase” possible from deep-sea resources — the potential is overhyped.
• Also being tapped by other fishing nations → competition.

What does the article recommend?

• Adjust government perspective on inshore waters.
• Restore inshore fisheries governance.
• Curb, if not reduce, mechanised boat fishing.
• Address marine pollution seriously.
• CMFRI should study benthic environment health — not just catch data.
• Enable fisher participation in management — draw on their local knowledge.
• Federal + state coordinated action for capacity upgrade.

What is CMFRI?

• Full form: Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute.
• Established: 3 February 1947 (pre-Independence).
• Headquarters: Kochi (Ernakulam), Kerala.
• Parent: Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
• Role: Research on marine capture fisheries + mariculture; species diversity; stock assessments; taxonomy; bio-economic characterization.
• Regional stations: Veraval (Gujarat), Mumbai, Mandapam (TN), Vishakhapatnam, Karwar, Chennai.
• Director (2026): Dr. A. Gopalakrishnan.
• Key publication: Marine Fish Stock Status of India, 2022 (Booklet Series No. 32/2023).

What is the FAO?

• Full form: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations.
• Established: 16 October 1945 (World Food Day).
• Headquarters: Rome, Italy.
• Type: Specialized UN agency.
• Mandate: Leads international efforts to defeat hunger + achieve food security + sustainable agriculture.
• Director-General: Qu Dongyu (China; since 2019, re-elected 2023).
• India: Founding member.

What is India’s fisheries scale + significance

• World rank in fish production: 3rd largest producer (after China + Indonesia).
• World rank in aquaculture: 2nd largest producer.
• Total fish production (2023-24): ~17.5 million tonnes.
• Marine fisheries production: ~3.5-4.0 million tonnes.
• Coastline: 11,098.81 km (updated by MoES, 2023-24).
• Coastal states: 9 — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Goa.
• Coastal UTs: 4 — Puducherry, Daman & Diu, Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep.

What are the key Indian fisheries policies / initiatives?

• Blue Revolution / Neel Kranti Mission (2015-16): For sustainable fisheries development.
• Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) — launched September 2020; outlay ₹20,050 crore; 5-year scheme (2020-25); focus on aquaculture, marine fisheries, cold chains, exports.
• PM Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) Sub-Component MSY: Assistance for fishing vessels, hatcheries, harbours.
• Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF): ₹7,522.48 crore corpus (2018-19).
• Sagar Parikrama (2023-24): PM’s coastal outreach to interact with fishers across 9 coastal states + 4 UTs; launched by Parshottam Rupala.
• KCC for Fisheries: Kisan Credit Card extended to fishers.
• Marine Fisheries Regulation Acts (State laws): In each coastal state.
• National Policy on Marine Fisheries, 2017.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the CMFRI’s ‘Marine Fish Stock Status of India, 2022’ report, consider the following statements:

1. 91.1% of the 135 fish stocks evaluated were classified as sustainable.
2. 8.2% of the stocks were classified as overfished, and 0.7% as rebuilding.
3. The estimated landing value of marine fisheries in 2022 was around ₹58,247 crore.
4. The report was based on at-sea stock assessments rather than fish landing data.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; CMFRI’s methodology relies primarily on FISH LANDING DATA (species brought ashore) — NOT on direct at-sea stock assessments. This is precisely the critique raised by Prof. Maarten Bavinck.)

Q2. With reference to India’s coastal maritime zones, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Territorial Sea extends up to 12 nautical miles from the coast, where India exercises full sovereignty.
2. India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical miles (~371 km) from the coast.
3. These maritime zones are defined under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982.
4. India’s continental shelf is broadest along the Odisha coast.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India’s continental shelf is BROADEST along the GUJARAT COAST + part of Maharashtra — NOT along Odisha. The shelf is relatively narrow along the eastern coast.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Uses landing data, not at-sea stock assessments.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Shelf broadest along Gujarat, not Odisha.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-III (Economy, Agriculture, Fisheries, Environment); GS-II (Bilateral Relations – India-Sri Lanka); Prelims (institutions, maritime zones, schemes); Mains (fisheries governance, coastal ecology, Blue Economy).
• NABARD Grade A: CRITICAL — Direct subject: Fisheries, Blue Revolution, PMMSY, aquaculture; ARD paper (Phase II descriptive).

2. Participatory Guarantee System (PGS)-India

Source: Business Standard

Context

The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has revamped the certification framework for both organic and natural farming under the Participatory Guarantee System (PGS)-India — via an official order issued a few weeks ago — restricting Regional Councils (RCs) to operate within a single state only. Under the new rules, RCs — the primary local facilitation and verification agencies under India’s peer-review, government-run certification system — will no longer be permitted to take up certification work outside their allotted state area for any scope of certification. Existing RCs operating across multiple states will get a transition window (until 30 April 2027) to transfer local groups to state-based RCs. Existing MoUs signed between state authorities and RCs before 31 March 2026 will continue, but new inter-state registrations are barred. The overhaul aims to strengthen quality control, improve accountability, and enhance localised support for organic + natural farming certification. Stakeholders, however, have raised concerns that the changes may exclude state-run bodies from the accreditation framework.

What are the new rules for Regional Councils (RCs)?

• RCs restricted to operate within one state only for all scopes covered under certification.
• RCs not allowed to take up certification work outside their one allotted state.
• Any agreement made hereafter will not be considered for extension.
• RCs not allowed to change their allotted state after allocation.

What is the transition provision for existing RCs?

• RCs currently operating across multiple states get a transition window.
• They may continue certification activities for existing local groups outside their assigned states.
• But cannot register any NEW groups beyond their designated area of operation.
• Transition based on MoUs / agreements signed between state authorities and RCs BEFORE 31 March 2026.
• First-phase implementation deadline: Transfer of local groups to state-based RCs to be completed by 30 April 2027.
• All concerned agencies directed to plan the transition to minimise disruption.

What is PGS-India?

• Full form: Participatory Guarantee System-India.
• Launched: 7 April 2011.
• Under: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (initially under the National Project on Organic Farming).
• Type: Decentralised, peer-review, trust-based organic certification system.
• Designed for: Small and marginal farmers — as a low-cost alternative to third-party certification.
• Core idea: Farmers verify + certify each other’s produce through group inspections and peer review.
• Nationwide network: ~563 Regional Councils (pre-revamp) across India.
• Total area certified under PGS-India Organic: ~12.88 lakh hectares.

What are the two types of PGS certificates?

• PGS-Green: Given during the in-conversion (transition) period — cannot be labelled organic; uses “Under Conversion to Organic” label.
• PGS-Organic: Full organic certificate given after conversion period is completed and organic status is achieved.

What are the modes of registration under PGS-India?

• Local Group Registration: Minimum 5 farmers; main mode.
• Individual Producer Registration: Interim (1-2 years); must join a Local Group by year 2.
• Large Area Certification (LAC): Entire villages/taluks/districts declared traditional/default organic (introduced in 2020).

What is Large Area Certification (LAC)?

• Certification of large contiguous traditional/default organic areas — no chemical fertilisers/pesticides/GM crops.
• Requirements:
  • Oath by all farmers in the village that they do not use agrochemicals or GM crops.
  • Gram Sabha Resolution that the village does not use agrochemicals.
  • Department of Agriculture certifies no shops sell pesticides/fertilisers in the village.
  • Verification team constituted by NCONF + State Agriculture Department + PGS RC.
• No transition period required — certificate issued in 6 months.
• Introduced by MoAFW in 2020.

What is NPOP — the other Indian organic certification?

• Full form: National Programme for Organic Production.
• Established: 2001.
• Managed by: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA).
• Under: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Uses: Third-party certification by accredited agencies.
• Focus: Organic exports — strict international compliance.
• Standards: Based on National Standards for Organic Production (NSOP).
• Logo: Both PGS-India and NPOP-certified products carry the common Jaivik Bharat logo.

How does PGS-India differ from NPOP?

• PGS-India: Peer review; low-cost; domestic market; small farmers; under Ministry of Agriculture.
• NPOP: Third-party certification; higher cost; export market; under Ministry of Commerce (APEDA).
• Common: Both draw from NSOP; both carry the Jaivik Bharat logo.
• Cross-recognition: PGS-certified farmers can transition to NPOP without a conversion period.

What is NCONF?

• Full form: National Centre for Organic and Natural Farming.
• Formerly known as National Centre of Organic Farming (NCOF) — renamed in 2024 to include natural farming.
• Established: 2004 as NCOF.
• Headquarters: Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh.
• Under: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
• Role: Nodal agency for organic + natural farming policy + PGS certification secretariat + data custodian for PGS.
• Regional Centres: 6 across India — Bengaluru, Bhubaneswar, Hisar, Imphal, Jabalpur, Nagpur.

What are the related schemes?

• Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) — launched 2015; provides financial assistance for PGS certification; ₹50,000/ha over 3 years.
• Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER) — launched 2015; focus on NE states.
• National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) — approved November 2024 under Krishi Kalyan Yojana; outlay ₹2,481 crore (₹1,584 cr Centre + ₹897 cr States).
• Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati (BPKP) — 2020; sub-mission under PKVY for natural farming.

What is the difference between organic and natural farming?

• Organic farming:
  • Uses certified organic inputs — bio-fertilisers, bio-pesticides, compost, vermicompost, green manure.
  • Prohibits synthetic chemicals, GMOs.
  • Certified under PGS-India or NPOP.
• Natural farming (e.g., Zero Budget Natural Farming – ZBNF):
  • Uses only on-farm resources — cow dung, cow urine, jaggery, indigenous seeds.
  • Focus on soil microbiome + biodiversity.
  • Aims for zero external input costs.
  • Championed by Andhra Pradesh Community-Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) — largest natural farming programme in the world (~10 lakh farmers).
  • Subhash Palekar popularised ZBNF in India.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the recent revamp of the PGS certification framework (2026), consider the following statements:

1. Regional Councils (RCs) have been restricted to operate within a single state for both organic and natural farming certification.
2. RCs are now allowed to take up certification work outside their allotted state area.
3. The transfer of local groups to state-based RCs is expected to be completed by 30 April 2027.
4. The revamp is aimed at strengthening quality control, improving accountability, and enhancing localised support.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 2 is wrong; RCs are NOT allowed to take up certification work outside their allotted state area under the new framework — this is precisely the key restriction of the revamp.)

Q2. With reference to the Participatory Guarantee System (PGS)-India, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched on 7 April 2011 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
2. It is a peer-review, trust-based decentralised organic certification system.
3. It is designed for small and marginal farmers as a low-cost alternative to third-party certification.
4. It is primarily used for exports of organic products.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PGS-India is designed for the DOMESTIC market and small farmers — NOT for exports. Organic exports use the NPOP (National Programme for Organic Production) certification managed by APEDA.)

Q3. With reference to the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP), consider the following statements:

1. It is managed by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA).
2. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. It requires third-party certification by accredited agencies.
4. It is the same as PGS-India, using the same peer-review approach.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; NPOP uses THIRD-PARTY certification by accredited agencies for export markets — while PGS-India uses peer-review certification for domestic markets. Both draw from NSOP but are DIFFERENT systems.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about the structural components of PGS-India:

1. Local Groups are the main functional unit and require a minimum of 5 farmers.
2. Regional Councils (RCs) serve as local facilitation and verification agencies.
3. The PGS Secretariat is housed at the National Centre for Organic and Natural Farming (NCONF), Ghaziabad.
4. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), Chennai serves as the apex regulatory body.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is NOT part of PGS-India’s structure — NBA deals with biodiversity access + benefit sharing. The apex bodies for PGS-India are the National Advisory Committee, National Executive Committee, and PGS Secretariat (NCONF).)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 2 wrong: RCs cannot work outside allotted state.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: PGS is for domestic market, not exports.
3. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: NPOP is third-party, not peer-review.
4. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: NBA is not part of PGS-India.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: Very High — GS-III (Agriculture, Government Schemes, Food Security); Prelims (institutions, schemes, certifications); Mains (organic + natural farming as sustainable agri).
• NABARD Grade A: CRITICAL — Direct subject: PGS, NPOP, PKVY, organic farming, APEDA; ARD paper (Phase II descriptive).
• State PCS (Sikkim, MP, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, MH, Kerala, all NE states): CRITICAL — Regional relevance for organic/natural farming.

3. Assam’s Chota Tingrai Tea Estate Becomes India’s First to Commercially Produce Matcha Tea

Source: The Hindu

Context

In a milestone for India’s tea industry, Assam’s Chota Tingrai Tea Estate in Tinsukia district on Friday, 3 July 2026 became the first tea estate in India to commercially produce Matcha tea — the premium Japanese-style powdered green tea. The maiden 5-kg batch was sold at the Guwahati Tea Auction Centre (GTAC) at Sale No. 27, Lot No. 7001 for ₹3,000/kg, auctioned through J Thomas & Co Pvt Ltd to Sheosons Chai Co. (Guwahati). The achievement follows nearly a decade of collaboration with Japanese tea manufacturers, agronomists, equipment suppliers, and tea experts, culminating in a fully automated Japanese-style tea manufacturing facility on the estate. Matcha — made from shade-grown Camellia sinensis leaves — is traditionally produced only in Japan, China, and Vietnam and is currently in global shortage due to soaring demand. Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma hailed it as a milestone for India-Japan ties + Brand Assam Tea. Chota Tingrai Director Mrityunjay Jalan called it “the result of a dedicated partnership with our Japanese counterparts.” The move signals Assam’s shift beyond traditional CTC + Orthodox teas into premium-value wellness products.

What is Matcha?

• Origin word: Japanese — “Matcha” = “Powdered tea“.
• Definition: A premium, vibrant green, finely ground powder made from specially processed, shade-grown leaves of Camellia sinensis (the tea plant).
• Key differentiation from regular green tea:
  • Regular green tea: Leaves are steeped in water, then discarded.
  • Matcha: Powder is whisked directly into hot water and consumed entirely — providing a highly concentrated dose of nutrients, antioxidants, and caffeine.
• Colour: Vibrant, jade green (due to chlorophyll).
• Taste: Umami (savoury), with sweet/vegetal notes.

What is the origin of Matcha?

• Song Dynasty (China, 960-1279 CE): Practice of grinding dried tea leaves into fine powder + whisking with hot water originated.
• 1191 CE (Japan): Zen Buddhist monk Eisai brought powdered tea seeds + techniques from China to Japan — the practice was preserved, refined, and woven into Japanese culture.
• Muromachi period (Japan, 14th–16th century): Japanese tea farmers invented specialized shading techniques to cultivate Tencha — the specific processed leaves required to grind authentic matcha.
• Sen no Rikyū (16th century): Codified the Japanese Tea Ceremony (Chanoyu/Sado) — Matcha at its heart.
• Zen Buddhism connection: Matcha became deeply associated with Zen practice.

How is Matcha produced? (The 4-Step Process)

• 1. Agricultural Shading:
  • Tea plants are shaded for 3–4 weeks before harvest.
  • ~90% of sunlight is blocked.
  • Effect: Boosts chlorophyll production → vibrant green colour.
• 2. L-Theanine Enrichment:
  • Reduced sunlight prevents L-theanine (an amino acid) from converting into bitter compounds (catechins).
  • Effect: Signature umami taste + calm, sustained energy.
• 3. Tencha Processing:
  • Fresh leaves are steamed (to stop oxidation), de-stemmed, de-veined, and dried.
  • The processed leaves are called Tencha — the base material for matcha.
• 4. Stone-Ground Milling:
  • Tencha leaves are slowly ground using granite stone mills or automated Japanese mills into a fine, vibrant green powder.
  • Preserves flavour + nutrients.
  • Traditional method: ~30g of matcha powder per hour from a stone mill — hence Matcha’s high cost.

Where is Matcha traditionally produced?

• Primary producers globally: Japan (dominant), China, Vietnam.
• Japan’s Uji region (Kyoto Prefecture): Historical + premium Matcha origin.
• Other Japanese matcha regions: Nishio (Aichi), Kagoshima, Shizuoka.
• 2024-25 context: Global Matcha shortage due to soaring demand (café culture + wellness trend + Instagram + TikTok “Matcha latte” virality).

What is Camellia sinensis?

• Scientific name of the tea plant.
• Family: Theaceae.
• Native to: East Asia (China, Myanmar, India).
• Two main varieties:
  • Camellia sinensis sinensis: Chinese variety; smaller leaves; more suited to cooler climates; used for delicate teas like green + white teas.
  • Camellia sinensis assamica: Assam variety; larger leaves; suited to warm humid climates; used for robust black teas.
• All teas (black, green, white, oolong, pu-erh, matcha) come from the same plant — differences lie in processing methods.
• Assam variety was discovered by Robert Bruce in 1823 in Upper Assam.

About the Guwahati Tea Auction Centre (GTAC)

• Established: 25 September 1970.
• Location: Guwahati, Assam.
• Type: Statutory tea auction centre.
• Managed by: Tea Board of India in association with the Guwahati Tea Auction Buyers’ Association.
• Rank: Among the world’s largest tea auction centres.
• Handles: ~50% of Assam’s tea auction volume.
• Rank in India: 2nd largest tea auction centre after Kolkata Tea Auction Centre (KTAC, 1861).
• Other Indian centres: Kolkata (1861), Cochin (1948), Coimbatore (1963), Coonoor (1963), Siliguri, Amritsar.

What is Assam’s role in India’s tea industry?

• Assam is India’s largest tea-producing state.
• Accounts for ~50% of India’s total tea production.

India’s global tea position

• Rank in production: 2nd largest (after China).
• Rank in export: 3rd — after Kenya (1st) + China (2nd).
• Rank in consumption: 1st (India consumes ~80% of what it produces).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the launch of India’s first commercially produced Matcha tea, consider the following statements:

1. Chota Tingrai Tea Estate in Tinsukia district, Assam, is the first tea estate in India to commercially produce Matcha.
2. The maiden batch was sold at the Guwahati Tea Auction Centre on 3 July 2026 for ₹3,000/kg.
3. The estate developed the Matcha through nearly a decade of collaboration with Japanese experts.
4. Matcha production in Chota Tingrai is done using a traditional manual stone-milling process only.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Chota Tingrai has established a FULLY AUTOMATED Japanese-style tea manufacturing facility for matcha — NOT a traditional manual-only process. Automation was key to enabling commercial scale.)

Q2. With reference to Matcha tea, consider the following statements:

1. It is made from shade-grown leaves of the Camellia sinensis plant.
2. The practice of grinding dried tea leaves originated in China during the Song Dynasty (960-1279 CE).
3. Zen Buddhist monk Eisai brought Matcha techniques from China to Japan around 1191 CE.
4. Matcha is primarily produced in the United States and Europe.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Matcha is primarily produced in JAPAN, CHINA, and VIETNAM — NOT in the US or Europe. Japan (especially the Uji region in Kyoto) dominates the premium Matcha market.)

Q3. With reference to the Matcha production process, consider the following statements:

1. Tea plants are shaded for 3-4 weeks before harvest to block nearly 90% of sunlight, boosting chlorophyll.
2. Reduced sunlight prevents L-Theanine from converting into bitter compounds, giving matcha its umami taste.
3. The processed leaves used to make matcha are called Tencha.
4. Matcha production entirely avoids the oxidation step used in black tea manufacturing.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(All four statements are correct.)

Q4. With reference to India’s tea industry, consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s second-largest tea producer after China.
2. Assam is India’s largest tea-producing state, accounting for around 50% of national output.
3. The Guwahati Tea Auction Centre was established in 1970 and is India’s second-largest tea auction centre after Kolkata.
4. Darjeeling tea was the first Indian product to receive a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(All four statements are correct.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Fully automated facility, not traditional manual only.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Matcha produced in Japan/China/Vietnam, not US/Europe.
3. (d) — All correct.
4. (d) — All correct.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: Very High — GS-III (Agriculture, Food Processing, Value Addition); GS-I (History-related Japan/China Buddhist links); GS-II (India-Japan Ties); Prelims (plant species, GI tags, auction centres).
• NABARD Grade A: CRITICAL — Direct subject: agri value chain, farm income diversification, Assam tea sector; ARD paper (Phase II descriptive).
• State PCS (Assam, WB, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, HP): CRITICAL — Tea-producing states; direct regional relevance.
• RBI Grade B (Phase I + II): Medium-High — ESI on export diversification, wellness economy.

Facts To Remember

1. PM Modi Dedicates India’s First Greenfield Integrated Refinery-Cum-Petrochemical Complex

Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated India’s first greenfield integrated refinery-cum-petrochemical complex at Balotra, Rajasthan. He also inaugurated the new terminal building of Jodhpur Airport. Development projects worth around ₹1.06 lakh crore were launched across multiple sectors.

2. Jal Shakti Ministry Launches 7th National Water Awards

The Ministry of Jal Shakti launched the 7th National Water Awards on the Rashtriya Puraskar Portal. The awards recognize excellence in water conservation and management. They encourage sustainable water practices across India.

3. India Unveils First Indigenous Export-Import Shipping Container

Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal unveiled India’s first export-import shipping container manufactured for global shipping company Maersk. The container was produced in Dadri, Uttar Pradesh. The initiative strengthens India’s manufacturing and maritime logistics capabilities.

4. Third Batch of DAKSH Leadership Programme Launched

Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh inaugurated the third batch of the DAKSH leadership programme. The programme promotes a Whole-of-Government approach through institutional collaboration. It aims to strengthen leadership and governance in public administration.

5. Government Releases ₹25,863 Crore under VB-G RAM G Scheme

The Government released the first installment of ₹25,863 crore under the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin). Uttar Pradesh received the highest allocation followed by Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. The scheme replaced MGNREGA from 1 July 2026.

6. Egypt Inaugurates World’s Largest Defence Headquarters

Egypt inaugurated the State Strategic Command Headquarters, popularly known as the “Octagon.” Spread over about 22,000 acres, it has become the world’s largest defence headquarters. The facility serves as the central command of the Egyptian Armed Forces.

7. NITI Aayog Releases Global Ayurveda Roadmap

NITI Aayog released the report “Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global.” The roadmap aims to establish Ayurveda as a globally recognized evidence-based healthcare system by 2047. It focuses on research, regulation, education, exports, and international collaboration.

8. Army Chief Launches ‘VIJAY’ Transformation Roadmap

Chief of Army Staff General Dhiraj Seth unveiled the VIJAY transformation roadmap. The framework emphasizes Vigilance, Innovation, Jointness, Aatmanirbharta, and Yodha First. It aims to build a future-ready, technology-driven Indian Army.

9. Air India Signs MoU with SIA Engineering Company

Air India signed an MoU with Singapore’s SIA Engineering Company to strengthen India’s MRO ecosystem. The partnership will explore joint ventures and technical collaboration. It supports India’s ambition to become a global aviation MRO hub.

10. Japan PM Sanae Takaichi Visits India

Japanese Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi visited India from 1–3 July 2026 for the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit. Both countries announced 16 key outcomes and signed 129 MoUs worth ₹1 lakh crore. Cooperation expanded in AI, semiconductors, clean energy, and defence.

11. India Ranks 94th in Sustainable Development Report 2026

India secured its highest-ever rank of 94th in the Sustainable Development Report 2026. Finland topped the global rankings followed by Sweden and Denmark. India improved significantly in digital connectivity and electricity access.

12. Three Indian Business Leaders Join ITU AI Global Commission

Mukesh Ambani, Sunil Bharti Mittal, and Lakshmi Mittal became founding members of the ITU AI for Good Global Commission. The commission promotes responsible AI governance and digital inclusion. It comprises 44 global leaders from business and policy.

13. ADB Approves USD 230 Million Loan for Chennai

The Asian Development Bank approved a USD 230 million loan for Chennai’s water and sanitation modernization. The project includes new pipelines, pumping stations, and a ring-main water distribution system. Chennai will become the first Indian city to implement this model.

14. Paytm Europe Receives Luxembourg Payment Licence

Paytm Europe secured a Payment Institution licence from Luxembourg’s financial regulator. The approval allows it to offer regulated payment services across the European Economic Area. It marks Paytm’s expansion into European financial services.

15. RBI Imposes Penalty on BoB and GIC Housing Finance

The Reserve Bank of India imposed a combined penalty of ₹66.7 lakh on Bank of Baroda and GIC Housing Finance. The action was taken for violations related to KYC norms and lending guidelines. RBI emphasized compliance with regulatory standards.

16. Nita Ambani Receives AAPI Humanitarian Award

Nita Ambani received the AAPI Humanitarian Award and the Key to the City of Tampa. The honours recognize her contributions to healthcare, education, sports, and social development. The awards were presented during the AAPI Convention in Florida.

17. Keiko Fujimori Wins Peru Presidential Election

Keiko Fujimori won Peru’s 2026 presidential election after a closely contested runoff. She will assume office on 28 July 2026. She becomes Peru’s President after leading the Popular Force Party for over a decade.

18. Rear Admiral C. Raghuram Becomes CMD of HSL

Rear Admiral (Retd.) C. Raghuram assumed charge as Chairman and Managing Director of Hindustan Shipyard Limited. He brings over 35 years of naval engineering experience. He succeeds Captain Ganti Venkateswarlu.

19. Agnikul Cosmos Partners with ICEYE

Agnikul Cosmos partnered with Finland-based ICEYE to develop India’s SAR satellite ecosystem. The collaboration includes satellite manufacturing and indigenous launch services. SAR satellites support defence, disaster management, and environmental monitoring.

20. CMFRI Discovers New Deep-Sea Fish Species

Scientists at ICAR-CMFRI discovered a new deep-sea fish species named Cyttopsis indica in the Arabian Sea. The species was identified using DNA analysis. The discovery enriches India’s marine biodiversity records.

21. International Day of Cooperatives Observed on July 4

The International Day of Cooperatives was observed on 4 July 2026. The 2026 theme was “Cooperatives for a Peaceful World.” The day promotes the role of cooperatives in sustainable development and inclusive growth.

22. Odisha Signs USD 11.5 Billion Aluminium Project

Adani Enterprises and International Resources Holding signed an MoU with the Odisha Government for a USD 11.5 billion aluminium project. The integrated project includes mining, refining, smelting, and downstream manufacturing. It is expected to become India’s largest FDI in the metallurgy sector.

Daily Current Affairs Quiz
07 July , 2026

National Affairs

1. Underwater Fiber Optic Sensing System (UFOSS)

Source: New Indian Express

Context

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has launched a major naval project — “Deep Ocean Watch” — to deploy an indigenous Underwater Fiber Optic Sensing System (UFOSS) on the Indian Ocean seabed to detect submarines and counter rising Chinese and Pakistani underwater activity. Led by the Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL), Kochi (Kerala) — a DRDO lab — the project involves a fixed, non-collapsible network of undersea acoustic + hydrographic sensors anchored to the ocean floor, connected via armoured fiber-optic cables to shore-based monitoring stations. DRDO issued the Expression of Interest (EoI) on 20 June 2026, with a submission deadline of 1 September 2026 and a 48-month execution target from final contract award. UFOSS features a 20-year operational lifespan, deep seabed burial using specialised cable-laying ploughs + Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs), and a consortium-led integration model where a Lead System Integrator can partner with up to 5 specialised engineering firms.

What is UFOSS?

• A fixed, non-collapsible network of advanced undersea acoustic + hydrographic sensors anchored to the ocean floor.
• Serves as India’s strategic underwater surveillance grid.
• Provides continuous, long-term tracking of the undersea battlespace across contested maritime choke points.
• India’s answer to the US IUSS (Integrated Undersea Surveillance System) — successor to Cold War-era SOSUS (Sound Surveillance System).

What is Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP)?

• Technology allowing conventional (non-nuclear) submarines to stay submerged for extended periods without surfacing for oxygen.
• Types: Fuel cell (German Type 214), Stirling engine, MESMA (French).
• Enables 2-3 weeks submerged operations — a massive stealth advantage.
• Makes conventional submarines nearly as stealthy as nuclear submarines for short missions.
• India’s Project 75(I) also focuses on AIP submarines (6 planned).

About DRDO

• Full form: Defence Research and Development Organisation.
• Established: 1958 (merging Technical Development Establishment + Directorate of Technical Development & Production).
• HQ: DRDO Bhawan, New Delhi.
• Under: Department of Defence Research and Development (DDR&D), Ministry of Defence.
• Chairman + Secretary DDR&D: Dr. Samir V. Kamat (since 2022).
• Laboratories: ~50+ labs across India.
• Vision: Make India self-reliant in defence technology.

India’s Indian Ocean Region (IOR) doctrines

• SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region) — March 2015 (Mauritius).
• MAHASAGAR (Mutual And Holistic Advancement for Security And Growth Across Regions) — March 2025 (Mauritius).
• Indo-Pacific Oceans’ Initiative (IPOI) — November 2019 (East Asia Summit, Bangkok).
• Quad Maritime Security Initiative — with US, Japan, Australia.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Underwater Fiber Optic Sensing System (UFOSS), consider the following statements:

1. It is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under the “Deep Ocean Watch” project.
2. The Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) in Kochi is leading the project.
3. It is a fixed, non-collapsible network of undersea acoustic and hydrographic sensors anchored to the ocean floor.
4. It has an operational lifespan of only 5 years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; UFOSS is engineered for a continuous 20-year service life — NOT 5 years. This long lifespan is critical for strategic surveillance infrastructure.)

Q2. With reference to the strategic rationale for UFOSS, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to detect Pakistan’s Chinese-built Hangor-class submarines equipped with Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP).
2. It targets Chinese nuclear attack submarines (SSNs) operating in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
3. It provides continuous 24/7 monitoring — filling gaps left by periodic ship and aircraft patrols.
4. It is designed only for detection in coastal Indian waters within the 12 nautical mile territorial sea.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; UFOSS is designed for deployment across strategic zones of the wider Indian Ocean Region — including the Ninety East Ridge, Bay of Bengal, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands region — NOT limited to India’s 12 NM territorial sea.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: 20-year lifespan, not 5-year.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Wider IOR coverage, not just territorial sea.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-II (India-China, India-Pakistan bilateral); GS-III (Defence Technology, Internal Security, Indo-Pacific); Prelims (institutions, submarine classes, technologies); Mains-Essay on maritime security.

2. United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection (UNGCP)

Source: DD News

Context

India has been appointed to chair the Ninth Session of the Intergovernmental Group of Experts (IGE) on Consumer Protection Law and Policy — organised by the United Nations Trade and Development (UNCTAD) — from 6 to 8 July 2026 at the Palais des Nations, Geneva, Switzerland. India will be represented by Nidhi Khare, Secretary, Department of Consumer Affairs, invited by UNCTAD to preside over deliberations. The IGE, constituted under the United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection (UNGCP) — first adopted in 1985 — is the principal intergovernmental platform for global cooperation on consumer protection law. A major highlight of this session will be the formal launch of the UN Principles for Consumer Product Safety, adopted by the UN General Assembly in December 2025.

What is the UNGCP?

• Full form: United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection.
• Nature: A comprehensive, internationally agreed set of declarations.
• Coverage: Core characteristics of effective consumer protection legislation, institutional enforcement, and dispute redress systems.
• Legal status: Non-binding soft law instrument — but acts as the primary global blueprint for member states to formulate and harmonise domestic consumer safety laws.

When was the UNGCP adopted?

• First adopted: UN General Assembly Resolution 39/248 on 16 April 1985 — following a long campaign by global consumer associations.
• Expanded in 1999: Integrated sustainable development principles.
• Heavily revised in December 2015: To address modern digital landscapes + e-commerce.

Key features of the UNGCP

• Physical Safety & Product Recalls: Requires governments to enforce product safety standards + ensure prompt recall of defective products + compensation for consumers.
• Protection of Economic Interests: Safeguards against unfair contracts, misleading advertisements, fraudulent services, predatory lending, and food adulteration.
• Information & Consumer Education: Promotes clear hazard labels, internationally recognised safety symbols, and consumer awareness programmes.
• Digital & E-Commerce Provisions (2015): Extended coverage to online markets — promotes data privacy, online dispute resolution, secure digital transactions, and cross-border e-commerce safeguards.
• Sustainable Consumption: Encourages energy-efficient, environmentally friendly goods + responsible consumption for sustainable development.

What is UNCTAD?

• Full form: United Nations Trade and Development (formerly United Nations Conference on Trade and Development — renamed in 2024).
• Established: 1964 (as a permanent intergovernmental body).
• HQ: Geneva, Switzerland.
• Members: 195 states.
• Secretary-General (2026): Rebeca Grynspan (Costa Rica; since 2021).
• Focus: Trade + investment + development issues for developing countries.
• Flagship reports: Trade and Development Report, World Investment Report.
• Also produces: Consumer Protection Toolkit for member states.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to India’s chairing of the 9th UNCTAD IGE Session on Consumer Protection (July 2026), consider the following statements:

1. India will chair the session held at the Palais des Nations, Geneva, Switzerland from 6-8 July 2026.
2. India will be represented by Nidhi Khare, Secretary, Department of Consumer Affairs.
3. A major highlight will be the launch of the UN Principles for Consumer Product Safety (adopted by UNGA in December 2025).
4. The IGE is constituted under the WTO framework.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the IGE is constituted under the UNGCP (United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection) — NOT under the WTO framework. It operates under UNCTAD, not WTO.)

Q2. With reference to the United Nations Guidelines for Consumer Protection (UNGCP), consider the following statements:

1. They were first adopted by the UN General Assembly through Resolution 39/248 on 16 April 1985.
2. They were significantly expanded in 1999 to integrate sustainable development principles.
3. They were heavily revised in December 2015 to address modern digital landscapes and e-commerce.
4. They are a legally binding treaty ratified by all UN Member States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; UNGCP is a NON-BINDING SOFT LAW instrument — NOT a legally binding treaty. It acts as a global blueprint but member states are not compelled to ratify or enforce it.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: IGE under UNGCP, not WTO.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: UNGCP is soft law, not binding treaty.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-II (International Organisations, UN Bodies, India’s Foreign Policy); GS-III (Consumer Protection, E-commerce, Trade); Prelims (UNGCP, UNCTAD, IGE, Consumer Protection Act); Mains-Essay on Digital Consumer Rights.
• NABARD Grade A: High — General awareness on consumer + rural markets.
• State PCS: Very High — State consumer redressal mechanisms.

3. ICMR-MINDS Wins Gold at National Awards for e-Governance 2026

Source: PIB

Context

The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)’s flagship National Health Research Priority project, ICMR-MINDS — an AI-enabled digital mental healthcare platform — has been conferred the Gold Award under Category 2 (Innovation by Use of AI and Other New Age Technologies for Providing Citizen-Centric Services) at the National Awards for e-Governance 2026. The awards are instituted by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions. The award was presented by Dr Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, at the 29th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) 2026 held in Jaipur, Rajasthan on 1–2 July 2026 — in the presence of Col. Rajyavardhan Rathore (Rajasthan Minister for IT & Communication), V. Srinivas (Chief Secretary, Rajasthan), and Nivedita Shukla Verma (Secretary, DARPG). ICMR-MINDS is an implementation research study integrating screening and management of mental + substance use disorders with other Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs).

The award at a glance

• Award: Gold Award.
• Category: Category 2 — Innovation by Use of AI and Other New Age Technologies for Providing Citizen-Centric Services.
• Awards series: National Awards for e-Governance 2026.
• Instituting body: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
• Under: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
• Recipient: ICMR-MINDS — flagship digital mental healthcare initiative of ICMR.
• Ceremony date: 1–2 July 2026.
• Venue: 29th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) 2026, Jaipur, Rajasthan.
• PIB announcement date: 5 July 2026, 12:43 PM.

What is ICMR-MINDS?

• A National Health Research Priority project of ICMR.
• An implementation research study on the integration of screening and management of mental + substance use disorders with other Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs).
• Core platform: AI-enabled Clinical Decision Support System (CDSS).
• Enables task-shifting — standardised mental health screening, assessment, follow-up, and routine management — from specialists to trained non-specialist frontline healthcare providers.
• Backed by evidence-based digital decision support.

About National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG)

• Instituted: 2003.
• By: DARPG.
• Presented at: Annual National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG).
• Purpose: Recognise + reward outstanding e-Governance initiatives across governments, PSUs, academia, industry.
• Categories: Multiple — Digital Transformation, AI/Emerging Technologies, Grassroots Innovation, Public-Private Partnership, Government Startups.
• Award levels: Gold, Silver, and Merit/Jury Awards.

About ICMR

• Full form: Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Established: 1911 (as Indian Research Fund Association – IRFA); renamed ICMR in 1949.
• HQ: New Delhi.
• Under: Department of Health Research (DHR), Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
• Director General: Dr Rajiv Bahl (also Secretary DHR); since October 2023.
• Institutes: ~30 permanent research institutes/centres.
• Complementary AI initiative: Medical Innovations Patent Mitra (also recently in news).

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to ICMR-MINDS winning the Gold Award at National Awards for e-Governance 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It won under Category 2 — Innovation by Use of AI and Other New Age Technologies for Providing Citizen-Centric Services.
2. The award was presented at the 29th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) 2026 held in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
3. The award was presented by Dr Jitendra Singh, Union MoS for Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
4. The award is instituted by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the National Awards for e-Governance are instituted by DARPG (Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions — NOT by MeitY.)

Q2. With reference to ICMR-MINDS, consider the following statements:

1. It is a National Health Research Priority project of the Indian Council of Medical Research.
2. It integrates screening and management of mental + substance use disorders with other Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs).
3. Its core is a Clinical Decision Support System (CDSS) that enables task-shifting to non-specialist frontline healthcare providers.
4. It is currently implemented across all 28 states of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; ICMR-MINDS is currently implemented in 7 STATES (Assam, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, MP, Odisha, Punjab) through 7 collaborating institutions — NOT across all 28 states.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: NAeG by DARPG, not MeitY.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: 7 states, not all 28.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-II (Government Policies, Health, e-Governance); GS-III (S&T, AI, Digital Health); Prelims (institutions, awards, key persons); Mains-Essay on Digital Health.
• NABARD Grade A: Very High — Rural health delivery + task-shifting model.

Banking/Finance

1. RBI Tightens Bank Lending to Capital Markets

Context

RBI has made bank lending to the stock market safer by limiting exposure, increasing collateral requirements and restricting speculative funding.

Why in News?

• Effective from 1 July 2026 (originally 1 April 2026, deferred)
• First notified: 13 February 2026
• Issued under: Banking Regulation Act, 1949
• New Chapter XIII A inserted in RBI Directions
• Trading volumes fell in MCX, NSE and BSE
• Objective: Reduce systemic risk to banks

Before Understanding the News

Term	Meaning
Capital Market	Market for shares, bonds, REITs, InvITs
CMI	Brokers, Clearing Members, Custodians, Market Makers
Proprietary Trading	Broker/bank trading using its own money
Tier-I Capital	Core capital of a bank (equity + reserves)
LTV	Loan ÷ Asset Value
Bank Guarantee	Bank’s written promise to pay if borrower defaults

What Has RBI Changed?

Change	New Rule	Why?
Capital Market Exposure	Max 40% of Tier-I Capital	Limits bank risk
Direct Exposure	Max 20% of Tier-I Capital	Avoid concentration
Loans to CMIs	100% collateral compulsory	Protect banks
Proprietary Trading	Bank finance BANNED	Prevent speculation
Loan Against Shares (LTV)	60%	Reduce lending risk
LTV on MF/ETF/REIT/InvIT	75%	Moderate risk assets
LTV on Debt MFs	85%	Safer instruments
Bank Guarantees	Min 50% collateral (25% cash)	Lower default risk
Equity Share Haircut	40%	Cushion for price fall
Acquisition Finance	Up to 75% of deal value	Support genuine M&A
IPO Minimum Margin	25%	Curb speculation

Why Did Trading Volumes Fall?

New RBI Rules
      ↓
Higher Collateral Needed
      ↓
Borrowing Cost Increased
      ↓
Less Trading by Brokers
      ↓
MCX ↓40% | BSE ↓7-10% | NSE Prop share 52%→51.3%

Exam Focus — Remember these Numbers

Number	Remember
40%	Total CME cap
20%	Direct CME cap
100%	CMI Collateral
60%	LTV on Listed Shares
75%	LTV on MF/ETF/REIT + Acquisition Finance
85%	LTV on Debt MFs
50%	BG Collateral (25% cash)
40%	Equity Share Haircut
25%	IPO Minimum Margin
₹1 Cr	LAS Limit per individual
₹25 Lakh	IPO/Secondary Market Loan cap

Prelims Pointer

Loan-to-Value (LTV): If shares worth ₹100 are pledged and the LTV is 60%, the maximum loan is ₹60.

Key Concepts

• Proprietary Trading: Institution trading with its own funds (not client money) to earn profit. Now banned via bank credit. Exception → market-making allowed.
• Capital Market Intermediary (CMI): SEBI-regulated entities offering trade execution / market infrastructure.
  • Included: Brokers, Clearing Members, Custodians, Market Makers
  • Excluded: Standalone Primary Dealers (SPDs), Qualified Central Counterparties (QCCPs)
• Tier-I Capital: Best-quality bank capital = Equity + Disclosed Reserves. Basel III minimum = 6% of RWA.
• Bank Guarantee (BG): Bank’s written promise to pay beneficiary if applicant defaults. Widely used in stock/commodity trading for margins.
• Loan-to-Value (LTV): Loan Amount ÷ Asset Value. Higher LTV = Higher risk for lender.
• Haircut: Discount applied to collateral value. 40% haircut on equity → ₹100 share counted as only ₹60.
• Acquisition Finance (expanded): Now covers mergers + amalgamations; only for control of non-financial target.

Static GK

RBI

• Established: 1 April 1935 (under RBI Act, 1934)
• Nationalised: 1 January 1949
• HQ: Mumbai
• Governor: Sanjay Malhotra (26th Governor, since Dec 2024)
• Deputy Governors (4): M. Rajeshwar Rao, T. Rabi Sankar, M.D. Patra, Poonam Gupta

MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange of India Ltd.)

• Established: 2003
• HQ: Mumbai
• Status: India’s largest commodity derivatives exchange
• MD & CEO: Praveena Rai
• Clearing arm: MCX-CCL
• Regulator: SEBI (since 2015, after FMC merger)
• Key products: Gold, Silver, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Copper, Zinc, Aluminium

Basel III

• Global banking regulation framework
• Tier-I minimum: 6% of RWA
• Total Capital minimum: 8% of RWA

Want me to make the same style notes for another topic, or a quick MCQ practice set on this?

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the RBI’s Amendment Directions on Capital Market Exposures, 2026, consider the following statements:

1. They were first notified on 13 February 2026 and came into force on 1 July 2026.
2. The original effective date was 1 April 2026, but was deferred to 1 July 2026 after industry feedback.
3. They insert a new Chapter XIII A titled “Credit Facilities to Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs)”.
4. They are issued under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the directions are issued under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 — NOT the IRDAI Act, 1999. IRDAI regulates insurance, not banks.)

Q2. With reference to the new Capital Market Exposure (CME) framework, consider the following statements:

1. A bank’s total Capital Market Exposure is capped at 40% of its Tier 1 capital.
2. Direct exposure (including acquisition finance) is capped at 20% of Tier 1 capital.
3. All credit facilities to CMIs must be provided on a fully secured (100% collateralised) basis.
4. Banks may finance proprietary trading by brokers up to a limit of ₹10 crore.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the norms EXPLICITLY BAN bank finance for proprietary trading by brokers — with a limited exception only for market-making activities. There is no ₹10 crore limit — proprietary trading with bank credit is prohibited.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Under Banking Regulation Act 1949, not IRDAI Act.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Proprietary trading is banned, not permitted with cap.

Exam Relevance

• RBI Grade B (Phase I + II): CRITICAL — Direct subject: RBI notifications, capital market exposure, banking regulations; Phase II descriptive must-know.
• SIDBI Grade A: Very High — Banking regulation, capital adequacy, MSME lending overlap.
• SEBI Grade A: CRITICAL — Direct subject: CMIs, brokers, market impact, proprietary trading; Phase I + II descriptive.

Facts To Remember

1. Stealth Frigate Mahendragiri to Join Indian Navy

The Indian Navy will commission INS Mahendragiri (F38), the sixth indigenous Project 17A stealth frigate, on 11 July 2026 at Visakhapatnam. The warship is part of India’s indigenous warship-building programme. It strengthens naval capabilities and maritime security.

2. Chita Andolan Resumes Over Ken–Betwa Project

The Pyre Protest (Chita Andolan) has resumed in Madhya Pradesh. Displaced families allege delays in rehabilitation, compensation, and resettlement under the Ken–Betwa Link Project. The protest symbolizes the loss of land, homes, forests, and livelihoods.

3. Hayabusa2 Performs Close Flyby of Asteroid Torifune

Japan’s Hayabusa2 spacecraft successfully flew within 800 metres of asteroid Torifune. Torifune is a primitive near-Earth asteroid and a valuable target for planetary research. It is also studied for future impact mitigation strategies.

4. PM Modi Visits Rajasthan and Gujarat

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and laid foundation stones for multiple projects in Rajasthan and Gujarat. He dedicated India’s first greenfield integrated refinery-cum-petrochemical complex at Pachpadra and inaugurated Jodhpur Airport’s new terminal. He also inaugurated a semiconductor OSAT facility in Gujarat.

5. 29th National Conference on e-Governance Held in Jaipur

The 29th National Conference on e-Governance was organized in Jaipur, Rajasthan. The theme was “Viksit Bharat 2047: AI-enabled, Data-driven & Secure Digital Governance.” The conference adopted the Jaipur Declaration 2026 to strengthen digital governance.

6. CCRAS Launches Three New Ayurveda Research Initiatives

The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences launched three major initiatives in New Delhi. These include a Research Methodology Textbook, CCRAS PRAYATNA 2026–27, and a Digital Ecosystem Dashboard. The initiatives aim to strengthen evidence-based Ayurveda research and digital governance.

7. DAC Approves ₹52,000 Crore Defence Modernisation Plan

The Defence Acquisition Council approved acquisition proposals worth about ₹52,000 crore. The approvals cover advanced missile systems, anti-drone technologies, naval unmanned systems, and high-altitude pseudo satellites. The move will strengthen the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

8. Sharnbasva University Signs MoU with Vietnam University

Sharnbasva University signed a five-year MoU with the Industrial University of Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam. The agreement promotes academic collaboration, research, and student-faculty exchange. Initial focus areas include engineering, technology, and management studies.

9. India and Mali Launch First Export Promotion Forum

India and Mali launched the inaugural India–Mali Forum for the Promotion of Exports in Bamako. The forum aims to enhance bilateral trade and investment cooperation. Both countries identified opportunities in textiles, mining, energy, healthcare, and education.

10. Sikkim Mountaineer Tshering Choden Scales Mount Elbrus

Tshering Choden from Sikkim successfully climbed Mount Elbrus, Europe’s highest peak. The achievement marks her second successful ascent in the Seven Summits challenge. Earlier, she had climbed Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa.

11. SBI to Acquire NHB’s Stake in RDCL

State Bank of India announced the acquisition of National Housing Bank’s 10% stake in RMBS Development Company Limited. The move aims to deepen India’s residential mortgage-backed securities market. It will help improve liquidity and support housing finance.

12. ISRO Conducts First SOLVE Ground Test

ISRO successfully conducted the first ground test of SOLVE at Sriharikota. The test validated parachute systems for the Gaganyaan Crew Module. It enhances safety and reliability for India’s future human spaceflight missions.

13. Australia Wins Women’s T20 World Cup 2026

Australia defeated England in the final to win the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2026. The victory secured Australia’s record-extending seventh title. Beth Mooney was named Player of the Final and Tournament.

14. Vaibhav Sooryavanshi Becomes India’s Youngest International Cricketer

Vaibhav Sooryavanshi made his international debut at the age of 15 years and 99 days. He broke Sachin Tendulkar’s long-standing record as India’s youngest international debutant. The young batter earned selection after an outstanding IPL 2026 season.

15. Pandavani Artist Teejan Bai Passes Away

Renowned Pandavani singer Teejan Bai passed away at the age of 70. She played a major role in taking the folk art form to global audiences. She was honoured with Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan.

16. World Rural Development Day Observed on July 6

World Rural Development Day is observed annually on 6 July. The day highlights efforts to reduce rural poverty, strengthen food systems, and achieve Sustainable Development Goals. The first observance took place in 2025.

17. World Zoonoses Day Observed on July 6

World Zoonoses Day is observed every year on 6 July. It commemorates Louis Pasteur’s successful administration of the first rabies vaccine in 1885. The day raises awareness about diseases transmitted from animals to humans.

18. Delhi Launches ₹8,300 Crore Clean Air Project

The Delhi Government announced the ₹8,300 crore “Clean Air, Healthy Delhi” programme. The project will be implemented with support from the World Bank. It aims to accelerate pollution control efforts under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).

19. Pandavani Legend Teejan Bai Passes Away at 70

Padma Vibhushan awardee and renowned Pandavani artist Teejan Bai passed away on 5 July 2026 in Raipur after a prolonged illness. She was the first woman to publicly perform the Kapalik style of Pandavani and helped popularize Chhattisgarh’s folk tradition globally. She was honoured with Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan for her outstanding contribution to Indian folk art.

20. Skyroot’s Vikram-1 to Launch Six Payloads on Mission Aagaman

Skyroot Aerospace announced that its Vikram-1 rocket will carry six payloads during Mission Aagaman from Sriharikota. The payloads include technology demonstrations, a space-debris robotic arm, a CubeSat, and commemorative items featuring scientists C.V. Raman, Vikram Sarabhai, and A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. The mission marks another milestone for India’s private space sector.

21. Union Ministers Welcome PM Modi’s Indonesian Civilian Honour

Union Ministers welcomed the conferment of Indonesia’s highest civilian honour, Bintang Adipurna, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar described it as a matter of pride for every Indian. The award recognizes PM Modi’s contribution to strengthening India–Indonesia bilateral relations.

22. World Zoonoses Day Observed on July 6

World Zoonoses Day is observed every year on 6 July to spread awareness about diseases transmitted between animals and humans. The day commemorates Louis Pasteur’s successful administration of the first rabies vaccine in 1885. It also promotes the One Health approach for preventing zoonotic diseases.

23. India Hosts BRICS Women Working Group Meeting in Kochi

India is hosting the two-day BRICS Women Working Group Meeting in Kochi under its BRICS Chairship. Senior officials from BRICS countries are discussing women’s empowerment, economic participation, and gender-inclusive development. The meeting aims to strengthen cooperation on women-centric policies among member nations.

24. INS Sudarshini Participates in SAIL4TH 250 Celebrations in New York

Indian Naval Sail Training Ship INS Sudarshini arrived in New York to participate in the United States International Naval Review 250 and SAIL4TH 250 celebrations. The ship joined the Parade of Sail along the Hudson River, showcasing India’s maritime heritage. The visit strengthens maritime diplomacy and international naval cooperation.

Context

In July 2026, the 5th annual Global Passport Index (GPI) 2026 — released by Global Citizen Solutions (GCS), a Portugal-based residency and citizenship advisory firm — ranked 197 countries on the strength of their passports. India was ranked 125th with a composite score of 45.1 — its highest in 5 years — but slipped 1 rank from 124th (2025); over 5 years, India has moved up just 2 places (from 127th). Sweden topped the list with 96.05, followed by Switzerland (2nd), Finland (3rd), Germany (4th), Netherlands (5th) — Nordic + European nations continue to dominate. The GPI uses three parameters: Enhanced Mobility (50%), Investment (25%), Quality of Life (25%). India’s category-wise performance: 136th in Enhanced Mobility (down 1), 118th in Quality of Life (up 11), and 94th in Investment (up 3).

What is India’s ranking?

• Rank 2026: 125th (of 197).
• Score: 45.1 (highest in 5 years).
• Change from 2025: Down 1 rank (from 124th).
• Change over 5 years: Up 2 ranks (from 127th).

Who leads the GPI 2026 (Top 10)?

• 1st: Sweden — 96.05.
• 2nd: Switzerland.
• 3rd: Finland.
• 4th: Germany.
• 5th: Netherlands.
• 6th: Denmark.
• 7th: Ireland.
• 8th: United Kingdom.
• 9th: Norway.
• 10th: Singapore.

What are the 3 categories of GPI?

• Enhanced Mobility — 50% weightage.
• Investment — 25% weightage.
• Quality of Life — 25% weightage.

India’s Category-wise Performance

• Enhanced Mobility: 136th (↓ 1 from 2025).
• Quality of Life: 118th (↑ 11 from 2025).
• Investment: 94th (↑ 3 from 2025).

Other Major Global Indices Where India is Ranked

#	Index	Publisher	India’s Rank	Latest Edition
1	Human Development Index (HDI)	UNDP	130 / 193	HDR 2025 (released May 2025)
2	Global Hunger Index (GHI)	Concern Worldwide + Welthungerhilfe (+ IFHV)	102 / 123	2025
3	Global Innovation Index (GII)	WIPO (with Portulans Institute)	38 / 139	2025
4	Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI)	Transparency International	91 / 182	2025 (released Feb 2026)
5	World Press Freedom Index (WPFI)	Reporters Without Borders (RSF)	151 / 180	2025
6	Global Peace Index (GPI)	Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP)	115 / 163	2025
7	Ease of Doing Business (Doing Business Report)	World Bank (discontinued Sept 2021)	63 / 190	2020 (last edition)
8	Sustainable Development Report (SDG Index)	UN SDSN	94 / 167	2026
9	World Happiness Report	University of Oxford’s Wellbeing Research Centre (with Gallup and UN SDSN)	116 / 147	2026
10	Environmental Performance Index (EPI)	Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy + Columbia CIESIN	176 / 180	2024 (biennial; next edition 2026)

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the Global Passport Index (GPI) 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by Global Citizen Solutions (GCS), a Portugal-based firm.
2. It ranks 197 countries.
3. Sweden topped the rankings with a score of 96.05.
4. It is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the GPI is published by Global Citizen Solutions (GCS), NOT the World Economic Forum. WEF publishes different reports — Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report.)

Q2. With reference to India’s rank in GPI 2026, consider the following statements:

1. India was ranked 125th of 197 countries.
2. India’s composite score was 45.1 — its highest in 5 years.
3. India dropped 1 rank from 2025 (was 124th).
4. India was ranked 100th in Enhanced Mobility.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India was ranked 136th in Enhanced Mobility (down 1 from 2025) — NOT 100th. India performs best in Investment (94th).)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Published by GCS, not WEF.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: India ranked 136th in Mobility, not 100th.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-II (International Relations, Global Indices); Prelims (indices, publishers, India’s rank); Mains-Essay on India’s global standing.
• NABARD Grade A: High — general awareness on global indices.
• State PCS: Very High — indices are recurring GK.
• RBI Grade B (Phase I + II): CRITICAL — ESI on economic indices, external sector.

4. INS Mahendragiri (F38)

Context

The Indian Navy will formally commission INS Mahendragiri (F38) — its 6th of 7 Project 17A (Nilgiri-class) indigenous guided-missile stealth frigates — on 11 July 2026 at Visakhapatnam, in the presence of Defence Minister Rajnath Singh. Designed in-house by the Warship Design Bureau (WDB) of the Indian Navy and built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL), Mumbai, the frigate features 75%+ indigenous content — showcasing India’s push under Aatmanirbhar Bharat. Named after the Mahendragiri mountain range in the Eastern Ghats (Odisha) — the 2nd-highest peak in Odisha (~1,501 m) — it joins the Eastern Fleet under the Eastern Naval Command. The frigate is powered by a Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion system, is 149 metres long, and was delivered to the Navy on 30 April 2026 — about 17 months after the lead ship INS Nilgiri (December 2024). Its construction involved 200+ MSMEs, ~4,000 direct jobs, and ~10,000 indirect jobs. The programme cost is ~₹45,000 crore for all 7 ships.

The commissioning at a glance

• Ship: INS Mahendragiri (F38).
• Class: Nilgiri-class (Project 17A).
• Position: 6th of 7 frigates.
• Commissioning: 11 July 2026, Visakhapatnam.
• Attended by: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
• Fleet: Eastern Fleet, Eastern Naval Command.
• Delivered: 30 April 2026.

What is Project 17A?

• Series of 7 advanced stealth frigates — successor to Project 17 (Shivalik-class).
• Total cost: ~₹45,000 crore.
• Builders: 4 by MDL Mumbai + 3 by GRSE Kolkata.
• Predecessor: Shivalik-class (Project 17) — first stealth frigate class.
• Successor: Project 17B (under design).

5. Nepal’s 17th-Century Jestha Varna Mahavihar Receives UNESCO Asia-Pacific Heritage Award 2025

Source: PIB

Context

In July 2026, the 17th-century Jestha Varna Mahavihar — a historic Buddhist monastery in Lalitpur, Nepal — received the UNESCO Asia-Pacific Heritage Award of Merit 2025 for its outstanding conservation and restoration following the 2015 Gorkha earthquake (magnitude 7.8). The Indian Embassy in Kathmandu handed over the Award of Merit at a ceremony where Jaco Du Toit, UNESCO Representative in Nepal, presented a metal plaque and official certificate to the Jestha Varna Mahavihar User Committee, in the presence of Chiri Babu Maharjan (Mayor, Lalitpur Metropolitan City) and Rakesh Pandey (Deputy Chief of Mission, Embassy of India, Kathmandu). Also known as Jyaba Bahi or Chakrabahil, the monastery lies 300 metres from the UNESCO-listed Patan Durbar Square. It was recognised for exemplary community-centred conservation, combining modern seismic retrofitting with preservation of Newari woodcarvings + architecture, while sustaining the living heritage and practices of the Newar Buddhist community. The restoration was funded through the Government of India’s post-2015 earthquake cultural heritage reconstruction grant of NPR 13.78 crore.

UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Nepal (Total: 4)

• Kathmandu Valley (1979).
• Sagarmatha National Park (1979) — Everest.
• Chitwan National Park (1984).
• Lumbini (1997) — Buddha’s birthplace.

Who is UNESCO?

• Full form: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
• Established: 16 November 1945.
• HQ: Paris, France.
• Members: 194 countries (India joined 4 November 1946).
• Director-General: Audrey Azoulay (France; since 2017).
• Motto: “Building peace in the minds of men and women.”
• Notable programmes: World Heritage List (1972), Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003), Memory of the World (1992), Man and the Biosphere (MAB), Global Geoparks.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to Jestha Varna Mahavihar, consider the following statements:

1. It is a 17th-century Buddhist monastery in Lalitpur, Nepal.
2. It received the UNESCO Asia-Pacific Heritage Award of Merit 2025.
3. Its restoration was funded by India’s post-Gorkha earthquake grant of NPR 13.78 crore.
4. It lies within the UNESCO-listed Patan Durbar Square.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; Jestha Varna Mahavihar is located 300 metres AWAY from Patan Durbar Square — NOT within it.)

Q2. With reference to UNESCO, consider the following statements:

1. It was established on 16 November 1945.
2. It is headquartered in Paris, France.
3. Its current Director-General is Audrey Azoulay.
4. India joined UNESCO in 1950.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; India joined UNESCO on 4 November 1946, NOT 1950.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: 300 m from Patan Durbar Square, not within.
2. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: India joined UNESCO in 1946, not 1950.

Facts To Remember

1. New Chiefs Appointed for BPR&D, NCRB & SVPNPA

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet appointed Alok Kumar Mittal as DG of BPR&D, Amit Garg as Director of NCRB, and Sujeet Pandey as Director of SVPNPA. All three are senior IPS officers from the 1993–94 batches. The appointments strengthen leadership in India’s key police and law enforcement institutions.

2. NPCI’s Dilip Asbe Appointed to SWIFT Supervisory Board

NPCI MD & CEO Dilip Asbe was appointed to the Supervisory Board of SWIFT. The appointment reflects India’s growing influence in global digital payment infrastructure. It also highlights the international recognition of India’s UPI-led payment ecosystem.

3. TPG-Led Consortium to Acquire Aseem Infrastructure Finance

TPG Rise Climate, along with GIC and ICICI Bank, signed an agreement to acquire 100% stake in Aseem Infrastructure Finance from NIIF. The deal aims to boost climate financing and sustainable infrastructure investment in India. It is among India’s largest private climate-focused infrastructure transactions.

4. China Launches HY-2E Marine Observation Satellite

China launched the Haiyang-2E (HY-2E) ocean observation satellite aboard the Long March-4B rocket. The satellite will monitor sea conditions, weather, marine ecosystems, and support disaster management. It marks China’s 47th space mission of 2026.

5. India Wins 41 Medals at U15 & U20 Asian Wrestling Championships

India secured 41 medals at the U15 and U20 Asian Wrestling Championships held in Pattaya, Thailand. The tally included 12 gold, 13 silver, and 16 bronze medals. The performance highlights India’s growing strength in junior wrestling.

6. ‘Bridge Man of India’ Girish Bharadwaj Passes Away

Padma Shri awardee Girish Bharadwaj passed away at the age of 76. He was known for constructing over 150 low-cost suspension bridges across five Indian states. His work significantly improved connectivity in remote and rural regions.

7. APEDA Facilitates Export of Jharkhand’s Amrapali Mangoes to Dubai

APEDA facilitated the export of 2 metric tonnes of Amrapali mangoes from Gumla and Deoghar districts of Jharkhand to Dubai. The consignment was supplied by women-led Farmer Producer Companies for sale through Lulu stores. The initiative increased farmers’ returns by around 180% while promoting exports from tribal regions.

8. Ministry of Panchayati Raj Holds Atmanirbhar Panchayat Workshop

The Ministry of Panchayati Raj organised the third Outreach Workshop on the Atmanirbhar Panchayat Programme in Kochi, Kerala. Over 800 Panchayats participated to discuss financial self-reliance, local resource mobilisation, and sustainable rural governance. The programme encourages Panchayats to strengthen their own revenue and prepare bankable development projects.

9. World Kiswahili Language Day Observed on July 7

World Kiswahili Language Day is observed annually on 7 July under UNESCO. The 2026 theme is “Kiswahili for Peace, Solidarity and Global Economic Diplomacy.” The day promotes Kiswahili’s role in fostering unity, cultural exchange, and international cooperation.

10. World Bioproduct Day Observed on July 7

World Bioproduct Day is observed every year on 7 July to promote the use of renewable bio-based products. It highlights the importance of bioproducts in supporting environmental sustainability, climate action, and the circular bioeconomy. The observance was launched in 2021 by the World BioEconomy Forum and the World Bioeconomy Association.

Context

On Wednesday, 8 July 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, along with Indonesian President Prabowo Subianto, visited the iconic Prambanan Temple complex in Yogyakarta, Java (Indonesia) — jointly inaugurating a joint conservation and restoration project for this UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) will be the lead agency from the Indian side.

About Prambanan Temple

• Location: ~17 km northeast of Yogyakarta city, Central Java, Indonesia.
• Built: 9th–10th century (~1,000+ years old).
• Built by: Sanjaya dynasty — patrons of Shaivism in ancient Java.
• Dedication: Primarily to Lord Shiva — also Brahma + Vishnu (Trimurti).
• Sanctuaries: Also for the vahanas — Nandi (Shiva’s bull), Garuda (Vishnu’s eagle), Hamsa (Brahma’s swan).
• Central Shiva temple: 47 metres (154 feet) tall — tallest at Prambanan.
• Reliefs: Intricate stone reliefs depicting the Ramayana — among the finest in Asia.
• Living heritage: Ramayana Ballet performed near Prambanan — popular with tourists.
• UNESCO inscription: 1991.
• Largest Hindu temple complex in Indonesia.

UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Indonesia (Total: 10)

• Cultural (5): Prambanan (1991), Borobudur (1991), Sangiran Early Man Site (1996), Ombilin Coal Mining Heritage (2019), Cosmological Axis of Yogyakarta (2023).
• Natural (5): Komodo NP (1991), Ujung Kulon NP (1991), Lorentz NP (1999), Tropical Rainforest Heritage of Sumatra (2004), and Wallace’s Line-related.

Who is UNESCO?

• Full form: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
• Established: 16 November 1945.
• HQ: Paris, France.
• Members: 194 countries (India joined 4 November 1946).
• Director-General: Audrey Azoulay (France; since 2017).
• World Heritage List established: 1972.
• India’s UNESCO WHS: 43+ (as of 2025).

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-I (Art & Culture, Ancient History, Hindu-Buddhist civilisation); GS-II (India-Indonesia + India-Australia + Act East Policy); Prelims (Prambanan, Borobudur, ASI, Sanjaya + Sailendra dynasties); Mains-Essay on cultural diplomacy.
• NABARD Grade A: Low-Medium — Peripheral.
• State PCS: Very High — Cultural + international relations.

2. UDISE+ 2025-26 Report

Source: PIB

Why in News?

The Union Ministry of Education released the UDISE+ Report 2025-26 on 7 July 2026. It is India’s largest school education database.

What is UDISE+?

• Full Form: Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+)
• Launched: 2018-19 (successor to UDISE)
• Under: Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education
• Type: Online Education Management Information System (EMIS)
• Coverage: All schools from Pre-primary to Class 12
• Purpose:
  • Collect school education data
  • Help in policy making
  • Monitor schemes like Samagra Shiksha and PM POSHAN

Key Highlights of UDISE+ Report 2025-26

Parameter	Key Facts (2025-26)
Schools Covered	14.67 lakh
Teachers	1.03 crore
Students	24.72 crore
Teacher Strength	Increased by 8.3% since 2022-23
Impact	Improved Pupil-Teacher Ratio (PTR) across all school stages

Pupil-Teacher Ratio (PTR)

Level	PTR
Foundational	10:1
Preparatory	12:1
Middle	17:1
Secondary	21:1

NEP 2020 Benchmark: 30:1

Exam Point: All stages perform better than the NEP target.

Key Indicators of UDISE+ Report 2025-26

Indicator	2025-26 Status
Dropout Rate (Preparatory)	1.8% (Declined)
Dropout Rate (Secondary)	7.0% (Declined)
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) – Secondary	71.7% (Up from 68.5%)
Women Teachers	54.9%
Girls’ Enrolment	48.4%
Schools with Computer Facility	69.9%
Schools with Internet Connectivity	67.4%
Basic Facilities Available	Electricity, Drinking Water, Functional Toilets, Handwashing Facilities (available in most schools)
Aadhaar-Seeded Students	90.2%
Student Identification	Every student has a Unique Educational ID (EID)

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the UDISE+ Report 2025-26, consider the following statements:

1. It was released by the Union Ministry of Education on 7 July 2026.
2. It covers 14.67 lakh schools, 1.03 crore teachers, and 24.72 crore students.
3. It is one of the world’s largest school management information systems.
4. It is prepared by NITI Aayog.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; UDISE+ is prepared by the Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education — NOT NITI Aayog.)

Q2. With reference to Pupil-Teacher Ratios (PTRs) per UDISE+ 2025-26, consider the following pairs:

1. Foundational — 10.
2. Preparatory — 12.
3. Middle — 17.
4. Secondary — 30.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Pair 4 is wrong; PTR at Secondary is 21 — NOT 30. In fact, 30:1 is the NEP 2020 BENCHMARK; India’s actual PTR at all 4 stages is BETTER than this benchmark.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: UDISE+ by Ministry of Education, not NITI Aayog.
2. (c) — Pair 4 wrong: Secondary PTR is 21, not 30 (30 is NEP benchmark).

3. PM-SETU Scheme

Source: BL

Context

On Tuesday, 7 July 2026, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) approved the pan-India nationwide rollout of the ₹60,000-crore Pradhan Mantri Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs (PM-SETU) scheme across 200 Industrial Training Institute (ITI) clusters — moving beyond the pilot phase — along with clearance for Strategic Investment Plans (SIPs) worth ₹1,237.58 crore for 5 clusters spread across Odisha, Gujarat, and Telangana. The decision was taken at the 4th meeting of the National Steering Committee (NSC) chaired by Debashree Mukherjee, Secretary, MSDE.

The scheme at a glance

• Scheme: Pradhan Mantri Skilling and Employability Transformation through Upgraded ITIs (PM-SETU).
• Type: Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
• Outlay: ₹60,000 crore over 5 years.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
• Announced: Union Budget 2024-25.
• Union Cabinet approval: May 2025.
• Formal launch by PM Modi: 4 October 2025.
• Nationwide rollout approved: 7 July 2026.
• Global co-financing: World Bank + Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Key Objectives

• Modernise India’s ITI ecosystem.
• Upgrade 1,000 government ITIs into industry-aligned training institutions.
• Bridge the skills-jobs mismatch.
• Align vocational training with current + future industry requirements.
• Prepare a future-ready workforce.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the PM-SETU Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a total outlay of ₹60,000 crore over 5 years.
2. It aims to upgrade 1,000 government ITIs across India.
3. It follows a hub-and-spoke model with 200 hub ITIs and ~800 spoke ITIs.
4. It was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PM-SETU was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 — NOT 2023-24. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in May 2025 and formally launched by PM Modi on 4 October 2025.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: Announced in Budget 2024-25, not 2023-24.

4. AISHE 2023-24 Report

Source: The Hindu

Why in News?

The Ministry of Education released the AISHE Reports 2022-23 and 2023-24 on 8 July 2026. The report provides the latest data on higher education in India.

What is AISHE?

• Full Form: All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE)
• Started: 2010-11
• Conducted by: Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
• Type: Annual web-based survey of higher education institutions (HEIs)
• Coverage: Universities, colleges and standalone institutions across India

Key Highlights

Parameter	2023-24
Total Enrolment	4.50 crore
Female Enrolment	2.24 crore
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER)	30.0
Female GER	31.2
Gender Parity Index (GPI)	1.08
STEM Enrolment	1.02 crore
Female Share in STEM	44%
Total Faculty	17.32 lakh
Women Faculty	44.9%
Institutional Participation	59,533 institutions (>90%)

Major Trends

• Total enrolment increased by 31.5% since 2014-15.
• Female enrolment increased by 42.2% (faster than overall growth).
• GER reached 30 for the first time.
• Female GER (31.2) is higher than the national GER.
• GPI remained above 1.0 for the 7th consecutive year, showing higher female participation.
• ST enrolment recorded the highest growth (75.7%) among disadvantaged groups.

Key Terms

Term	Meaning
AISHE	India’s annual survey that collects data on higher education.
GER (Gross Enrolment Ratio)	Percentage of people aged 18–23 years enrolled in higher education.
Female GER	GER calculated only for female students.
GPI (Gender Parity Index)	Ratio of female GER to male GER; GPI > 1 means more female participation.
STEM	Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics courses.
HEI (Higher Education Institution)	Universities, colleges and standalone higher education institutions.
DCF (Data Capture Format)	Online format through which institutions submit AISHE data.
Faculty	Teachers working in higher education institutions.

5. IGU World LNG Report 2026

Source: The Hindu

Why in News?

The International Gas Union (IGU) released the World LNG Report 2026 on 8 July 2026. India became the 4th largest LNG regasification market in the world, surpassing Spain.

What is the IGU World LNG Report?

• Published by: International Gas Union (IGU)
• Released: Annually
• Purpose: Provides global data on LNG production, trade, imports, exports and regasification infrastructure.

Key Highlights

Parameter	2025 Status
India’s LNG Regasification Capacity	52.5 mtpa
Global Rank	4th (surpassed Spain)
Operational LNG Terminals	8
India’s LNG Import Rank	4th largest importer
New Capacity Added in 2025	7.1 mtpa
Share in Global Capacity Addition	11.3%

What is LNG?

• Full form: Liquefied Natural Gas.
• Natural gas cooled to −162°C to convert it into liquid for easy transport and storage.
• Composition: ~95% Methane (CH₄) + trace ethane, propane, nitrogen.
• Uses: Power generation, city gas, transport fuel, fertilizer feedstock.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-III (Energy, Infrastructure, Environment, External Sector); GS-II (International Institutions); Prelims (LNG, IGU, PNGRB, Petronet, Dahej); Mains-Essay on energy transition.
• NABARD Grade A: Medium — General awareness on energy sector.
• State PCS (Gujarat, Maharashtra, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha): CRITICAL — LNG terminals in these states.

Banking/Finance

1. SEBI Amends FPI Rules

Source: The Economic Times

Context

SEBI has amended the Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) Regulations by replacing the existing US dollar-denominated registration fee with an Indian Rupee (INR)-denominated fee structure. The new rules will become effective after six months.

Key Changes

1. Registration Fee in INR

• Earlier: USD 2,500 for Category-I FPIs and FVCIs.
• Now: ₹2.3 lakh.
• Objective: Remove dependence on US dollar-based payments.

2. Mandatory PAN-related Information

• Applicants must provide:
  • Date of Birth (Individuals), or
  • Date of Incorporation (Entities)
• This will facilitate Permanent Account Number (PAN) allotment.

3. Fee Remittance by DDPs

• Designated Depository Participants (DDPs) must transfer the registration fee collected from FPIs to SEBI within 5 working days of granting registration.

Why has SEBI made this change?

• Simplifies fee collection.
• Eliminates issues arising from foreign currency transactions.
• Improves accounting and reconciliation.
• Enhances operational efficiency and transparency.

Important Terms

Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI)

• A foreign investor investing in Indian financial assets such as shares, bonds and mutual funds.
• Regulated by SEBI.

Foreign Venture Capital Investor (FVCI)

• A foreign investor investing in Indian venture capital funds or start-up companies.
• Registered with SEBI.

Designated Depository Participant (DDP)

• SEBI-authorised intermediary responsible for processing FPI registration and compliance.

FPI vs FDI

Basis	FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment)	FDI (Foreign Direct Investment)
Meaning	Investment in financial assets like shares, bonds, mutual funds	Investment in a company to establish or control business operations
Purpose	Earn returns from financial markets	Long-term business expansion and control
Control	No management control	Significant ownership and management control
Investment Nature	Indirect investment	Direct investment
Investment Horizon	Short-term	Long-term

Agriculture

1. PRAGATI Initiative

Source: Business Line

Context

Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched the PRAGATI initiative on 9 July 2026. The initiative aims to create a nationwide ecosystem of 20,000 agri entrepreneurs to promote regenerative agriculture and rural transformation.

The initiative at a glance

• Programme: PRAGATI.
• Launched by: Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
• Date: 8 July 2026 (event coverage 9 July 2026).
• Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoAFW)
• Nature: Multi-stakeholder + privately-led nationwide initiative.
• Focus: Regenerative + climate-resilient agriculture through inclusive agri-entrepreneurship.

What is PRAGATI?

8 States Covered

• Madhya Pradesh + Bihar + Uttar Pradesh + Assam + West Bengal + Jharkhand + Maharashtra + Rajasthan.

What Will Agri-Entrepreneurs Do?

Core Services at Village-Level Kiosks:

• Agronomy advisory — crop guidance + best practices.
• Soil health services — soil testing + nutrient recommendations.
• Mechanisation solutions — access to farm equipment + tools.
• Credit linkages — connecting farmers to bank + microfinance credit.
• Market access — helping farmers sell at better prices.
• Livelihood opportunities — beyond primary farming.

Financial + Digital Inclusion Push:

• Credit access.
• Insurance (linked to PMFBY etc.).
• Savings products.
• Government entitlements (PM-KISAN, DBTs).

What is Regenerative Agriculture?

• Definition: Farming approach that regenerates soil health, biodiversity, water cycles, and ecosystem functions.
• Key practices:
  • No-till / minimum-till farming.
  • Cover crops.
  • Crop rotation.
  • Agroforestry.
  • Livestock integration.
• Benefits: Improved soil carbon, reduced chemical dependency, better climate resilience.
• Contrasts with: Conventional industrial farming (soil-depleting).

What is Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)?

• Coined by: FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization).
• 3 Pillars of CSA:
  1. Sustainably increase productivity + incomes.
  2. Adapt + build resilience to climate change.
  3. Reduce/remove greenhouse gases where possible.

What is an Agri-Entrepreneur?

• Local rural individual trained to provide agronomy advisory + input services + market linkages to smallholder farmers.
• Runs a village-level kiosk (Agri Business Centre).
• Serves as the last-mile delivery mechanism for climate-smart + technology-driven farming.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the PRAGATI initiative launched on 8 July 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
2. It aims to create a nationwide ecosystem of 20,000 agri-entrepreneurs.
3. It targets impact on 20 lakh (2 million) smallholder farmers.
4. It is fully funded by the Government of India with no private participation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; PRAGATI is a PRIVATELY-LED multi-stakeholder initiative — NOT fully government-funded. It is backed by corporate CSR arms (PepsiCo, SBI Foundation), global philanthropies (Gates Foundation), and NGOs — set to be India’s largest privately-led agri-entrepreneurship programme.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: PRAGATI is privately led, not fully government-funded.

Exam Relevance

• UPSC Prelims & Mains: CRITICAL — GS-II (Government Policies, Public-Private-Philanthropic Partnership); GS-III (Agriculture, Rural Economy, Climate Change); Prelims (PRAGATI, coalition partners, key persons); Mains-Essay on agri-entrepreneurship + climate-resilient farming.
• NABARD Grade A: CRITICAL — Direct subject: rural economy, agri-entrepreneurship, farmer livelihoods, FPOs; ARD paper must-know.

2. Solution for Agriculture Lies in Non-Agriculture

Source: BS

Context

On 8 July 2026, Prof. S. Mahendra Dev, Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM), delivered a keynote address at the Institute of Economic Growth (IEG). He emphasized that India’s agricultural problem can be solved by creating more non-farm employment opportunities in rural areas.

About EAC-PM

• Full Form: Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister
• Established (Present Form): 26 September 2017
• Nature:
  • Non-Constitutional
  • Non-Statutory
  • Advisory Body
• Advice is not binding on the Prime Minister.
• Current Chairman: Prof. S. Mahendra Dev (since 5 June 2025)

Key Data (Important for NABARD)

• Agriculture contributes ~17% to India’s GDP.
• Agriculture employs ~43% of India’s workforce.
• Agriculture has grown at 4.5% annually over the last decade.
• 86% of Indian farmers are small and marginal farmers.

Major Recommendations

1. Structural Transformation

• Shift surplus labour from agriculture to rural non-farm sectors.
• Develop rural industries, MSMEs and services to increase farm incomes.

2. Income-Centric Agriculture

• Focus on farmer income, not just food production.
• Promote:
  • High-value crops
  • Horticulture
  • Livestock
  • Fisheries
  • Agro-processing
  • Better marketing infrastructure

3. Crop Diversification

• Reduce dependence on rice and wheat.
• Encourage cultivation of:
  • Pulses
  • Oilseeds
  • Millets

4. Strengthen Farmer Institutions

• Promote:
  • Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs)
  • Cooperatives
  • Aggregation platforms
• Important because 86% of farmers own small landholdings.

5. Technology in Agriculture

• Use:
  • AgriStack
  • Artificial Intelligence (AI)
  • Drones
  • Biotechnology
  • Satellite technology
  • Gene Editing (allowed in India)

6. Export Policy

• Maintain a stable and predictable export policy.
• This will improve farmers’ income and India’s credibility in global markets.

Facts To Remember

Defence & Science

• DRDO Pinaka Rocket — successfully test-fired the long-range guided version from Integrated Test Range, Chandipur (Odisha); validated user-defined minimum strike range of 60 km; hit designated target with high precision. (Pinaka is a Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher system — remember this is the guided variant, not the standard MBRL.)
• ISRO CE20 Cryogenic Engine — Flight Acceptance Hot Test conducted on 6 July 2026 at Main Engine & Stage Test facility (MET), IPRC Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu, for the LVM3-M7 mission; engine ran at 19.5 tonnes thrust for 45 seconds and 22 tonnes for 25 seconds.

National Schemes & Government Initiatives

• TribeX — launched by Union Tribal Affairs Minister Jual Oram at the National Workshop on Strengthening Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) in Bhubaneswar, Odisha; India’s first-of-its-kind digital learning platform for tribal arts, culture and traditional knowledge.

International Affairs

• UN Global Dialogue on AI Governance 2026 — inaugural session held in Geneva, Switzerland on 6-7 July 2026; Indian delegation led by Kirti Vardhan Singh, MoS in MEA and MoEFCC (dual portfolio — commonly asked).
• Established under UNGA Resolution 79/325, following the Global Digital Compact adopted under the Pact of the Future (September 2024).
• Co-chairs: Paul Kagame (President of Rwanda) and Marc Benioff (CEO, Salesforce); Vice-Chair: Doreen Bogdan-Martin (Secretary-General, ITU).

Environment & Biodiversity

• Mizoram’s Natural History Museum (NHM), Aizawl — notified by MoEFCC as India’s 21st Designated Repository under Section 39 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, on recommendation of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).
• Himalayan Yak — scientists from ICAR’s National Research Centre on Yak (NRC-Y) and Assam Don Bosco University developed an IoT-based smart collar system for high-altitude yaks.
• The Domestic Yak (Bos grunniens) — famously called the “Ship of the Himalayas” — is adapted to sub-zero alpine conditions and provides milk, meat, fibre, fuel and heavy-load transport.

Banking, Finance & Economy

• GIFT City–VIFC-DN MoU — Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (India’s IFSC) signed an MoU with Vietnam International Financial Center–Da Nang in New Delhi to promote cross-border investment and financial linkages.
• GIFT City also signed MoUs with Tata Communications Limited (for Global Capability Centres) and CEPT University,

Awards & Recognitions (GI Tag)

• Sirsa Kinnow — granted GI tag by the Geographical Indication Registry (GIR) under DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry; Haryana’s first-ever GI-tagged fruit.
• Certification granted to Kharisureran Farmer Producer Company Limited in Sirsa district.
• Kinnow origins: developed in early 20th century in California, USA by horticulturist Howard B. Frost; a hybrid of King Mandarin (Citrus nobilis) × Willow Leaf Mandarin (Citrus × deliciosa); rich in Vitamin C, calcium and potassium.

Appointments & Resignations

• Mahesh Muralidhar Pai — appointed MD & CEO of South Indian Bank (SIB) for a 3-year term from 1 October 2026; succeeds P.R. Seshadri.
• N.S. Vishwanathan — reappointed as Non-Executive (Part-time) Chairman of Axis Bank Limited for three years (27 October 2026 – 26 October 2029).
• Sourav Ganguly — appointed brand ambassador of InsuranceDekho; launched the “Khul Kar Khelo” campaign for insurance advisors.
• InsuranceDekho — founded 2016, headquartered in Gurugram, Haryana; legal name Girnar Insurance Brokers Pvt. Ltd.

Sports & Miscellaneous

• Durand Cup 2026 — the President of India unveiled and flagged off the three distinct winner trophies at Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre.
• Bisleri–Indian Coast Guard partnership — Bisleri International signed a Letter of Association (LoA) with the ICG (Kerala and Mahe) through its flagship initiative “Bottles for Change” (BFC).

Obituary

• Shapoor Zadran — former Afghanistan left-arm fast bowler, passed away at 38 on 7 July 2026 in New Delhi; born 8 July 1987 in Paktia Province, Afghanistan.

Context

The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) released the Global Liveability Index 2026 — its annual assessment of 173 cities worldwide across 30 indicators grouped into 5 categories: Stability, Healthcare, Culture and Environment, Education, and Infrastructure.

Five Assessment Categories

Category	Measures
Stability	Crime, terrorism, civil unrest
Healthcare	Quality of public & private healthcare
Culture & Environment	Climate, culture, environment, corruption, censorship
Education	Quality and availability of schools
Infrastructure	Roads, transport, housing, connectivity

Top 10 Most Liveable Cities (2026)

Rank	City	Country
1	Copenhagen	Denmark
2	Vienna	Austria
3	Melbourne	Australia
4	Sydney	Australia
5	Zurich	Switzerland
6	Geneva	Switzerland
7	Osaka	Japan
8	Adelaide	Australia
9	Vancouver	Canada
10	Tokyo	Japan

Indian Cities in the Index

City	Rank (2026)
New Delhi	120
Mumbai	121
Chennai	123
Bengaluru	127

Bottom Ranked City

Rank	City	Country
173	Damascus	Syria

Who is EIU?

• Full form: Economist Intelligence Unit.
• Founded: 1946 — nearly 80 years old.
• HQ: London, UK.
• Part of: Economist Enterprise — part of The Economist Group.
• Publications:
  • Global Liveability Index (since 1988).
  • Democracy Index (annual).
  • Cost of Living Survey.
  • World Ahead (macroeconomic forecasts).
  • Business Environment Rankings.

Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to the EIU Global Liveability Index 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It is published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU).
2. It assesses 173 cities worldwide across 30 indicators.
3. The 5 categories are: Stability, Healthcare, Culture and Environment, Education, and Infrastructure.
4. It is published by the World Bank.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four (e) None

(Statement 4 is wrong; the Global Liveability Index is published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) — part of The Economist Group — NOT the World Bank.)

Answer Key

1. (c) — Statement 4 wrong: EIU publishes it, not World Bank.

3. Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0

Why in News?

The Department of School Education & Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education (MoE) released the Performance Grading Index 2.0 for States/UTs (PGI-S) and Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) reports for 2025-26. No State or Union Territory achieved the highest performance grade (Utkarsh).

What is Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0?

• Launched: 2018 (covering data for 2017-18).
• Developed by: Department of School Education & Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education.
• Purpose: Measures the performance of school education across States, UTs and Districts.
• Approach: Uses performance grades instead of rankings to encourage improvement rather than competition.

Types of PGI

Index	Coverage	Maximum Score
PGI-S	States & Union Territories	1000
PGI-D	Districts	600

PGI-S Framework (States & UTs)

• Total Indicators: 70
• Total Score: 1000
• Major Categories: 2

Category	Covers
Outcomes	Learning, access, infrastructure and equity
Governance & Management	Governance processes and teacher education

Six Domains

• Learning Outcomes & Quality
• Access Outcomes
• Infrastructure & Facilities
• Educational Equity
• Governance Processes
• Teacher Education & Training

PGI-D Framework (Districts)

• Coverage: 784 districts
• Total Indicators: 70
• Total Score: 600

Six Domains

• Outcomes
• Effective Classroom Transaction
• Infrastructure Facilities & Student Entitlements
• School Safety & Child Protection
• Digital Learning
• Governance Process

Performance Grades

Grade	Score Range
Utkarsh	Above 90%
Uttam	61–90%
Prachesta	31–60%
Akanshi	Below 40%

Exam Point: No State/UT secured the Utkarsh grade in 2025-26.

Banking/Finance

1. IMF World Economic Outlook (WEO)

Why in News?

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) released the World Economic Outlook (WEO) Update – July 2026, titled “Global Economy in Crosscurrents of War and Technology”. The report projects India’s GDP growth at 6.4% in FY27.

India-Specific Highlights

Indicator	Details
FY27 GDP Growth Forecast	6.4%
April 2026 Forecast	6.5%
FY28 GDP Growth Forecast	6.7%
India’s GDP Growth (FY26)	7.7%

Exam Point: India’s FY27 growth forecast was revised down from 6.5% to 6.4%, while the FY28 forecast was raised to 6.7%.

Global Economic Outlook

Indicator	2026	2027
Global GDP Growth	3.0%	3.4%
World Trade Growth	3.5%	4.3%
Global Headline Inflation	4.7%	3.9%

Additional Fact: World trade growth is expected to slow from 5.0% (2025) to 3.5% (2026) before recovering.

About World Economic Outlook (WEO)

• Published by: International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• Frequency: Twice a year (April & October), with periodic updates.
• Purpose: Provides forecasts for global economic growth, inflation, trade and major macroeconomic indicators.

About IMF

Feature	Details
Full Form	International Monetary Fund
Established	1944 (Bretton Woods Conference)
Headquarters	Washington, D.C., USA
Member Countries	191
Managing Director	Kristalina Georgieva

Key Terms

Term	Meaning
GDP	Total value of goods and services produced in a country during a year.
FY27	Financial Year 2026–27 (1 April 2026 – 31 March 2027).
Headline Inflation	Overall inflation based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI), including food and fuel.
World Trade Volume	Total volume of international trade in goods and services.

2. ADB India Economic Outlook 2026

Why in News?

In July 2026, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) released the ADB India Economic Outlook 2026. ADB revised India’s GDP growth forecast for FY2026-27 (FY27) downward to 6.6% from 6.9% (April 2026 forecast), mainly due to high energy prices impacting household consumption.

India-Specific Highlights

• FY27 GDP Growth: 6.6% (Earlier: 6.9%)
• FY28 GDP Growth: 7.3% (Unchanged)
• Reason for FY27 downgrade: Rising energy prices reducing household purchasing power.
• FY28 outlook: Supported by policy measures, stronger exports, and improving global economic conditions.

India’s Inflation Forecast

Financial Year	Inflation Forecast
FY27	5.2% (Earlier: 4.5%)
FY28	4.0% (Unchanged)

FY28 Forecasts

• India: 7.3% (Unchanged)
• Developing Asia-Pacific: 5.1% (Unchanged)

Reasons for India’s Growth Downgrade

• Rising energy prices.
• Pressure on household incomes and consumption.
• Higher inflation.
• Global economic uncertainties.

About Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Feature	Details
Established	1966
Headquarters	Manila, Philippines
Members	69 (49 regional, 20 non-regional)
India Joined	1966 (Founding Member)
President	Masato Kanda

Facts To Remember

DEFENCE & SECURITY

1. DRDO Pinaka Long-Range Guided Rocket Test

• DRDO test-fired the Pinaka Long-Range Guided Rocket (LRGR) at ITR Chandipur, Odisha.
• Validated user-specified minimum range of 60 km; hit target with precision.
• Fired from a Pinaka MBRL launcher — can fire multiple variants from a single launcher.
• Developed by ARDE, Pune with HEMRL, DRDL & RCI (Hyderabad).

2. Drishti-10 Starliner UAV Crash

• Indian Navy’s Drishti-10 UAV crashed near Porbandar (Gujarat) on 8 July 2026; no casualties; Board of Inquiry ordered.
• Operated by INAS 343 “Frontier Formidables” (commissioned Jan 2024, Porbandar).
• Second Hermes-900 platform loss in 18 months (first: Jan 2025, ditched in Arabian Sea).
• Indian version of Israel’s Hermes-900 MALE UAV (Elbit Systems); made by Adani Defence at Hyderabad, Telangana.
• Specs: endurance 36 hours, payload ~450 kg, cost ~₹140 crore/unit.

3. Adani Defence Missile Complex in MP

• ₹2,500 crore investment at Shivpuri, MP — South Asia’s largest private missile ecosystem.
• Foundation stone laid by MP CM Mohan Yadav and Union Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia.
• India’s first private complex integrating composite propellants, TNT manufacturing and missile system integration at one site.

MISCELLANEOUS & MAPPING

4. The Hummus Trail

• Term for Indian tourist enclaves frequented by young Israeli tourists post-military service.
• Came into focus after the Hind Rajab Foundation sought action against an Israeli tourist in Himachal Pradesh.
• ~80,000 Israelis visit India annually; extended trip called “Tiul Gadol” (6-12 months).
• Israel allocated 4 million NIS in 2026 for India-Israel tourism cooperation.

5. Kamarajar Port Achieves 18-Metre Draft

• Kamarajar Port Ltd (KPL) completed Capital Dredging Phase VI.
• India’s 2nd major port (after Visakhapatnam) to achieve 18 m draft — can handle Cape-size vessels.
• Formerly Ennore Port Ltd; India’s first corporatized Major Port; operates on Landlord Port Model.
• On Coromandel Coast, ~24 km north of Chennai (TN).
• Declared India’s 12th Major Port under Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999; commercial ops began 1 Feb 2001.

STATE POLICIES

6. Gujarat Data Centre Policy (2026-29)

• Gujarat’s first-ever Data Centre Policy, unveiled by CM Bhupendra Patel in Gandhinagar.
• Target: ₹6 lakh crore investment and 7.5 GW data centre capacity.
• Focus: hyperscale data centres, cloud computing, AI infrastructure.

INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS

7. 13th ASEAN-India AITIGA Joint Committee Meeting

• Hosted by India at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi (6-10 July 2026, hybrid format).
• Co-chaired by Nitin Kumar Yadav (India) & Mastura Ahmad Mustafa (Malaysia).
• All 10 ASEAN members participated.
• AITIGA: signed 13 Aug 2009, in force 1 Jan 2010; goods pillar of AIFTA (services/investment pillars in force July 2015).
• India-ASEAN trade: US$128 billion in 2025-26; ASEAN = ~11% of India’s global trade.
• Trade deficit widened from US$7.5 bn (inception) to ~US$44 bn (2023).

8. PM Modi’s Visit to Indonesia (6-8 July 2026)

• 3-day state visit at invitation of President Prabowo Subianto.
• Modi became 1st Indian PM to address the Indonesian Parliament (DPR — Dewan Perwakilan Rakyat).
• Unveiled the “Ganga-Mahakam Vision”; visited the Prambanan Temple (UNESCO WHS, Yogyakarta) — restoration led by ASI.
• Conferred with “Bintang Adipurna of the Republic of Indonesia” — Indonesia’s highest civilian honour.
• Visit outcomes: 20 total — 14 MoUs + 6 announcements.

9. CSIR’s Manas and Mahabharata Centre in Kyrgyzstan

• Centre for Studies of International Relations (CSIR), New Delhi + Manas National Academy established the International Centre for Civilizational Studies ‘Manas and Mahabharata’ in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan.
• First Hindi translation of the Kyrgyz epic ‘Manas’ released, by Hem Chandra Pande & Ramakant Dwivedi.
• Trilateral agreement signed with 7 Kyrgyz universities.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

10. CSIR-IICT’s Indigenous Green Refrigerant Technology

• CSIR-IICT, Hyderabad developed India’s first indigenous process for Hydrofluoroolefin-1234yf (HFO-1234yf).
• Will replace HFCs in refrigeration and AC systems (supports Atmanirbhar Bharat).
• Bonus: CSIR-CIMFR (Dhanbad) developed Smart Algal Liquid Tree (SALT) — a mobile photobioreactor using microalgae to absorb CO₂. Installed at CSIR-CIMFR and NCL, Singrauli (MP).

11. ISRO’s Gaganyaan IMAT-05 Parachute Test

• ISRO conducted Integrated Main Parachute Airdrop Test-05 (IMAT-05) on 7 July 2026 at ADRDE drop zone, Sheopur, MP.
• Payload dropped from 2.5 km altitude via an IAF IL-76 aircraft.
• Validated Main Parachute System for uncrewed Gaganyaan G1 mission.
• Gaganyaan Crew Module uses 10 parachutes of 4 types (Apex Cover Separation, Drogue, Pilot, Main).
• ISRO: est. 15 Aug 1969; HQ Bengaluru; Chairman V. Narayanan.

ACQUISITIONS & MERGERS

12. Aviva Becomes First Foreign Insurer to Fully Own Indian Life Insurance Business

• UK’s Aviva Plc to acquire remaining 26% stake in Aviva Life Insurance India from Dabur Invest Corp (DIC).
• Becomes 1st foreign insurer to fully own its Indian life insurance business.
• Follows GoI’s decision to allow 100% FDI in insurance (May 2026).
• Aviva’s stake rises 74% → 100%; ends Dabur’s 20+ year JV (began 2001).

SPORTS

13. Aswath S Becomes India’s 98th Chess Grandmaster

• 17-year-old Aswath S from Kanyakumari, TN became India’s 98th GM at the Pune International GM Round Robin Tournament.
• Secured third and final GM norm by finishing runner-up with 7/9 points.
• Earlier norms: Grenke Open A, Germany (April 2025) and First Saturday GM, Budapest (Dec 2025).

14. F1 British Grand Prix 2026

• Won by Monaco’s Charles Leclerc (Ferrari) at Silverstone Circuit, Northamptonshire, England — 9th round of 2026 season.
• Leclerc’s first win of 2026, 9th career F1 win; Ferrari’s 250th F1 GP triumph.
• Podium: Leclerc → George Russell (Mercedes) → Lewis Hamilton (Ferrari).
• Championship leaders: Kimi Antonelli (Drivers’, 179 pts); Mercedes (Constructors’, 333 pts).

15. Telangana to Host 8th Khelo India Youth Games

• Announced by Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya; to be held in November 2026.
• ~8,000 athletes expected.
• 7th KIYG (2025): hosted by Bihar; Maharashtra was overall champion.
• Khelo India Programme launched in 2018 by MYAS.

16. Leander Paes Joins Asian Tennis Federation as Player Ambassador

• Appointed Player Ambassador of ATF to promote grassroots tennis in Asia.
• Career: bronze at 1996 Atlanta Olympics (India’s only Olympic tennis medal); former World No. 1 in doubles; 18 Grand Slam titles; 8 Asian Games medals (5 gold).
• Awards: Arjuna (1990), Khel Ratna (1996-97), Padma Shri (2001), Padma Bhushan (2014).
• Inducted into International Tennis Hall of Fame in 2024.